AB 383, as amended, Wagner. Maintenance of the codes.
Existing law directs the Legislative Counsel to advise the Legislature from time to time as to legislation necessary to maintain the codes.
This bill would make nonsubstantive changes in various provisions of law to effectuate the recommendations made by the Legislative Counsel to the Legislature.
Vote: majority. Appropriation: no. Fiscal committee: no. State-mandated local program: no.
The people of the State of California do enact as follows:
Section 1202 of the Business and Professions 
2Code is amended to read:
As used in this chapter, “department” means the State 
4Department of Public Health.
Section 4836.1 of the Business and Professions Code
6 is amended to read:
(a) Notwithstanding any other law, a registered 
8veterinary technician or a veterinary assistant may administer a 
9drug, including, but not limited to, a drug that is a controlled 
10substance, under the direct or indirect supervision of a licensed 
11veterinarian when done pursuant to the order, control, and full 
12professional responsibility of a licensed veterinarian. However, 
13no person, other than a licensed veterinarian, may induce anesthesia 
14unless authorized by regulation of the board.
15(b) Access to controlled substances by veterinary assistants 
16under this section is limited to persons who have undergone a 
17background check and who, to the best of the licensee manager’s 
18knowledge, do not have any drug- or alcohol-related felony 
19convictions.
20(c) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), if the Veterinary Medical 
21Board, in consultation with the Board of Pharmacy, identifies a 
22dangerous drug, as defined in Section 4022, as a drug which has 
23an established pattern of being diverted, the Veterinary Medical 
24Board may restrict access to that drug by veterinary assistants.
25(d) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
26(1) “Controlled substance” has the same meaning as that term 
27is defined in Section 11007 of the Health and Safety Code.
28(2) “Direct supervision” has the same meaning as that term is 
29defined in subdivision (e) of Section 2034 of Title 16 of the 
30California Code of Regulations.
31(3) “Drug” has the same meaning as
				  that term is defined in 
32Section 11014 of the Health and Safety Code.
P4    1(4) “Indirect supervision” has the same meaning as that term is 
2defined in subdivision (f) of Section 2034 of Title 16 of the 
3California Code of Regulations.
4(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2015, 
5and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that 
6is enacted before January 1, 2015, deletes or extends that date.
Section 4999.32 of the Business and Professions Code
8 is amended to read:
(a) This section shall apply to applicants for 
10examination eligibility or registration who begin graduate study 
11before August 1, 2012, and complete that study on or before 
12December 31, 2018. Those applicants may alternatively qualify 
13under paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 4999.33.
14(b) To qualify for examination eligibility or registration, 
15applicants shall possess a master’s or doctoral degree that is 
16counseling or psychotherapy in content and that meets the 
17requirements of this section, obtained from an accredited or 
18approved institution, as defined in Section 4999.12. For purposes 
19of this subdivision, a degree is “counseling or psychotherapy in 
20content” if it contains the supervised practicum or field study 
21experience described in paragraph (3) of
				  subdivision (c) and, except 
22as provided in subdivision (d), the coursework in the core content 
23areas listed in subparagraphs (A) to (I), inclusive, of paragraph (1) 
24of subdivision (c).
25(c) The degree described in subdivision (b) shall contain not 
26less than 48 graduate semester or 72 graduate quarter units of 
27instruction, which shall, except as provided in subdivision (d), 
28include all of the following:
29(1) The equivalent of at least three semester units or four and 
30one-half quarter units of graduate study in each of the following 
31core content areas:
32(A) Counseling and psychotherapeutic theories and techniques, 
33including the counseling process in a multicultural society, an 
34orientation to wellness and prevention, counseling theories to assist 
35in selection of appropriate counseling interventions, models of 
36counseling
				  consistent with current professional research and 
37practice, development of a personal model of counseling, and 
38multidisciplinary responses to crises, emergencies, and disasters.
39(B) Human growth and development across the lifespan, 
40including normal and abnormal behavior and an understanding of 
P5    1developmental crises, disability, psychopathology, and situational 
2and environmental factors that affect both normal and abnormal 
3behavior.
4(C) Career development theories and techniques, including 
5career development decisionmaking models and interrelationships 
6among and between work, family, and other life roles and factors, 
7including the role of multicultural issues in career development.
8(D) Group counseling theories and techniques, including 
9principles of group dynamics, group process components, 
10developmental stage
				  theories, therapeutic factors of group work, 
11group leadership styles and approaches, pertinent research and 
12literature, group counseling methods, and evaluation of 
13effectiveness.
14(E) Assessment, appraisal, and testing of individuals, including 
15basic concepts of standardized and nonstandardized testing and 
16other assessment techniques, norm-referenced and 
17criterion-referenced assessment, statistical concepts, social and 
18cultural factors related to assessment and evaluation of individuals 
19and groups, and ethical strategies for selecting, administering, and 
20interpreting assessment instruments and techniques in counseling.
21(F) Multicultural counseling theories and techniques, including 
22counselors’ roles in developing cultural self-awareness, identity 
23development, promoting cultural social justice, individual and 
24community strategies for working with and advocating for diverse
25
				  populations, and counselors’ roles in eliminating biases and 
26prejudices, and processes of intentional and unintentional 
27oppression and discrimination.
28(G) Principles of the diagnostic process, including differential 
29diagnosis, and the use of current diagnostic tools, such as the 
30current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual, the impact 
31of co-occurring substance use disorders or medical psychological 
32disorders, established diagnostic criteria for mental or emotional 
33disorders, and the treatment modalities and placement criteria 
34within the continuum of care.
35(H) Research and evaluation, including studies that provide an 
36understanding of research methods, statistical analysis, the use of 
37research to inform evidence-based practice, the importance of 
38research in advancing the profession of counseling, and statistical 
39methods used in conducting research, needs assessment, and
40
				  program evaluation.
P6    1(I) Professional orientation, ethics, and law in counseling, 
2including professional ethical standards and legal considerations, 
3licensing law and process, regulatory laws that delineate the 
4profession’s scope of practice, counselor-client privilege, 
5confidentiality, the client dangerous to self or others, treatment of 
6minors with or without parental consent, relationship between 
7practitioner’s sense of self and human values, functions and 
8relationships with other human service providers, strategies for 
9collaboration, and advocacy processes needed to address 
10institutional and social barriers that impede access, equity, and 
11success for clients.
12(2) In addition to the course requirements described in paragraph 
13(1), a minimum of 12 semester units or 18 quarter units of advanced 
14coursework to develop knowledge of specific treatment issues, 
15special populations,
				  application of counseling constructs, 
16assessment and treatment planning, clinical interventions, 
17therapeutic relationships, psychopathology, or other clinical topics.
18(3) Not less than six semester units or nine quarter units of 
19supervised practicum or field study experience, or the equivalent, 
20in a clinical setting that provides a range of professional clinical 
21counseling experience, including the following:
22(A) Applied psychotherapeutic techniques.
23(B) Assessment.
24(C) Diagnosis.
25(D) Prognosis.
26(E) Treatment.
27(F) Issues of development, adjustment, and maladjustment.
28(G) Health and wellness promotion.
29(H) Other recognized counseling interventions.
30(I) A minimum of 150 hours of face-to-face supervised clinical 
31experience counseling individuals, families, or groups.
32(d) (1) An applicant whose degree is deficient in no more than 
33two of the required areas of study listed in subparagraphs (A) to 
34(I), inclusive, of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) may satisfy those 
35deficiencies by successfully completing post-master’s or 
36postdoctoral degree coursework at an accredited or approved 
37institution, as defined in Section 4999.12.
38(2) Coursework taken to meet deficiencies in the required areas 
39of study listed in subparagraphs (A)
				  to (I), inclusive, of paragraph 
P7    1(1) of subdivision (c) shall be the equivalent of three semester units 
2or four and one-half quarter units of study.
3(3) The board shall make the final determination as to whether 
4a degree meets all requirements, including, but not limited to, 
5course requirements, regardless of accreditation.
6(e) In addition to the degree described in this section, or as part 
7of that degree, an applicant shall complete the following 
8coursework or training prior to registration as an intern:
9(1) A minimum of 15 contact hours of instruction in alcoholism 
10and other chemical substance abuse dependency, as specified by 
11regulation.
12(2) A minimum of 10 contact hours of training or coursework 
13in human sexuality as specified in Section 25, and any
				  regulations 
14promulgated thereunder.
15(3) A two semester unit or three quarter unit survey course in 
16psychopharmacology.
17(4) A minimum of 15 contact hours of instruction in spousal or 
18partner abuse assessment, detection, and intervention strategies, 
19including knowledge of community resources, cultural factors, 
20and same gender abuse dynamics.
21(5) A minimum of seven contact hours of training or coursework 
22in child abuse assessment and reporting as specified in Section 28 
23and any regulations adopted thereunder.
24(6) A minimum of 18 contact hours of instruction in California 
25law and professional ethics for professional clinical counselors 
26that includes, but is not limited to, instruction in advertising, scope 
27of practice, scope of competence, treatment of
				  minors, 
28confidentiality, dangerous clients, psychotherapist-client privilege, 
29recordkeeping, client access to records, dual relationships, child 
30abuse, elder and dependent adult abuse, online therapy, insurance 
31reimbursement, civil liability, disciplinary actions and 
32unprofessional conduct, ethics complaints and ethical standards, 
33termination of therapy, standards of care, relevant family law, 
34therapist disclosures to clients, and state and federal laws related 
35to confidentiality of patient health information. When coursework 
36in a master’s or doctoral degree program is acquired to satisfy this 
37requirement, it shall be considered as part of the 48 semester unit 
38or 72 quarter unit requirement in subdivision (c).
39(7) A minimum of 10 contact hours of instruction in aging and 
40long-term care, which may include, but is not limited to, the 
P8    1biological, social, and psychological aspects of aging. On and after 
2January 1, 2012, this coursework shall
				  include instruction on the 
3assessment and reporting of, as well as treatment related to, elder 
4and dependent adult abuse and neglect.
5(8) A minimum of 15 contact hours of instruction in crisis or 
6trauma counseling, including multidisciplinary responses to crises, 
7emergencies, or disasters, and brief, intermediate, and long-term 
8approaches.
9(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2019, 
10and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute that 
11is enacted before January 1, 2019, deletes or extends that date.
Section 5096.10 of the Business and Professions Code, 
13as amended by Section 32 of Chapter 411 of the Statutes of 2012, 
14is amended to read:
(a) The provisions of this article shall only be 
16operative if there is an appropriation from the Accountancy Fund 
17in the annual Budget Act to fund the activities in the article and 
18sufficient hiring authority is granted pursuant to a budget change 
19proposal to the board to provide staffing to implement this article.
20(b) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2013, and, 
21as of January 1, 2014, is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, 
22that becomes operative on or before January 1, 2014, deletes or 
23extends the dates on which it becomes inoperative and is repealed.
Section 21609.1 of the Business and Professions Code
25 is amended to read:
(a) No junk dealer or recycler shall possess any 
27reasonably recognizable, disassembled, or inoperative fire hydrant 
28or fire department connection, including, but not limited to, 
29reasonably recognizable brass fittings and parts, or any manhole 
30cover or lid or reasonably recognizable part of a manhole cover 
31or lid, or any backflow device or connection to that device or 
32reasonably recognizable part of that device, that was owned or 
33previously owned by an agency, in the absence of a written 
34certification on the letterhead of the agency owning or previously 
35owning the material described in the certification that the agency 
36has either sold the material described or is offering the material 
37for sale, salvage, or recycling, and that the person possessing the 
38certification and identified in the certification is authorized to 
39negotiate
				  the sale of that material.
P9    1(b) A junk dealer or recycler who unknowingly takes possession 
2of one or more of the items listed in subdivision (a) as part of a 
3load of otherwise nonprohibited materials without a written 
4certification has a duty to notify the appropriate law enforcement 
5agency by the end of the next business day upon discovery of the 
6prohibited material. Written certification shall relieve the junk 
7dealer or recycler from any civil or criminal penalty for possession 
8of the prohibited material. The prohibited material shall be set 
9aside and not sold pending a determination made by a law 
10enforcement agency pursuant to Section 21609.
11(c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
12(1) “Agency” means a public agency, city, county, city and 
13county, special district, or private utility
				  regulated by the Public 
14Utilities Commission.
15(2) “Appropriate law enforcement agency” means either of the 
16following:
17(A) The police chief of the city, or his or her designee, if the 
18item or items listed in subdivision (a) are located within the 
19territorial limits of an incorporated city.
20(B) The sheriff of the county or his or her designee if the item 
21or items listed are located within the county but outside the 
22territorial limits of an incorporated city.
23(3) “Written certification” means a certification in written form 
24by the junk dealer or recycler to a law enforcement agency, 
25including electronic mail, facsimile, or a letter delivered in person 
26or by certified mail.
Section 23958.4 of the Business and Professions Code
28 is amended to read:
(a) For purposes of Section 23958, “undue 
30concentration” means the case in which the applicant premises for 
31an original or premises-to-premises transfer of any retail license 
32are located in an area where any of the following conditions exist:
33(1) The applicant premises are located in a crime reporting 
34district that has a 20 percent greater number of reported crimes, 
35as defined in subdivision (c), than the average number of reported 
36crimes as determined from all crime reporting districts within the 
37jurisdiction of the local law enforcement agency.
38(2) As to on-sale retail license applications, the ratio of on-sale 
39retail licenses to population in the census tract or census division 
40in which the
				  applicant premises are located exceeds the ratio of 
P10   1on-sale retail licenses to population in the county in which the 
2applicant premises are located.
3(3) As to off-sale retail license applications, the ratio of off-sale 
4retail licenses to population in the census tract or census division 
5in which the applicant premises are located exceeds the ratio of 
6off-sale retail licenses to population in the county in which the 
7applicant premises are located.
8(b) Notwithstanding Section 23958, the department may issue 
9a license as follows:
10(1) With respect to a nonretail license, a retail on-sale bona fide 
11eating place license, a retail license issued for a hotel, motel, or 
12other lodging establishment, as defined in subdivision (b) of 
13Section 25503.16, a retail license issued in conjunction with a beer 
14manufacturer’s license, or
				  a winegrower’s license, if the applicant 
15shows that public convenience or necessity would be served by 
16the issuance.
17(2) With respect to any other license, if the local governing body 
18of the area in which the applicant premises are located, or its 
19designated subordinate officer or body, determines within 90 days 
20of notification of a completed application that public convenience 
21or necessity would be served by the issuance. The 90-day period 
22shall commence upon receipt by the local governing body of (A) 
23notification by the department of an application for licensure, or 
24(B) a completed application according to local requirements, if 
25any, whichever is later.
26If the local governing body, or its designated subordinate officer 
27or body, does not make a determination within the 90-day period, 
28then the department may issue a license if the applicant shows the 
29department that public convenience or necessity
				  would be served 
30by the issuance. In making its determination, the department shall 
31not attribute any weight to the failure of the local governing body, 
32or its designated subordinate officer or body, to make a 
33determination regarding public convenience or necessity within 
34the 90-day period.
35(c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall 
36apply:
37(1) “Reporting districts” means geographical areas within the 
38boundaries of a single governmental entity (city or the 
39unincorporated area of a county) that are identified by the local 
P11   1law enforcement agency in the compilation and maintenance of 
2statistical information on reported crimes and arrests.
3(2) “Reported crimes” means the most recent yearly compilation 
4by the local law enforcement agency of reported offenses of 
5criminal homicide, forcible rape,
				  robbery, aggravated assault, 
6burglary, larceny, theft, and motor vehicle theft, combined with 
7all arrests for other crimes, both felonies and misdemeanors, except 
8traffic citations.
9(3) “Population within the census tract or census division” means 
10the population as determined by the most recent United States 
11decennial or special census. The population determination shall 
12not operate to prevent an applicant from establishing that an 
13increase of resident population has occurred within the census tract 
14or census division.
15(4) “Population in the county” shall be determined by the annual 
16population estimate for California counties published by the 
17Population Research Unit of the Department of Finance.
18(5) “Retail licenses” shall include the following:
19(A) Off-sale retail licenses: Type 20 (off-sale beer and wine) 
20and Type 21 (off-sale general).
21(B) On-sale retail licenses: All retail on-sale licenses, except 
22Type 43 (on-sale beer and wine for train), Type 44 (on-sale beer 
23and wine for fishing party boat), Type 45 (on-sale beer and wine 
24for boat), Type 46 (on-sale beer and wine for airplane), Type 53 
25(on-sale general for train and sleeping car), Type 54 (on-sale 
26general for boat), Type 55 (on-sale general for airplane), Type 56 
27(on-sale general for vessels of more than 1,000 tons burden), and 
28Type 62 (on-sale general bona fide public eating place intermittent 
29dockside license for vessels of more than 15,000 tons 
30displacement).
31(6) A “premises-to-premises transfer” refers to each license 
32being separate and distinct, and transferable upon approval of the 
33department.
34(d) For purposes of this section, the number of retail licenses 
35in the county shall be established by the department on an annual 
36basis.
37(e) The enactment of this section shall not affect any existing 
38rights of any holder of a retail license issued before April 29, 1992, 
39whose premises were destroyed or rendered unusable as a result 
P12   1of the civil disturbances occurring in Los Angeles from April 29 
2to May 2, 1992, to reopen and operate those licensed premises.
3(f) This section shall not apply if the premises have been 
4licensed and operated with the same type license within 90 days 
5of the application.
Section 25502.2 of the Business and Professions Code
7 is amended to read:
(a) A person employed or engaged by an authorized 
9licensee may appear at a promotional event at the premises of an 
10off-sale retail licensee for the purposes of providing autographs 
11to consumers at the promotional event only under the following 
12conditions:
13(1) A purchase from the off-sale retail licensee is not required.
14(2) A fee is not charged to attend the promotional event.
15(3) Autographing may only be provided on consumer advertising 
16specialities given by the authorized licensee to a consumer or on 
17any item provided by the consumer.
18(4) The promotional event does not
				  exceed four hours in 
19duration.
20(5) There are no more than two promotional events per calendar 
21year involving the same authorized licensee at a single premises 
22of an off-sale retail licensee.
23(6) The off-sale retail licensee may advertise the promotional 
24event to be held at its licensed premises.
25(7) An authorized licensee may advertise in advance of the 
26promotional event only in publications of the authorized licensee, 
27subject to the following conditions:
28(A) The advertising only lists the name and address of the 
29off-sale retail licensee, the name of the alcoholic beverage product 
30being featured at the promotional event, and the time, date, and 
31location of the off-sale retail licensee location where the 
32promotional event is being held.
33(B) The listing of the off-sale retail licensee’s name and address 
34is the only reference to the off-sale retail licensee in the 
35advertisement and is relatively inconspicuous in relation to the 
36advertisement as a whole, and the advertisement does not contain 
37any pictures or illustrations of the off-sale retail licensee’s premises 
38or laudatory references to the off-sale retail licensee.
39(8) A wholesaler does not directly or indirectly underwrite, 
40share in, or contribute to any costs related to the promotional event, 
P13   1except that a beer and wine wholesaler that holds at least six 
2distilled spirits wholesaler licenses may directly or indirectly 
3underwrite, share in, or contribute to any costs related to a 
4promotional event for which the wholesaler employs or engages 
5the person providing autographs to consumers at the promotional 
6event.
7(9) The authorized licensee notifies the department in writing 
8of the promotional event at least 30 days in advance of the 
9promotional event.
10(10) The authorized licensee maintains records necessary to 
11establish its compliance with this section.
12(b) For purposes of this section, “authorized licensee” means a 
13manufacturer, winegrower, manufacturer’s agent, California 
14winegrower’s agent, rectifier, importer, brandy manufacturer, 
15brandy importer, or wholesaler.
16(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2016, 
17and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that 
18is enacted before January 1, 2016, deletes or extends that date.
Section 25600.2 of the Business and Professions Code
20 is amended to read:
(a) An authorized licensee may conduct or sponsor 
22consumer sweepstakes, subject to the following conditions:
23(1) (A) No entry fee may be charged to participate in a 
24sweepstakes authorized by this subdivision. Entry or extra chances 
25in a sweepstakes shall not be made available via the purchase of 
26an alcoholic beverage.
27(B) Entry into or participation in a sweepstakes shall be limited 
28to persons 21 years of age or older.
29(C) No sweepstakes shall involve consumption of alcoholic 
30beverages by a participant.
31(D) Subject to subparagraph (B), any sweepstakes
				  offered in 
32California shall be open to all residents of California.
33(E) A sweepstakes may not be conducted for the benefit of any 
34permanent retail license.
35(2) (A) Closures, caps, cap liners, corks, labels, cartons, cases, 
36packaging, or other similar material shall not be used as an entry 
37to a sweepstakes or as a means of determining the amount or size 
38of the prize or the winner in a sweepstakes, except as provided in 
39subparagraphs (D) and (F).
P14   1(B) The authorized licensee shall provide an alternative means 
2of entry that does not require a visit to a licensed premises.
3(C) Except as provided in subparagraph (D), removable entry 
4forms shall not be used on alcoholic beverage labels, containers, 
5packaging, cases, or cartons.
6(D) Removable entry forms that are neck hangers shall be used 
7only on bottles of wine or distilled spirits, and shall not require 
8purchase of the product. Removable neck hangers shall be used 
9only if other entry forms are available at the point of sale or if an 
10alternative means of entry is also available.
11(E) Entry forms may be provided through electronic or other 
12media, including point of sale.
13(F) Codes that may be scanned or electronically entered by a 
14consumer where the authorized licensee has permanently affixed 
15the codes as part of the original alcoholic beverage label, container, 
16packaging, case, or carton and where the codes are not removable 
17and not required to be removed are permitted as a form of entry.
18(G) All permitted means of entry,
				  including the use of electronic 
19or scanner codes, shall clearly indicate that no purchase is required 
20to enter.
21(H) All sweepstakes entries shall provide the entrant with an 
22equal odds of winning.
23(3) A sweepstakes shall not provide for the instant or immediate 
24awarding of a prize or prizes. Instant or immediate notification to 
25the consumer that he or she is a winner is permissible.
26(4) Except for providing a means of entry, a sweepstakes 
27authorized by this section shall not be conducted at the premises 
28of a retail licensee or the premises of a winegrower or beer 
29manufacturer operating under a duplicate license for a branch 
30office.
31(5) Alcoholic beverages or anything redeemable for alcoholic 
32beverages shall not be awarded as a sweepstakes prize. This
33
				  paragraph shall not prohibit a sweepstakes in which the prize is 
34cash or cash equivalent or the awarding of cash or cash equivalent.
35(6) A retail licensee shall not serve as the agent of an authorized 
36licensee by collecting or forwarding entries or awarding prizes to, 
37or redeeming prizes for, a sweepstakes winner. The matching of 
38entries with numbers or pictures on the point-of-sale materials at 
39retail licensed premises is permitted only if entrants are also offered 
40the opportunity to use an alternative means to determine 
P15   1prize-winning status. An authorized licensee may furnish and 
2maintain a deposit box on a retail licensed premises for the 
3collection and forwarding of sweepstakes entry forms.
4(7) A licensee that is not an authorized licensee shall not directly 
5or indirectly underwrite, share in, or contribute to, the costs of a 
6sweepstakes authorized by this section or serve as
				  the agent of an 
7authorized licensee to collect or forward entries or to furnish any 
8prize to a sweepstakes winner.
9(8) (A) Advertising of a sweepstakes shall comply with the 
10signage and advertising restrictions contained in this chapter, 
11Chapter 15 (commencing with Section 25500), and any regulations 
12issued by the department.
13(B) Advertising or promotion of a sweepstakes shall not identify 
14or refer to a retail licensee.
15(C) A retail licensee shall only advertise or promote a 
16sweepstakes authorized by this section in the manner specified in 
17subparagraph (A).
18(D) Advertising or promotion of a sweepstakes shall only be 
19conducted on the premises of a retail licensee when such 
20advertisement or promotion involves a minimum of three
21
				  unaffiliated retail licensees. For purposes of this subparagraph, 
22“unaffiliated retail licensees” shall not include a retail licensee 
23owned or controlled in whole or in part by an authorized licensee 
24or any officer, director, or agent of that licensee.
25(E) Placement of signs or other advertising of a sweepstakes in 
26a licensed retail premises shall not be conditioned upon the 
27following:
28(i) The placement of a product within the licensed premises or 
29the restriction, in any way, of the purchase of a product by a 
30licensee, the removal of a product from the sales area of a licensed 
31premises, or the resetting or repositioning of a product within the 
32licensed premises.
33(ii) The purchase or sale of a product produced, imported, 
34distributed, represented, or promoted by an authorized licensee or 
35its agent.
36(F) An agreement, whether written or oral, entered into, by, and 
37between a retail licensee and an authorized licensee that precludes 
38the advertisement or promotion of a sweepstakes on the premises 
39of the retail licensee by another authorized licensee or its agent is 
40prohibited.
P16   1(9) Sweepstakes prizes shall not be awarded to an authorized 
2licensee, retail licensee, or wholesale licensee or agent, officer, 
3employee, or family member of an authorized licensee, retail 
4licensee, or wholesale licensee. For the purposes of this paragraph, 
5“family member” means a spouse, parent, sibling, child, son-in-law, 
6daughter-in-law, and lineal descendants, including those by 
7adoption. An authorized licensee shall maintain all records 
8pertaining to a sweepstakes for three years following the 
9completion of a sweepstakes.
10(b) For purposes of this section:
11(1) (A) “Authorized licensee” means a winegrower, beer and 
12wine importer general, beer manufacturer, out-of-state beer 
13manufacturer certificate holder, distilled spirits manufacturer, 
14distilled spirits manufacturer’s agent, distilled spirits importer 
15general, distilled spirits general rectifier, rectifier, out-of-state 
16distilled spirits shipper’s certificate holder, brandy manufacturer, 
17and brandy importer. An authorized licensee may conduct, sponsor, 
18or participate in a sweepstakes pursuant to this section regardless 
19of whether the licensee holds an additional license not included in 
20this paragraph.
21(B) An “authorized licensee” shall not include a beer and wine 
22wholesaler, a beer and wine importer general, or distilled spirits 
23importer general that only holds a wholesaler’s or retailer’s license 
24as an additional license.
25(2) “Sweepstakes” means a procedure, activity, or event for the 
26distribution of anything of value by lot, chance, or random selection 
27where the odds for winning a prize are equal for each entry.
28(c) Nothing in this section authorizes conducting sweepstakes 
29where consumers are entitled to an allotment or accumulation of 
30points based on purchases made over a period of time that can be 
31redeemed for prizes, things of value, or additional sweepstakes 
32entries.
33(d) A prize awarded for a sweepstakes conducted pursuant to 
34this section shall not be subject to the monetary limitation imposed 
35by Section 25600 or a regulation of the department.
36(e) An authorized licensee that violates this section, in addition 
37to any other penalty imposed by this division, may be
				  prohibited 
38by the department from offering a sweepstakes to California 
39residents for a period of 12 months.
Section 55.56 of the Civil Code is amended to read:
(a) Statutory damages under either subdivision (a) of 
2Section 52 or subdivision (a) of Section 54.3 may be recovered in 
3a construction-related accessibility claim against a place of public 
4accommodation only if a violation or violations of one or more 
5construction-related accessibility standards denied the plaintiff 
6full and equal access to the place of public accommodation on a 
7particular occasion.
8(b) A plaintiff is denied full and equal access only if the plaintiff 
9personally encountered the violation on a particular occasion, or 
10the plaintiff was deterred from accessing a place of public 
11accommodation on a particular occasion.
12(c) A violation personally encountered by a plaintiff may be 
13sufficient
				  to cause a denial of full and equal access if the plaintiff 
14experienced difficulty, discomfort, or embarrassment because of 
15the violation.
16(d) A plaintiff demonstrates that he or she was deterred from 
17accessing a place of public accommodation on a particular occasion 
18only if both of the following apply:
19(1) The plaintiff had actual knowledge of a violation or 
20violations that prevented or reasonably dissuaded the plaintiff from 
21accessing a place of public accommodation that the plaintiff 
22intended to use on a particular occasion.
23(2) The violation or violations would have actually denied the 
24plaintiff full and equal access if the plaintiff had accessed the place 
25of public accommodation on that particular occasion.
26(e) Statutory damages may be assessed
				  pursuant to subdivision 
27(a) based on each particular occasion that the plaintiff was denied 
28full and equal access, and not upon the number of violations of 
29construction-related accessibility standards identified at the place 
30of public accommodation where the denial of full and equal access 
31occurred. If the place of public accommodation consists of distinct 
32facilities that offer distinct services, statutory damages may be 
33assessed based on each denial of full and equal access to the distinct 
34facility, and not upon the number of violations of 
35construction-related accessibility standards identified at the place 
36of public accommodation where the denial of full and equal access 
37occurred.
38(f) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, a defendant’s liability 
39for statutory damages in a construction-related accessibility claim 
40against a place of public accommodation is reduced to a minimum 
P18   1of one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each offense
				  if the defendant 
2demonstrates that it has corrected all construction-related violations 
3that are the basis of a claim within 60 days of being served with 
4the complaint, and the defendant demonstrates any of the following:
5(A) The structure or area of the alleged violation was determined 
6to be “CASp-inspected” or “meets applicable standards” and, to 
7the best of the defendant’s knowledge, there were no modifications 
8or alterations that impacted compliance with construction-related 
9accessibility standards with respect to the plaintiff’s claim that 
10were completed or commenced between the date of that 
11determination and the particular occasion on which the plaintiff 
12was allegedly denied full and equal access.
13(B) The structure or area of the alleged violation was the subject 
14of an inspection report indicating “CASp determination pending” 
15or “Inspected by a CASp,” and the defendant has
				  either 
16implemented reasonable measures to correct the alleged violation 
17before the particular occasion on which the plaintiff was allegedly 
18denied full and equal access, or the defendant was in the process 
19of correcting the alleged violation within a reasonable time and 
20manner before the particular occasion on which the plaintiff was 
21allegedly denied full and equal access.
22(C) For a claim alleging a construction-related accessibility 
23violation filed before January 1, 2018, the structure or area of the 
24alleged violation was a new construction or an improvement that 
25was approved by, and passed inspection by, the local building 
26department permit and inspection process on or after January 1, 
272008, and before January 1, 2016, and, to the best of the 
28defendant’s knowledge, there were no modifications or alterations 
29that impacted compliance with respect to the plaintiff’s claim that 
30were completed or commenced between the completion date of 
31the new
				  construction or improvement and the particular occasion 
32on which the plaintiff was allegedly denied full and equal access.
33(D) The structure or area of the alleged violation was new 
34construction or an improvement that was approved by, and passed 
35inspection by, a local building department official who is a certified 
36access specialist, and, to the best of the defendant’s knowledge, 
37there were no modifications or alterations that affected compliance 
38with respect to the plaintiff’s claim that were completed or 
39commenced between the completion date of the new construction 
P19   1or improvement and the particular occasion on which the plaintiff 
2was allegedly denied full and equal access.
3(2) Notwithstanding any other law, a defendant’s liability for 
4statutory damages in a construction-related accessibility claim 
5against a place of public accommodation is reduced to a minimum 
6of two thousand
				  dollars ($2,000) for each offense if the defendant 
7demonstrates both of the following:
8(A) The defendant has corrected all construction-related 
9violations that are the basis of a claim within 30 days of being 
10served with the complaint.
11(B) The defendant is a small business that has employed 25 or 
12fewer employees on average over the past three years, or for the 
13years it has been in existence if less than three years, as evidenced 
14by wage report forms filed with the Economic Development 
15Department, and has average annual gross receipts of less than 
16three million five hundred thousand dollars ($3,500,000) over the 
17previous three years, or for the years it has been in existence if 
18less than three years, as evidenced by federal or state income tax 
19returns. The average annual gross receipts dollar amount shall be 
20adjusted biannually by the Department of General Services for 
21changes in
				  the California Consumer Price Index for All Urban 
22Consumers, as compiled by the Department of Industrial Relations. 
23The Department of General Services shall post that adjusted 
24amount on its Internet Web site.
25(3) This subdivision shall not be applicable to intentional 
26violations.
27(4) Nothing in this subdivision affects the awarding of actual 
28damages, or affects the awarding of treble actual damages.
29(5) This subdivision shall apply only to claims filed on or after 
30the effective date of Senate Bill 1186 of the 2011-12 Regular 
31Session of the Legislature. Nothing in this subdivision is intended 
32to affect a complaint filed before that date.
33(g) This section does not alter the applicable law for the 
34awarding of injunctive or other equitable relief for a
				  violation or 
35violations of one or more construction-related accessibility 
36standards, nor alter any legal obligation of a party to mitigate 
37damages.
38(h) In assessing liability under subdivision (d), in an action 
39alleging multiple claims for the same construction-related 
40accessibility violation on different particular occasions, the court 
P20   1shall consider the reasonableness of the plaintiff’s conduct in light 
2of the plaintiff’s obligation, if any, to mitigate damages.
Section 56.16 of the Civil Code is amended to read:
For disclosures not addressed by Section 56.1007, unless 
5there is a specific written request by the patient to the contrary, 
6nothing in this part shall be construed to prevent a general acute 
7care hospital, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 1250 of the 
8Health and Safety Code, upon an inquiry concerning a specific 
9patient, from releasing at its discretion any of the following 
10information: the patient’s name, address, age, and sex; a general 
11description of the reason for treatment (whether an injury, a burn, 
12poisoning, or some unrelated condition); the general nature of the 
13injury, burn, poisoning, or other condition; the general condition 
14of the patient; and any information that is not medical information 
15as defined in subdivision (g) of Section 56.05.
Section 1195 of the Civil Code is amended to read:
(a) Proof of the execution of an instrument, when not 
18acknowledged, may be made by any of the following:
19(1) By the party executing it, or either of them.
20(2) By a subscribing witness.
21(3) By other witnesses, in cases mentioned in Section 1198.
22(b) (1)  Proof of the execution of a power of attorney, grant 
23deed, mortgage, deed of trust, quitclaim deed, security agreement, 
24or any instrument affecting real property is not permitted pursuant 
25to Section 27287 of the Government Code, though proof of the 
26execution of a trustee’s deed or deed of reconveyance is
				  permitted.
27(2) Proof of the execution for any instrument requiring a notary 
28public to obtain a thumbprint from the party signing the document 
29in the notary public’s journal is not permitted.
30(c) Any certificate for proof of execution taken within this state 
31may be in the following form, although the use of other, 
32substantially similar forms is not precluded: 
| 
 State of California  | 
 ⎫  | 
 ss.  | 
 
  | 
| 
 County of  | 
 ⎠ | 
 
  | 
37On ____ (date), before me, the undersigned, a notary public for the state, 
38personally appeared ____ (name of subscribing witness), proved to me to be 
39the person whose name is subscribed to the within instrument, as a witness 
40thereto, on the oath of ____ (name of credible
				  witness), a credible witness who 
P21   1is known to me and provided a satisfactory identifying document. ____ (name 
2of subscribing witness), being by me duly sworn, said that he/she was present 
3and saw/heard ____ (name[s] of principal[s]), the same person(s) described in 
4and whose name(s) is/are subscribed to the within or attached instrument in 
5his/her/their authorized capacity(ies) as (a) party(ies) thereto, execute or 
6acknowledge executing the same, and that said affiant subscribed his/her name 
7to the within or attached instrument as a witness at the request of ____ (name[s]
8 of principal[s]). 
| 
 WITNESS my hand and official seal.  | |||||
| 
 Signature (Notary public seal)  | |||||
Section 1950.5 of the Civil Code is amended to read:
(a) This section applies to security for a rental 
15agreement for residential property that is used as the dwelling of 
16the tenant.
17(b) As used in this section, “security” means any payment, fee, 
18deposit, or charge, including, but not limited to, any payment, fee, 
19deposit, or charge, except as provided in Section 1950.6, that is 
20imposed at the beginning of the tenancy to be used to reimburse 
21the landlord for costs associated with processing a new tenant or 
22that is imposed as an advance payment of rent, used or to be used 
23for any purpose, including, but not limited to, any of the following:
24(1) The compensation of a landlord for a tenant’s default in the 
25payment of rent.
26(2) The repair of damages to the premises, exclusive of ordinary 
27wear and tear, caused by the tenant or by a guest or licensee of the 
28tenant.
29(3) The cleaning of the premises upon termination of the tenancy 
30necessary to return the unit to the same level of cleanliness it was 
31in at the inception of the tenancy. The amendments to this 
32paragraph enacted by the act adding this sentence shall apply only 
33to tenancies for which the tenant’s right to occupy begins after 
34January 1, 2003.
35(4) To remedy future defaults by the tenant in any obligation 
36under the rental agreement to restore, replace, or return personal 
37property or appurtenances, exclusive of ordinary wear and tear, if 
38the security deposit is authorized to be applied thereto by the rental 
39agreement.
P22   1(c) A landlord may not demand or receive security, however 
2denominated, in an amount or value in excess of an amount equal 
3to two months’ rent, in the case of unfurnished residential property, 
4and an amount equal to three months’ rent, in the case of furnished 
5residential property, in addition to any rent for the first month paid 
6on or before initial occupancy.
7This subdivision does not prohibit an advance payment of not 
8less than six months’ rent if the term of the lease is six months or 
9longer.
10This subdivision does not preclude a landlord and a tenant from 
11entering into a mutual agreement for the landlord, at the request 
12of the tenant and for a specified fee or charge, to make structural, 
13decorative, furnishing, or other similar alterations, if the alterations 
14are other than cleaning or repairing for which the landlord may 
15charge the previous tenant as provided by subdivision (e).
16(d) Any security shall be held by the landlord for the tenant who 
17is party to the lease or agreement. The claim of a tenant to the 
18security shall be prior to the claim of any creditor of the landlord.
19(e) The landlord may claim of the security only those amounts 
20as are reasonably necessary for the purposes specified in 
21subdivision (b). The landlord may not assert a claim against the 
22tenant or the security for damages to the premises or any defective 
23conditions that preexisted the tenancy, for ordinary wear and tear 
24or the effects thereof, whether the wear and tear preexisted the 
25tenancy or occurred during the tenancy, or for the cumulative 
26effects of ordinary wear and tear occurring during any one or more 
27tenancies.
28(f) (1) Within a reasonable time after notification of either 
29party’s intention to
				  terminate the tenancy, or before the end of the 
30lease term, the landlord shall notify the tenant in writing of his or 
31her option to request an initial inspection and of his or her right to 
32be present at the inspection. The requirements of this subdivision 
33do not apply when the tenancy is terminated pursuant to subdivision 
34(2), (3), or (4) of Section 1161 of the Code of Civil Procedure. At 
35a reasonable time, but no earlier than two weeks before the 
36termination or the end of lease date, the landlord, or an agent of 
37the landlord, shall, upon the request of the tenant, make an initial 
38inspection of the premises prior to any final inspection the landlord 
39makes after the tenant has vacated the premises. The purpose of 
40the initial inspection shall be to allow the tenant an opportunity to 
P23   1remedy identified deficiencies, in a manner consistent with the 
2rights and obligations of the parties under the rental agreement, in 
3order to avoid deductions from the security. If a tenant chooses 
4not to request an initial
				  inspection, the duties of the landlord under 
5this subdivision are discharged. If an inspection is requested, the 
6parties shall attempt to schedule the inspection at a mutually 
7acceptable date and time. The landlord shall give at least 48 hours’ 
8prior written notice of the date and time of the inspection if either 
9a mutual time is agreed upon, or if a mutually agreed time cannot 
10be scheduled but the tenant still wishes an inspection. The tenant 
11and landlord may agree to forgo the 48-hour prior written notice 
12by both signing a written waiver. The landlord shall proceed with 
13the inspection whether the tenant is present or not, unless the tenant 
14previously withdrew his or her request for the inspection. Written 
15notice by the landlord shall contain, in substantially the same form, 
16the following:
18“State law permits former tenants to reclaim abandoned personal 
19property left at the former address of the tenant, subject to certain
20
				  conditions. You may or may not be able to reclaim property without 
21incurring additional costs, depending on the cost of storing the 
22property and the length of time before it is reclaimed. In general, 
23these costs will be lower the sooner you contact your former 
24landlord after being notified that property belonging to you was 
25left behind after you moved out.”
27(2) Based on the inspection, the landlord shall give the tenant 
28an itemized statement specifying repairs or cleanings that are 
29proposed to be the basis of any deductions from the security the 
30landlord intends to make pursuant to paragraphs (1) to (4), 
31inclusive, of subdivision (b). This statement shall also include the 
32texts of paragraphs (1) to (4), inclusive, of subdivision (b). The 
33statement shall be given to the tenant, if the tenant is present for 
34the inspection, or shall be left inside the premises.
35(3) The tenant shall have the opportunity during the period 
36following the initial inspection until termination of the tenancy to 
37remedy identified deficiencies, in a manner consistent with the 
38rights and obligations of the parties under the rental agreement, in 
39order to avoid deductions from the security.
P24   1(4) Nothing in this subdivision shall prevent a landlord from 
2using the security for deductions itemized in the statement provided 
3for in paragraph (2) that were not cured by the tenant so long as 
4the deductions are for damages authorized by this section.
5(5) Nothing in this subdivision shall prevent a landlord from 
6using the security for any purpose specified in paragraphs (1) to 
7(4), inclusive, of subdivision (b) that occurs between completion 
8of the initial inspection and termination of the tenancy or was not
9
				  identified during the initial inspection due to the presence of a 
10tenant’s possessions.
11(g) (1) No later than 21 calendar days after the tenant has 
12vacated the premises, but not earlier than the time that either the 
13landlord or the tenant provides a notice to terminate the tenancy 
14under Section 1946 or 1946.1, Section 1161 of the Code of Civil 
15Procedure, or not earlier than 60 calendar days prior to the 
16expiration of a fixed-term lease, the landlord shall furnish the 
17tenant, by personal delivery or by first-class mail, postage prepaid, 
18a copy of an itemized statement indicating the basis for, and the 
19amount of, any security received and the disposition of the security, 
20and shall return any remaining portion of the security to the tenant. 
21After either the landlord or the tenant provides notice to terminate 
22the tenancy, the landlord and tenant may mutually agree to have 
23the landlord deposit any remaining portion of the
				  security deposit 
24electronically to a bank account or other financial institution 
25designated by the tenant. After either the landlord or the tenant 
26provides notice to terminate the tenancy, the landlord and the tenant 
27may also agree to have the landlord provide a copy of the itemized 
28statement along with the copies required by paragraph (2) to an 
29email account provided by the tenant.
30(2) Along with the itemized statement, the landlord shall also 
31include copies of documents showing charges incurred and 
32deducted by the landlord to repair or clean the premises, as follows:
33(A) If the landlord or landlord’s employee did the work, the 
34itemized statement shall reasonably describe the work performed. 
35The itemized statement shall include the time spent and the 
36reasonable hourly rate charged.
37(B) If the landlord or landlord’s
				  employee did not do the work, 
38the landlord shall provide the tenant a copy of the bill, invoice, or 
39receipt supplied by the person or entity performing the work. The 
40itemized statement shall provide the tenant with the name, address, 
P25   1and telephone number of the person or entity, if the bill, invoice, 
2or receipt does not include that information.
3(C) If a deduction is made for materials or supplies, the landlord 
4shall provide a copy of the bill, invoice, or receipt. If a particular 
5material or supply item is purchased by the landlord on an ongoing 
6basis, the landlord may document the cost of the item by providing 
7a copy of a bill, invoice, receipt, vendor price list, or other vendor 
8document that reasonably documents the cost of the item used in 
9the repair or cleaning of the unit.
10(3) If a repair to be done by the landlord or the landlord’s 
11employee cannot reasonably be completed
				  within 21 calendar days 
12after the tenant has vacated the premises, or if the documents from 
13a person or entity providing services, materials, or supplies are not 
14in the landlord’s possession within 21 calendar days after the tenant 
15has vacated the premises, the landlord may deduct the amount of 
16a good faith estimate of the charges that will be incurred and 
17provide that estimate with the itemized statement. If the reason for 
18the estimate is because the documents from a person or entity 
19providing services, materials, or supplies are not in the landlord’s 
20possession, the itemized statement shall include the name, address, 
21and telephone number of the person or entity. Within 14 calendar 
22days of completing the repair or receiving the documentation, the 
23landlord shall complete the requirements in paragraphs (1) and (2) 
24in the manner specified.
25(4) The landlord need not comply with paragraph (2) or (3) if 
26either of the following applies:
27(A) The deductions for repairs and cleaning together do not 
28exceed one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).
29(B) The tenant waived the rights specified in paragraphs (2) and 
30(3). The waiver shall only be effective if it is signed by the tenant 
31at the same time or after a notice to terminate a tenancy under 
32Section 1946 or 1946.1 has been given, a notice under Section 
331161 of the Code of Civil Procedure has been given, or no earlier 
34than 60 calendar days prior to the expiration of a fixed-term lease. 
35The waiver shall substantially include the text of paragraph (2).
36(5) Notwithstanding paragraph (4), the landlord shall comply 
37with paragraphs (2) and (3) when a tenant makes a request for 
38documentation within 14 calendar days after receiving the itemized 
39statement specified in paragraph (1). The landlord shall comply 
40within
				  14 calendar days after receiving the request from the tenant.
P26   1(6) Any mailings to the tenant pursuant to this subdivision shall 
2be sent to the address provided by the tenant. If the tenant does 
3not provide an address, mailings pursuant to this subdivision shall 
4be sent to the unit that has been vacated.
5(h) Upon termination of the landlord’s interest in the premises, 
6whether by sale, assignment, death, appointment of receiver, or 
7otherwise, the landlord or the landlord’s agent shall, within a 
8reasonable time, do one of the following acts, either of which shall 
9relieve the landlord of further liability with respect to the security 
10held:
11(1) Transfer the portion of the security remaining after any 
12lawful deductions made under subdivision (e) to the landlord’s 
13successor in interest. The landlord shall thereafter notify
				  the tenant 
14by personal delivery or by first-class mail, postage prepaid, of the 
15transfer, of any claims made against the security, of the amount 
16of the security deposited, and of the names of the successors in 
17interest, their addresses, and their telephone numbers. If the notice 
18to the tenant is made by personal delivery, the tenant shall 
19acknowledge receipt of the notice and sign his or her name on the 
20landlord’s copy of the notice.
21(2) Return the portion of the security remaining after any lawful 
22deductions made under subdivision (e) to the tenant, together with 
23an accounting as provided in subdivision (g).
24(i) Prior to the voluntary transfer of a landlord’s interest in the 
25premises, the landlord shall deliver to the landlord’s successor in 
26interest a written statement indicating the following:
27(1) The security remaining after any lawful deductions are made.
28(2) An itemization of any lawful deductions from any security 
29received.
30(3) His or her election under paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision 
31(h).
32This subdivision does not affect the validity of title to the real 
33property transferred in violation of this subdivision.
34(j) (1) In the event of noncompliance with subdivision (h), the 
35landlord’s successors in interest shall be jointly and severally liable 
36with the landlord for repayment of the security, or that portion 
37thereof to which the tenant is entitled, when and as provided in 
38subdivisions (e) and (g). A successor in interest of a landlord may 
39not require the tenant to post any security to replace that amount 
40not transferred to the tenant or successors in
				  interest as provided 
P27   1in subdivision (h), unless and until the successor in interest first 
2makes restitution of the initial security as provided in paragraph 
3(2) of subdivision (h) or provides the tenant with an accounting as 
4provided in subdivision (g).
5(2) This subdivision does not preclude a successor in interest 
6from recovering from the tenant compensatory damages that are 
7in excess of the security received from the landlord previously 
8paid by the tenant to the landlord.
9(3) Notwithstanding this subdivision, if, upon inquiry and 
10reasonable investigation, a landlord’s successor in interest has a 
11good faith belief that the lawfully remaining security deposit is 
12transferred to him or her or returned to the tenant pursuant to 
13subdivision (h), he or she is not liable for damages as provided in 
14subdivision (l), or any security not transferred pursuant to 
15subdivision (h).
16(k) Upon receipt of any portion of the security under paragraph 
17(1) of subdivision (h), the landlord’s successors in interest shall 
18have all of the rights and obligations of a landlord holding the 
19security with respect to the security.
20(l) The bad faith claim or retention by a landlord or the 
21landlord’s successors in interest of the security or any portion 
22thereof in violation of this section, or the bad faith demand of 
23replacement security in violation of subdivision (j), may subject 
24the landlord or the landlord’s successors in interest to statutory 
25damages of up to twice the amount of the security, in addition to 
26actual damages. The court may award damages for bad faith 
27whenever the facts warrant that award, regardless of whether the 
28injured party has specifically requested relief. In an action under 
29this section, the landlord or the landlord’s successors in interest 
30shall
				  have the burden of proof as to the reasonableness of the 
31amounts claimed or the authority pursuant to this section to demand 
32additional security deposits.
33(m) No lease or rental agreement may contain a provision 
34characterizing any security as “nonrefundable.”
35(n) An action under this section may be maintained in small 
36claims court if the damages claimed, whether actual, statutory, or 
37both, are within the jurisdictional amount allowed by Section 
38116.220 or 116.221 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
39(o) Proof of the existence of and the amount of a security deposit 
40may be established by any credible evidence, including, but not 
P28   1limited to, a canceled check, a receipt, a lease indicating the 
2requirement of a deposit as well as the amount, prior consistent 
3statements or actions of the landlord or tenant, or a statement
				  under 
4penalty of perjury that satisfies the credibility requirements set 
5forth in Section 780 of the Evidence Code.
6(p) The amendments to this section made during the 1985 
7portion of the 1985-86 Regular Session of the Legislature that are 
8set forth in subdivision (e) are declaratory of existing law.
9(q) The amendments to this section made during the 2003 
10portion of the 2003-04 Regular Session of the Legislature that are 
11set forth in paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) are declaratory of 
12existing law.
Section 2877 of the Civil Code is amended to read:
Contracts of mortgage, pledge, bottomry, or respondentia 
15are subject to all of the provisions of this chapter.
Section 2923.55 of the Civil Code, as added by 
17Section 6 of Chapter 86 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to
18
		  read:
(a) A mortgage servicer, mortgagee, trustee, 
20beneficiary, or authorized agent may not record a notice of default 
21pursuant to Section 2924 until all of the following:
22(1) The mortgage servicer has satisfied the requirements of 
23paragraph (1) of subdivision (b).
24(2) Either 30 days after initial contact is made as required by 
25paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) or 30 days after satisfying the due 
26diligence requirements as described in subdivision (f).
27(3) The mortgage servicer complies with subdivision (c) of 
28Section 2923.6, if the borrower has provided a complete application 
29as defined in subdivision (h) of Section 2923.6.
30(b) (1) As specified in subdivision (a), a mortgage servicer shall 
31send the following information in writing to the borrower:
32(A) A statement that if the borrower is a servicemember or a 
33dependent of a servicemember, he or she may be entitled to certain 
34protections under the federal Servicemembers Civil Relief Act (50 
35U.S.C. Appen. Sec. 501 et seq.) regarding the servicemember’s 
36interest rate and the risk of foreclosure, and counseling for covered 
37servicemembers that is available at agencies such as Military 
38OneSource and Armed Forces Legal Assistance.
39(B) A statement that the borrower may request the following:
P29   1(i) A copy of the borrower’s promissory note or other evidence 
2of indebtedness.
3(ii) A copy of the borrower’s deed of trust or mortgage.
4(iii) A copy of any assignment, if applicable, of the borrower’s 
5mortgage or deed of trust required to demonstrate the right of the 
6mortgage servicer to foreclose.
7(iv) A copy of the borrower’s payment history since the 
8borrower was last less than 60 days past due.
9(2) A mortgage servicer shall contact the borrower in person or 
10by telephone in order to assess the borrower’s financial situation 
11and explore options for the borrower to avoid foreclosure. During 
12the initial contact, the mortgage servicer shall advise the borrower 
13that he or she has the right to request a subsequent meeting and, 
14if requested, the mortgage servicer shall schedule the meeting to 
15occur within 14 days. The assessment of the
				  borrower’s financial 
16situation and discussion of options may occur during the first 
17contact, or at the subsequent meeting scheduled for that purpose. 
18In either case, the borrower shall be provided the toll-free telephone 
19number made available by the United States Department of 
20Housing and Urban Development (HUD) to find a HUD-certified 
21housing counseling agency. Any meeting may occur telephonically.
22(c) A notice of default recorded pursuant to Section 2924 shall 
23include a declaration that the mortgage servicer has contacted the 
24borrower, has tried with due diligence to contact the borrower as 
25required by this section, or that no contact was required because 
26the individual did not meet the definition of “borrower” pursuant 
27to subdivision (c) of Section 2920.5.
28(d) A mortgage servicer’s loss mitigation personnel may 
29participate by telephone during any contact required by this
				  section.
30(e) A borrower may designate, with consent given in writing, 
31a HUD-certified housing counseling agency, attorney, or other 
32adviser to discuss with the mortgage servicer, on the borrower’s 
33behalf, the borrower’s financial situation and options for the 
34borrower to avoid foreclosure. That contact made at the direction 
35of the borrower shall satisfy the contact requirements of paragraph 
36(2) of subdivision (b). Any foreclosure prevention alternative 
37offered at the meeting by the mortgage servicer is subject to 
38approval by the borrower.
39(f) A notice of default may be recorded pursuant to Section 2924 
40when a mortgage servicer has not contacted a borrower as required 
P30   1by paragraph (2) of subdivision (b), provided that the failure to 
2contact the borrower occurred despite the due diligence of the 
3mortgage servicer. For purposes of this section, “due diligence” 
4shall require and mean
				  all of the following:
5(1) A mortgage servicer shall first attempt to contact a borrower 
6by sending a first-class letter that includes the toll-free telephone 
7number made available by HUD to find a HUD-certified housing 
8counseling agency.
9(2) (A) After the letter has been sent, the mortgage servicer shall 
10attempt to contact the borrower by telephone at least three times 
11at different hours and on different days. Telephone calls shall be 
12made to the primary telephone number on file.
13(B) A mortgage servicer may attempt to contact a borrower 
14using an automated system to dial borrowers, provided that, if the 
15telephone call is answered, the call is connected to a live 
16representative of the mortgage servicer.
17(C) A mortgage servicer satisfies the telephone
				  contact 
18requirements of this paragraph if it determines, after attempting 
19contact pursuant to this paragraph, that the borrower’s primary 
20telephone number and secondary telephone number or numbers 
21on file, if any, have been disconnected.
22(3) If the borrower does not respond within two weeks after the 
23telephone call requirements of paragraph (2) have been satisfied, 
24the mortgage servicer shall then send a certified letter, with return 
25receipt requested, that includes the toll-free telephone number 
26made available by HUD to find a HUD-certified housing 
27counseling agency.
28(4) The mortgage servicer shall provide a means for the borrower 
29to contact it in a timely manner, including a toll-free telephone 
30number that will provide access to a live representative during 
31business hours.
32(5) The mortgage servicer has posted a
				  prominent link on the 
33homepage of its Internet Web site, if any, to the following 
34information:
35(A) Options that may be available to borrowers who are unable 
36to afford their mortgage payments and who wish to avoid 
37foreclosure, and instructions to borrowers advising them on steps 
38to take to explore those options.
P31   1(B) A list of financial documents borrowers should collect and 
2be prepared to present to the mortgage servicer when discussing 
3options for avoiding foreclosure.
4(C) A toll-free telephone number for borrowers who wish to 
5discuss options for avoiding foreclosure with their mortgage 
6servicer.
7(D) The toll-free telephone number made available by HUD to 
8find a HUD-certified housing counseling agency.
9(g) This section shall not apply to entities described in 
10subdivision (b) of Section 2924.18.
11(h) This section shall apply only to mortgages or deeds of trust 
12described in Section 2924.15.
13(i)  This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2018, 
14and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that 
15is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends that date.
Section 2923.55 of the Civil Code, as added by 
17Section 6 of Chapter 87 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to
18
		  read:
(a) A mortgage servicer, mortgagee, trustee, 
20beneficiary, or authorized agent may not record a notice of default 
21pursuant to Section 2924 until all of the following:
22(1) The mortgage servicer has satisfied the requirements of 
23paragraph (1) of subdivision (b).
24(2) Either 30 days after initial contact is made as required by 
25paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) or 30 days after satisfying the due 
26diligence requirements as described in subdivision (f).
27(3) The mortgage servicer complies with subdivision (c) of 
28Section 2923.6, if the borrower has provided a complete application 
29as defined in subdivision (h) of Section 2923.6.
30(b) (1) As specified in subdivision (a), a mortgage servicer shall 
31send the following information in writing to the borrower:
32(A) A statement that if the borrower is a servicemember or a 
33dependent of a servicemember, he or she may be entitled to certain 
34protections under the federal Servicemembers Civil Relief Act (50 
35U.S.C. Appen. Sec. 501 et seq.) regarding the servicemember’s 
36interest rate and the risk of foreclosure, and counseling for covered 
37servicemembers that is available at agencies such as Military 
38OneSource and Armed Forces Legal Assistance.
39(B) A statement that the borrower may request the following:
P32   1(i) A copy of the borrower’s promissory note or other evidence 
2of indebtedness.
3(ii) A copy of the borrower’s deed of trust or mortgage.
4(iii) A copy of any assignment, if applicable, of the borrower’s 
5mortgage or deed of trust required to demonstrate the right of the 
6mortgage servicer to foreclose.
7(iv) A copy of the borrower’s payment history since the 
8borrower was last less than 60 days past due.
9(2) A mortgage servicer shall contact the borrower in person or 
10by telephone in order to assess the borrower’s financial situation 
11and explore options for the borrower to avoid foreclosure. During 
12the initial contact, the mortgage servicer shall advise the borrower 
13that he or she has the right to request a subsequent meeting and, 
14if requested, the mortgage servicer shall schedule the meeting to 
15occur within 14 days. The assessment of the
				  borrower’s financial 
16situation and discussion of options may occur during the first 
17contact, or at the subsequent meeting scheduled for that purpose. 
18In either case, the borrower shall be provided the toll-free telephone 
19number made available by the United States Department of 
20Housing and Urban Development (HUD) to find a HUD-certified 
21housing counseling agency. Any meeting may occur telephonically.
22(c) A notice of default recorded pursuant to Section 2924 shall 
23include a declaration that the mortgage servicer has contacted the 
24borrower, has tried with due diligence to contact the borrower as 
25required by this section, or that no contact was required because 
26the individual did not meet the definition of “borrower” pursuant 
27to subdivision (c) of Section 2920.5.
28(d) A mortgage servicer’s loss mitigation personnel may 
29participate by telephone during any contact required by this
				  section.
30(e) A borrower may designate, with consent given in writing, 
31a HUD-certified housing counseling agency, attorney, or other 
32adviser to discuss with the mortgage servicer, on the borrower’s 
33behalf, the borrower’s financial situation and options for the 
34borrower to avoid foreclosure. That contact made at the direction 
35of the borrower shall satisfy the contact requirements of paragraph 
36(2) of subdivision (b). Any foreclosure prevention alternative 
37offered at the meeting by the mortgage servicer is subject to 
38approval by the borrower.
39(f) A notice of default may be recorded pursuant to Section 2924 
40when a mortgage servicer has not contacted a borrower as required 
P33   1by paragraph (2) of subdivision (b), provided that the failure to 
2contact the borrower occurred despite the due diligence of the 
3mortgage servicer. For purposes of this section, “due diligence” 
4shall require and mean
				  all of the following:
5(1) A mortgage servicer shall first attempt to contact a borrower 
6by sending a first-class letter that includes the toll-free telephone 
7number made available by HUD to find a HUD-certified housing 
8counseling agency.
9(2) (A) After the letter has been sent, the mortgage servicer shall 
10attempt to contact the borrower by telephone at least three times 
11at different hours and on different days. Telephone calls shall be 
12made to the primary telephone number on file.
13(B) A mortgage servicer may attempt to contact a borrower 
14using an automated system to dial borrowers, provided that, if the 
15telephone call is answered, the call is connected to a live 
16representative of the mortgage servicer.
17(C) A mortgage servicer satisfies the telephone
				  contact 
18requirements of this paragraph if it determines, after attempting 
19contact pursuant to this paragraph, that the borrower’s primary 
20telephone number and secondary telephone number or numbers 
21on file, if any, have been disconnected.
22(3) If the borrower does not respond within two weeks after the 
23telephone call requirements of paragraph (2) have been satisfied, 
24the mortgage servicer shall then send a certified letter, with return 
25receipt requested, that includes the toll-free telephone number 
26made available by HUD to find a HUD-certified housing 
27counseling agency.
28(4) The mortgage servicer shall provide a means for the borrower 
29to contact it in a timely manner, including a toll-free telephone 
30number that will provide access to a live representative during 
31business hours.
32(5) The mortgage servicer has posted a
				  prominent link on the 
33homepage of its Internet Web site, if any, to the following 
34information:
35(A) Options that may be available to borrowers who are unable 
36to afford their mortgage payments and who wish to avoid 
37foreclosure, and instructions to borrowers advising them on steps 
38to take to explore those options.
P34   1(B) A list of financial documents borrowers should collect and 
2be prepared to present to the mortgage servicer when discussing 
3options for avoiding foreclosure.
4(C) A toll-free telephone number for borrowers who wish to 
5discuss options for avoiding foreclosure with their mortgage 
6servicer.
7(D) The toll-free telephone number made available by HUD to 
8find a HUD-certified housing counseling agency.
9(g) This section shall not apply to entities described in 
10subdivision (b) of Section 2924.18.
11(h) This section shall apply only to mortgages or deeds of trust 
12described in Section 2924.15.
13(i)  This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2018, 
14and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that 
15is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends that date.
Section 2924.8 of the Civil Code is amended to read:
(a) (1) Upon posting a notice of sale pursuant to 
18Section 2924f, a trustee or authorized agent shall also post the 
19following notice, in the manner required for posting the notice of 
20sale on the property to be sold, and a mortgagee, trustee, 
21beneficiary, or authorized agent, concurrently with the mailing of 
22the notice of sale pursuant to Section 2924b, shall send by 
23first-class mail in an envelope addressed to the “Resident of 
24property subject to foreclosure sale” the following notice in English 
25and the languages described in Section 1632:
27Foreclosure process has begun on this property, which may affect 
28your right to continue to live in this property. Twenty days or more 
29after the date of this notice, this property may be
				  sold at 
30foreclosure. If you are renting this property, the new property 
31owner may either give you a new lease or rental agreement or 
32provide you with a 90-day eviction notice. You may have a right 
33to stay in your home for longer than 90 days. If you have a 
34fixed-term lease, the new owner must honor the lease unless the 
35new owner will occupy the property as a primary residence or in 
36other limited circumstances. Also, in some cases and in some cities 
37with a “just cause for eviction” law, you may not have to move at 
38all. All rights and obligations under your lease or tenancy, including 
39your obligation to pay rent, will continue after the foreclosure sale. 
P35   1You may wish to contact a lawyer or your local legal aid office or 
2housing counseling agency to discuss any rights you may have.
3
4(2) The amendments to the notice in this subdivision made by 
5the act that added this paragraph shall
				  become operative on March 
61, 2013, or 60 days following posting of a dated notice 
7incorporating those amendments on the Department of Consumer 
8Affairs Internet Web site, whichever date is later.
9(b) It is an infraction to tear down the notice described in 
10subdivision (a) within 72 hours of posting. Violators shall be 
11subject to a fine of one hundred dollars ($100).
12(c) The Department of Consumer Affairs shall make available 
13translations of the notice described in subdivision (a) which may 
14be used by a mortgagee, trustee, beneficiary, or authorized agent 
15to satisfy the requirements of this section.
16(d) This section shall only apply to loans secured by residential 
17real property, and if the billing address for the mortgage note is 
18different than the property address.
19(e) This section shall remain in effect only until December 31, 
202019, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, 
21that is enacted before December 31, 2019, deletes or extends that 
22date.
Section 2924.19 of the Civil Code, as added by 
24Section 22 of Chapter 86 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to
25
		  read:
(a) (1) If a trustee’s deed upon sale has not been 
27recorded, a borrower may bring an action for injunctive relief to 
28enjoin a material violation of Section 2923.5, 2924.17, or 2924.18.
29(2) An injunction shall remain in place and any trustee’s sale 
30shall be enjoined until the court determines that the mortgage 
31servicer, mortgagee, beneficiary, or authorized agent has corrected 
32and remedied the violation or violations giving rise to the action 
33for injunctive relief. An enjoined entity may move to dissolve an 
34injunction based on a showing that the material violation has been 
35corrected and remedied.
36(b) After a trustee’s deed upon sale has been recorded, a 
37mortgage servicer,
				  mortgagee, beneficiary, or authorized agent 
38shall be liable to a borrower for actual economic damages pursuant 
39to Section 3281, resulting from a material violation of Section 
402923.5, 2924.17, or 2924.18 by that mortgage servicer, mortgagee, 
P36   1beneficiary, or authorized agent where the violation was not 
2corrected and remedied prior to the recordation of the trustee’s 
3deed upon sale. If the court finds that the material violation was 
4intentional or reckless, or resulted from willful misconduct by a 
5mortgage servicer, mortgagee, beneficiary, or authorized agent, 
6the court may award the borrower the greater of treble actual 
7damages or statutory damages of fifty thousand dollars ($50,000).
8(c) A mortgage servicer, mortgagee, beneficiary, or authorized 
9agent shall not be liable for any violation that it has corrected and 
10remedied prior to the recordation of the trustee’s deed upon sale, 
11or that has been corrected and remedied by third parties working
12
				  on its behalf prior to the recordation of the trustee’s deed upon 
13sale.
14(d) A violation of Section 2923.5, 2924.17, or 2924.18 by a 
15person licensed by the Department of Corporations, the Department 
16of Financial Institutions, or the Department of Real Estate shall 
17be deemed to be a violation of that person’s licensing law.
18(e) A violation of this article shall not affect the validity of a 
19sale in favor of a bona fide purchaser and any of its encumbrancers 
20for value without notice.
21(f) A third-party encumbrancer shall not be relieved of liability 
22resulting from violations of Section 2923.5, 2924.17, or 2924.18, 
23committed by that third-party encumbrancer, that occurred prior 
24to the sale of the subject property to the bona fide purchaser.
25(g) The rights,
				  remedies, and procedures provided by this section 
26are in addition to and independent of any other rights, remedies, 
27or procedures under any other law. Nothing in this section shall 
28be construed to alter, limit, or negate any other rights, remedies, 
29or procedures provided by law.
30(h) A court may award a prevailing borrower reasonable 
31attorney’s fees and costs in an action brought pursuant to this 
32section. A borrower shall be deemed to have prevailed for purposes 
33of this subdivision if the borrower obtained injunctive relief or 
34damages pursuant to this section.
35(i) This section shall apply only to entities described in 
36subdivision (b) of Section 2924.18.
37(j)  This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2018, 
38and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that 
39is enacted
				  before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends that date.
Section 2924.19 of the Civil Code, as added by 
2Section 22 of Chapter 87 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to
3
		  read:
(a) (1) If a trustee’s deed upon sale has not been 
5recorded, a borrower may bring an action for injunctive relief to 
6enjoin a material violation of Section 2923.5, 2924.17, or 2924.18.
7(2) An injunction shall remain in place and any trustee’s sale 
8shall be enjoined until the court determines that the mortgage 
9servicer, mortgagee, beneficiary, or authorized agent has corrected 
10and remedied the violation or violations giving rise to the action 
11for injunctive relief. An enjoined entity may move to dissolve an 
12injunction based on a showing that the material violation has been 
13corrected and remedied.
14(b) After a trustee’s deed upon sale has been recorded, a 
15mortgage servicer,
				  mortgagee, beneficiary, or authorized agent 
16shall be liable to a borrower for actual economic damages pursuant 
17to Section 3281, resulting from a material violation of Section 
182923.5, 2924.17, or 2924.18 by that mortgage servicer, mortgagee, 
19beneficiary, or authorized agent where the violation was not 
20corrected and remedied prior to the recordation of the trustee’s 
21deed upon sale. If the court finds that the material violation was 
22intentional or reckless, or resulted from willful misconduct by a 
23mortgage servicer, mortgagee, beneficiary, or authorized agent, 
24the court may award the borrower the greater of treble actual 
25damages or statutory damages of fifty thousand dollars ($50,000).
26(c) A mortgage servicer, mortgagee, beneficiary, or authorized 
27agent shall not be liable for any violation that it has corrected and 
28remedied prior to the recordation of the trustee’s deed upon sale, 
29or that has been corrected and remedied by third parties working
30
				  on its behalf prior to the recordation of the trustee’s deed upon 
31sale.
32(d) A violation of Section 2923.5, 2924.17, or 2924.18 by a 
33person licensed by the Department of Corporations, the Department 
34of Financial Institutions, or the Department of Real Estate shall 
35be deemed to be a violation of that person’s licensing law.
36(e) A violation of this article shall not affect the validity of a 
37sale in favor of a bona fide purchaser and any of its encumbrancers 
38for value without notice.
39(f) A third-party encumbrancer shall not be relieved of liability 
40resulting from violations of Section 2923.5, 2924.17, or 2924.18, 
P38   1committed by that third-party encumbrancer, that occurred prior 
2to the sale of the subject property to the bona fide purchaser.
3(g) The rights,
				  remedies, and procedures provided by this section 
4are in addition to and independent of any other rights, remedies, 
5or procedures under any other law. Nothing in this section shall 
6be construed to alter, limit, or negate any other rights, remedies, 
7or procedures provided by law.
8(h) A court may award a prevailing borrower reasonable 
9attorney’s fees and costs in an action brought pursuant to this 
10section. A borrower shall be deemed to have prevailed for purposes 
11of this subdivision if the borrower obtained injunctive relief or 
12damages pursuant to this section.
13(i) This section shall apply only to entities described in 
14subdivision (b) of Section 2924.18.
15(j)  This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2018, 
16and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that 
17is enacted
				  before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends that date.
Section 2950 of the Civil Code is amended to read:
When a grant of real property purports to be an absolute 
20conveyance, but is intended to be defeasible on the performance 
21of certain conditions, such grant is not defeated or affected as 
22against any person other than the grantee or his or her heirs or 
23devisees, or persons having actual notice, unless an instrument of 
24defeasance, duly executed and acknowledged, shall have been 
25recorded in the office of the county recorder of the county where 
26the property is situated.
Section 3509 of the Civil Code is amended to read:
The maxims of jurisprudence hereinafter set forth are 
29intended not to qualify any of the foregoing provisions of this code, 
30but to aid in their just application.
Section 116.940 of the Code of Civil Procedure is 
32amended to read:
(a) Except as otherwise provided in this section or 
34in rules adopted by the Judicial Council, which are consistent with 
35the requirements of this section, the characteristics of the small 
36claims advisory service required by Section 116.260 shall be 
37determined by each county, or by the superior court in a county 
38where the small claims advisory service is administered by the 
39court, in accordance with local needs and conditions.
40(b) Each advisory service shall provide the following services:
P39   1(1) Individual personal advisory services, in person or by 
2telephone, and by any other means reasonably calculated to provide 
3timely and appropriate assistance. The topics covered by individual 
4personal advisory
				  services shall include, but not be limited to, 
5preparation of small claims court filings, procedures, including 
6procedures related to the conduct of the hearing, and information 
7on the collection of small claims court judgments.
8(2) Recorded telephone messages may be used to supplement 
9the individual personal advisory services, but shall not be the sole 
10means of providing advice available in the county.
11(3) Adjacent counties, superior courts in adjacent counties, or 
12any combination thereof, may provide advisory services jointly.
13(c) In a county in which the number of small claims actions 
14filed annually is 1,000 or less as averaged over the immediately 
15preceding two fiscal years, the county or the superior court may 
16elect to exempt itself from the requirements set forth in subdivision 
17(b). If the small claims advisory
				  service is administered by the 
18county, this exemption shall be formally noticed through the 
19adoption of a resolution by the board of supervisors. If the small 
20claims advisory service is administered by the superior court, this 
21exemption shall be formally noticed through adoption of a local 
22rule. If a county or court so exempts itself, the county or court 
23shall nevertheless provide the following minimum advisory 
24services in accordance with rules adopted by the Judicial Council:
25(1) Recorded telephone messages providing general information 
26relating to small claims actions filed in the county shall be provided 
27during regular business hours.
28(2) Small claims information booklets shall be provided in the 
29court clerk’s office of each superior court, appropriate county 
30offices, and in any other location that is convenient to prospective 
31small claims litigants in the county.
32(d) The advisory service shall operate in conjunction and 
33cooperation with the small claims division, and shall be 
34administered so as to avoid the existence or appearance of a conflict 
35of interest between the individuals providing the advisory services 
36and any party to a particular small claims action or any judicial 
37officer deciding small claims actions.
38(e) Advisers may be volunteers, and shall be members of the 
39State Bar, law students, paralegals, or persons experienced in 
40resolving minor disputes, and shall be familiar with small claims 
P40   1court rules and procedures. Advisers may not appear in court as 
2an advocate for any party.
3(f) Advisers, including independent contractors, other 
4employees, and volunteers, have the immunity conferred by Section 
5818.9 of the Government Code with respect to advice provided as 
6a public
				  service on behalf of a court or county to small claims 
7litigants and potential litigants under this chapter.
8(g) This section does not preclude a court or county from 
9contracting with a third party to provide small claims advisory 
10services as described in this section.
Section 425.50 of the Code of Civil Procedure is 
12amended to read:
(a) An allegation of a construction-related accessibility 
14claim in a complaint, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 55.52 
15of the Civil Code, shall state facts sufficient to allow a reasonable 
16person to identify the basis of the violation or violations supporting 
17the claim, including all of the following:
18(1) A plain language explanation of the specific access barrier 
19or barriers the individual encountered, or by which the individual 
20alleges he or she was deterred, with sufficient information about 
21the location of the alleged barrier to enable a reasonable person to 
22identify the access barrier.
23(2) The way in which the barrier denied the individual full and 
24equal use or access, or in which it
				  deterred the individual, on each 
25particular occasion.
26(3) The date or dates of each particular occasion on which the 
27claimant encountered the specific access barrier, or on which he 
28or she was deterred.
29(b) A complaint alleging a construction-related accessibility 
30claim, as those terms are defined in subdivision (a) of Section 55.3 
31of the Civil Code, shall be verified by the plaintiff. A complaint 
32filed without verification shall be subject to a motion to strike.
33(c) Nothing in this section shall limit the right of a plaintiff to 
34amend a complaint under Section 472, or with leave of the court 
35under Section 473. However, an amended pleading alleging a 
36construction-related accessibility claim shall be pled as required 
37by subdivision (a).
38(d) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2013.
Section 684.115 of the Code of Civil Procedure is 
40amended to read:
(a) A financial institution may, and if it has more 
2than nine branches or offices at which it conducts its business 
3within this state shall, designate one or more central locations for 
4service of legal process within this state. Each designated location 
5shall be referred to as a “central location.” If a financial institution 
6elects or is required to designate a central location for service of 
7legal process, the financial institution shall file a notice of its 
8designation with the Department of Financial Institutions, which 
9filing shall be effective upon filing and shall contain all of the 
10following:
11(1) The physical address of the central location.
12(2) The days and hours during which service will be
				  accepted 
13at the central location.
14(3) If the central location will not accept service of legal process 
15directed at deposit accounts maintained or property held at all of 
16the financial institution’s branches or offices within this state, or 
17if the service accepted at the central location will not apply to 
18safe-deposit boxes or other property of the judgment debtor held 
19by or for the judgment debtor, the filing shall also contain sufficient 
20information to permit a determination of the limitation or 
21limitations, including, in the case of a limitation applicable to 
22certain branches or offices, an identification of the branches or 
23offices as to which service at the central location will not apply 
24and the nature of the limitation applicable to those branches or 
25offices. If the limitation will apply to all branches or offices of the 
26financial institution within this state, the filing may indicate the 
27nature of the limitation and that it applies to all
				  branches or offices, 
28in lieu of an identification of branches or offices as to which the 
29limitation applies. To the extent that a financial institution’s 
30designation of a central location for service of legal process covers 
31the process directed at deposit accounts, safe-deposit boxes, or 
32other property of the judgment debtor held by or for the judgment 
33debtor at a particular branch or office located within this state, the 
34branch or office shall be a branch or office covered by central 
35process.
36(b) Should a financial institution required to designate a central 
37location fail to do so, each branch of that institution located in this 
38state shall be deemed to be a central location at which service of 
39legal process may be made, and all of the institution’s branches 
P42   1or offices located within this state shall be deemed to be a branch 
2or office covered by central process.
3(c) Subject to
				  any limitation noted pursuant to paragraph (3) of 
4subdivision (a), service of legal process at a central location of a 
5financial institution shall be effective against all deposit accounts 
6and all property held for safekeeping, as collateral for an obligation 
7owed to the financial institution or in a safe-deposit box if the same 
8is described in the legal process and held by the financial institution 
9at any branch or office covered by central process and located 
10within this state. However, while service of legal process at the 
11central location will establish a lien on all property, if any property 
12other than deposit accounts is physically held by the financial 
13institution in a county other than that in which the designated 
14central location is located, the financial institution shall include in 
15its garnishee’s memorandum the location or locations of the 
16property, and the judgment creditor shall obtain a writ of execution 
17covering the property and directed to the levying officer in that 
18county to accomplish the
				  turnover of the property and shall forward 
19the writ and related required documentation to the levying officer 
20in the county in which the property is held.
21(d) A financial institution may modify or revoke any designation 
22made pursuant to subdivision (a) by filing the modification or 
23revocation with the Department of Financial Institutions. The 
24modification or revocation shall be effective when the Department 
25of Financial Institutions’ records have been updated to reflect the 
26modification or revocation, provided that the judgment creditor 
27may rely upon the superseded designation during the 30-day period 
28following the effective date of the revocation or modification.
29(e) (1) The Department of Financial Institutions shall update its 
30online records to reflect a filing by a financial institution pursuant 
31to subdivision (a) or a modification or revocation filed by a 
32financial institution
				  pursuant to subdivision (d) within 10 business 
33days following the filing by the financial institution. The 
34Department of Financial Institutions’ Internet Web site shall reflect 
35the date its online records for each financial institution have most 
36recently been updated.
37(2) The Department of Financial Institutions shall provide any 
38person requesting it with a copy of each current filing made by a 
39financial institution pursuant to subdivision (a). The Department 
40of Financial Institutions may satisfy its obligation under this 
P43   1subdivision by posting all current designations of a financial 
2institution, or the pertinent information therein, on an Internet Web 
3site available to the public without charge, and if that information 
4is made available, the Department of Financial Institutions may 
5impose a reasonable fee for furnishing that information in any 
6other manner.
7(f) As to deposit
				  accounts maintained or property held for 
8safekeeping, as collateral for an obligation owed to the financial 
9institution or in a safe-deposit box at a branch or office covered 
10by central process, service of legal process at a location other than 
11a central location designated by the financial institution shall not 
12be effective unless the financial institution, in its absolute 
13discretion, elects to act upon the process at that location as if it 
14were effective. In the absence of an election, the financial 
15institution may respond to the legal process by mailing or delivery 
16of the garnishee’s memorandum to the levying officer within the 
17time otherwise provided therefor, with a statement on the 
18garnishee’s memorandum that the legal process was not properly 
19served at the financial institution’s designated location for receiving 
20legal process, and, therefore, was not processed, and the address 
21at which the financial institution is to receive legal process.
22(g) If any legal process is served at a central location of a 
23financial institution pursuant to this section, all related papers to 
24be served on the financial institution shall be served at that location, 
25unless agreed to the contrary between the serving party and the 
26financial institution.
27(h) This subdivision shall apply whenever a financial institution 
28operates within this state at least one branch or office in addition 
29to its head office or main office, as applicable, or a financial 
30institution headquartered in another state operates more than one 
31branch or office within this state, and no central location has been 
32designated or deemed to have been designated by the institution 
33for service of legal process relating to deposit accounts maintained 
34at the financial institution’s head office or main office, as 
35applicable, and branches located within this state. If a judgment 
36creditor reasonably believes that, pursuant to Section
				  700.140 and, 
37if applicable, Section 700.160, any act of enforcement would be 
38effective against a specific deposit account maintained at a financial 
39institution described in this subdivision, the judgment creditor may 
40file with the financial institution a written request that the financial 
P44   1institution identify the branch or office within this state at which 
2a specified account might be maintained by the financial institution. 
3The written request shall contain the following statements or 
4information:
5(1) The name of the person reasonably believed by the judgment 
6creditor to be a person in whose name the specified deposit account 
7stands.
8(2) If the name of the person reasonably believed by the 
9judgment creditor to be a person in whose name the specified 
10deposit account stands is not a judgment debtor identified in the 
11writ of execution, a statement that a person reasonably believed
12
				  by the judgment creditor to be a person in whose name the specified 
13deposit account stands will be appropriately identified in the legal 
14process to be served pursuant to Section 700.160, including any 
15supplementary papers, such as a court order or affidavit if the same 
16will be required by Section 700.160.
17(3) The specific identifying number of the account reasonably 
18believed to be maintained with the financial institution and standing 
19in the name of the judgment debtor or other person.
20(4) The address of the requesting party.
21(5) An affidavit by the judgment creditor or the judgment 
22creditor’s counsel stating substantially the following:
23
24I hereby declare that this deposit account location request 
25complies
				  with Section 684.115 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 
26that the account or accounts of the judgment debtor or other person 
27or persons appropriately identified in the legal process and 
28specified herein are subject to a valid writ of execution, or court 
29order, that I have a reasonable belief, formed after an inquiry 
30reasonable under the circumstances, that the financial institution 
31receiving this deposit account location request has an account 
32standing in the name of the judgment debtor or other person or 
33persons appropriately identified in the legal process, and that 
34information pertaining to the location of the account will assist the 
35judgment creditor in enforcing the judgment.
36
37(i) The affidavit contemplated by subdivision (h) shall be signed 
38by the judgment creditor or the judgment creditor’s counsel and 
39filed at the financial institution’s head office located within this 
40state
				  or, if the financial institution’s head office is in another state, 
P45   1at one of its branches or offices within this state. Failure to comply 
2with the requirements of subdivision (h) and this subdivision shall 
3be sufficient basis for the financial institution to refuse to produce 
4the information that would otherwise be required by subdivision 
5(j).
6(j) Within 10 banking days following receipt by a financial 
7institution at the applicable location specified in subdivision (i) of 
8a request contemplated by subdivision (h), as to each specific 
9deposit account identified in the request contemplated by 
10subdivision (h), the financial institution shall respond by mailing, 
11by first-class mail with postage prepaid, to the requester’s address 
12as specified in the request a response indicating the branch or office 
13location of the financial institution at which the specified deposit 
14account might be maintained, or, if the specified deposit account, 
15if it exists,
				  would not be maintained at a specific location, at least 
16one place within this state at which legal process relating to the 
17deposit account should or may be served. The response to be 
18furnished pursuant to this subdivision shall not require the financial 
19institution to determine whether an account exists or, if an account 
20does exist, whether it would be reached by the legal process, rather, 
21the branch or office location shall be determined and reported by 
22the financial institution based solely upon its determination that 
23an account with the identifying number provided by the requester 
24would be maintained at that branch if an account did exist, and the 
25response shall not contain any information about the name in which 
26the account stands or any other information concerning the account, 
27if it exists. If more than one account number is specified in the 
28request, the financial institution’s responses as to some or all of 
29those account numbers may be combined in a single writing.
30(k) A response furnished in good faith by the financial institution 
31pursuant to subdivision (j) shall not be deemed to violate the 
32privacy of any person in whose name the specified deposit account 
33stands nor the privacy of any other person, and shall not require 
34the consent of the person in whose name the account stands nor 
35that of any other person.
36(l) A financial institution shall not notify the person in whose 
37name the specified deposit account stands or any other person 
38related to the specified account of the receipt of any request made 
39pursuant to subdivision (h) and affecting that person’s or persons’ 
40accounts at the financial institution, provided that the financial 
P46   1institution shall have no liability for its failure to comply with the 
2provisions of this subdivision.
Section 1282.4 of the Code of Civil Procedure is 
4amended to read:
(a) A party to the arbitration has the right to be 
6represented by an attorney at any proceeding or hearing in 
7arbitration under this title. A waiver of this right may be revoked; 
8but if a party revokes that waiver, the other party is entitled to a 
9reasonable continuance for the purpose of procuring an attorney.
10(b) Notwithstanding any other law, including Section 6125 of 
11the Business and Professions Code, an attorney admitted to the 
12bar of any other state may represent the parties in the course of, 
13or in connection with, an arbitration proceeding in this state, 
14provided that the attorney, if not admitted to the State Bar of 
15California, satisfies all of the following:
16(1) He or she timely serves the
				  certificate described in 
17subdivision (c).
18(2) The attorney’s appearance is approved in writing on that 
19certificate by the arbitrator, the arbitrators, or the arbitral forum.
20(3) The certificate bearing approval of the attorney’s appearance 
21is filed with the State Bar of California and served on the parties 
22as described in this section.
23(c) Within a reasonable period of time after the attorney 
24described in subdivision (b) indicates an intention to appear in the 
25arbitration, the attorney shall serve a certificate in a form prescribed 
26by the State Bar of California on the arbitrator, arbitrators, or 
27arbitral forum, the State Bar of California, and all other parties 
28and counsel in the arbitration whose addresses are known to the 
29attorney. The certificate shall state all of the following:
30(1) The case name and number, and the name of the arbitrator, 
31arbitrators, or arbitral forum assigned to the proceeding in which 
32the attorney seeks to appear.
33(2) The attorney’s residence and office address.
34(3) The courts before which the attorney has been admitted to 
35practice and the dates of admission.
36(4) That the attorney is currently a member in good standing 
37of, and eligible to practice law before, the bar of those courts.
38(5) That the attorney is not currently on suspension or disbarred 
39from the practice of law before the bar of any court.
40(6) That the attorney is not a resident of the State of California.
P47   1(7) That the attorney is not regularly employed in the State of 
2California.
3(8) That the attorney is not regularly engaged in substantial 
4business, professional, or other activities in the State of California.
5(9) That the attorney agrees to be subject to the jurisdiction of 
6the courts of this state with respect to the law of this state governing 
7the conduct of attorneys to the same extent as a member of the 
8State Bar of California.
9(10) The title of the court and the cause in which the attorney 
10has filed an application to appear as counsel pro hac vice in this 
11state or filed a certificate pursuant to this section in the preceding 
12two years, the date of each application or certificate, and whether 
13or not it was granted. If the attorney has made repeated
14
				  appearances, the certificate shall reflect the special circumstances 
15that warrant the approval of the attorney’s appearance in the 
16arbitration.
17(11) The name, address, and telephone number of the active 
18member of the State Bar of California who is the attorney of record.
19(d) The arbitrator, arbitrators, or arbitral forum may approve 
20the attorney’s appearance if the attorney has complied with 
21subdivision (c). Failure to timely file and serve the certificate 
22described in subdivision (c) shall be grounds for disapproval of 
23the appearance and disqualification from serving as an attorney in 
24the arbitration in which the certificate was filed. In the absence of 
25special circumstances, repeated appearances shall be grounds for 
26disapproval of the appearance and disqualification from serving 
27as an attorney in the arbitration in which the certificate was filed.
28(e) Within a reasonable period of time after the arbitrator, 
29arbitrators, or arbitral forum approves the certificate, the attorney 
30shall file the certificate with the State Bar of California and serve 
31the certificate as described in Section 1013a on all parties and 
32counsel in the arbitration whosebegin delete address isend deletebegin insert addresses areend insert known 
33to the attorney.
34(f) An attorney who fails to file or serve the certificate required 
35by this section or files or serves a certificate containing false 
36information or who otherwise fails to comply with the standards 
37of professional conduct required of members of the State Bar of 
38California shall be subject to the disciplinary jurisdiction of the 
39State Bar with respect to
				  that certificate or any of his or her acts 
40occurring in the course of the arbitration.
P48   1(g) Notwithstanding any other law, including Section 6125 of 
2the Business and Professions Code, an attorney who is a member 
3in good standing of the bar of any state may represent the parties 
4in connection with rendering legal services in this state in the 
5course of and in connection with an arbitration pending in another 
6state.
7(h) Notwithstanding any other law, including Section 6125 of 
8the Business and Professions Code, any party to an arbitration 
9arising under collective bargaining agreements in industries and 
10provisions subject to either state or federal law may be represented 
11in the course of, and in connection with, those proceedings by any 
12person, regardless of whether that person is licensed to practice 
13law in this state.
14(i) Nothing in this section shall apply to Division 4 (commencing 
15with Section 3201) of the Labor Code.
16(j) (1) In enacting the amendments to this section made by 
17Assembly Bill 2086 of the 1997-98 Regular Session, it is the intent 
18of the Legislature to respond to the holding in Birbrower v. 
19Superior Court (1998) 17 Cal.4th 119, as modified at 17 Cal.4th 
20643a (hereafter Birbrower), to provide a procedure for nonresident 
21attorneys who are not licensed in this state to appear in California 
22arbitration proceedings.
23(2) In enacting subdivision (h), it is the intent of the Legislature 
24to make clear that any party to an arbitration arising under a 
25collective bargaining agreement governed by the laws of this state 
26may be represented in the course of and in connection with those 
27proceedings by any person regardless of whether that person is 
28licensed to
				  practice law in this state.
29(3) Except as otherwise specifically provided in this section, in 
30enacting the amendments to this section made by Assembly Bill 
312086 of the 1997-98 Regular Session, it is the Legislature’s intent 
32that nothing in this section is intended to expand or restrict the 
33ability of a party prior to the decision in Birbrower to elect to be 
34represented by any person in a nonjudicial arbitration proceeding, 
35to the extent those rights or abilities existed prior to that decision. 
36To the extent that Birbrower is interpreted to expand or restrict 
37that right or ability pursuant to the laws of this state, it is hereby 
38abrogated except as specifically provided in this section.
39(4) In enacting subdivision (i), it is the intent of the Legislature 
40to make clear that nothing in this section shall affect those 
P49   1provisions of law governing the right of injured workers to elect
2
				  to be represented by any person, regardless of whether that person 
3is licensed to practice law in this state, as set forth in Division 4 
4(commencing with Section 3200) of the Labor Code.
Section 7237 of the Corporations Code is amended 
6to read:
(a) For purposes of this section, “agent” means a person 
8who is or was a director, officer, employee, or other agent of the 
9corporation, or is or was serving at the request of the corporation 
10as a director, officer, employee, or agent of another foreign or 
11domestic corporation, partnership, joint venture, trust or other 
12enterprise, or was a director, officer, employee, or agent of a 
13foreign or domestic corporation that was a predecessor corporation 
14of the corporation or of another enterprise at the request of the 
15predecessor corporation; “proceeding” means any threatened, 
16pending, or completed action or proceeding, whether civil, criminal, 
17administrative, or investigative; and “expenses” includes, without 
18limitation, attorneys’ fees and any expenses of establishing a right 
19to indemnification under subdivision (d) or paragraph (3)
				  of 
20subdivision (e).
21(b) A corporation shall have power to indemnify a person who 
22was or is a party or is threatened to be made a party to any 
23proceeding (other than an action by or in the right of the 
24corporation to procure a judgment in its favor, an action brought 
25under Section 5233 of Part 2 (commencing with Section 5110) 
26made applicable pursuant to Section 7238, or an action brought 
27by the Attorney General or a person granted relator status by the 
28Attorney General for any breach of duty relating to assets held in 
29charitable trust) by reason of the fact that the person is or was an 
30agent of the corporation, against expenses, judgments, fines, 
31settlements, and other amounts actually and reasonably incurred 
32in connection with the proceeding if the person acted in good faith 
33and in a manner the person reasonably believed to be in the best 
34interests of the corporation and, in the case of a criminal 
35proceeding, had no reasonable cause to believe
				  the conduct of the 
36person was unlawful. The termination of any proceeding by 
37judgment, order, settlement, conviction, or upon a plea of nolo 
38contendere or its equivalent shall not, of itself, create a presumption 
39that the person did not act in good faith and in a manner which the 
40person reasonably believed to be in the best interests of the 
P50   1corporation or that the person had reasonable cause to believe that 
2the person’s conduct was unlawful.
3(c) A corporation shall have power to indemnify a person who 
4was or is a party or is threatened to be made a party to any 
5threatened, pending, or completed action by or in the right of the 
6corporation, or brought under Section 5233 of Part 2 (commencing 
7with Section 5110) made applicable pursuant to Section 7238, or 
8brought by the Attorney General or a person granted relator status 
9by the Attorney General for breach of duty relating to assets held 
10in charitable trust, to procure a judgment in its favor by
				  reason of 
11the fact that the person is or was an agent of the corporation, against 
12expenses actually and reasonably incurred by the person in 
13connection with the defense or settlement of the action if the person 
14acted in good faith, in a manner the person believed to be in the 
15best interests of the corporation and with such care, including 
16reasonable inquiry, as an ordinarily prudent person in a like 
17position would use under similar circumstances. No 
18indemnification shall be made under this subdivision:
19(1) With respect to any claim, issue, or matter as to which the 
20person shall have been adjudged to be liable to the corporation in 
21the performance of the person’s duty to the corporation, unless 
22and only to the extent that the court in which the proceeding is or 
23was pending shall determine upon application that, in view of all 
24the circumstances of the case, the person is fairly and reasonably 
25entitled to indemnity for the expenses which the court
				  shall 
26determine;
27(2) Of amounts paid in settling or otherwise disposing of a 
28threatened or pending action, with or without court approval; or
29(3) Of expenses incurred in defending a threatened or pending 
30action that is settled or otherwise disposed of without court 
31approval unless the action concerns assets held in charitable trust 
32and is settled with the approval of the Attorney General.
33(d) To the extent that an agent of a corporation has been 
34successful on the merits in defense of any proceeding referred to 
35in subdivision (b) or (c) or in defense of any claim, issue, or matter 
36therein, the agent shall be indemnified against expenses actually 
37and reasonably incurred by the agent in connection therewith.
38(e) Except as provided in subdivision (d), any
				  indemnification 
39under this section shall be made by the corporation only if 
40authorized in the specific case, upon a determination that 
P51   1indemnification of the agent is proper in the circumstances because 
2the agent has met the applicable standard of conduct set forth in 
3subdivision (b) or (c), by:
4(1) A majority vote of a quorum consisting of directors who are 
5not parties to the proceeding;
6(2) Approval of the members (Section 5034), with the persons 
7to be indemnified not being entitled to vote thereon; or
8(3) The court in which the proceeding is or was pending upon 
9application made by the corporation or the agent or the attorney, 
10or other person rendering services in connection with the defense, 
11whether or not the application by the agent, attorney or other person 
12is opposed by the corporation.
13(f) Expenses incurred in defending any proceeding may be 
14advanced by the corporation before the final disposition of the 
15proceeding upon receipt of an undertaking by or on behalf of the 
16agent to repay the amount unless it shall be determined ultimately 
17that the agent is entitled to be indemnified as authorized in this 
18section. The provisions of subdivision (a) of Section 7235 do not 
19apply to advances made pursuant to this subdivision.
20(g) A provision made by a corporation to indemnify its or its 
21subsidiary’s directors or officers for the defense of any proceeding, 
22whether contained in the articles, bylaws, a resolution of members 
23or directors, an agreement, or otherwise, shall not be valid unless 
24consistent with this section. Nothing contained in this section shall 
25affect any right to indemnification to which persons other than the 
26directors and officers may be entitled by contract
				  or otherwise.
27(h) No indemnification or advance shall be made under this 
28section, except as provided in subdivision (d) or paragraph (3) of 
29subdivision (e), in any circumstance where it appears:
30(1) That it would be inconsistent with a provision of the articles, 
31bylaws, a resolution of the members, or an agreement in effect at 
32the time of the accrual of the alleged cause of action asserted in 
33the proceeding in which the expenses were incurred or other 
34amounts were paid, which prohibits or otherwise limits 
35indemnification; or
36(2) That it would be inconsistent with any condition expressly 
37imposed by a court in approving a settlement.
38(i) A corporation shall have power to purchase and maintain 
39insurance on behalf of an agent of the corporation against any
40
				  liability asserted against or incurred by the agent in that capacity 
P52   1or arising out of the agent’s status as such whether or not the 
2corporation would have the power to indemnify the agent against 
3that liability under the provisions of this section.
4(j) This section does not apply to any proceeding against a 
5trustee, investment manager, or other fiduciary of a pension, 
6deferred compensation, saving, thrift, or other retirement, incentive, 
7or benefit plan, trust, or provision for any or all of the corporation’s 
8directors, officers, employees, and persons providing services to 
9the corporation or any of its subsidiary or related or affiliated 
10corporations, in that person’s capacity as such, even though the 
11person may also be an agent as defined in subdivision (a) of the 
12employer corporation. A corporation shall have power to indemnify 
13the trustee, investment manager, or other fiduciary to the extent 
14permitted by subdivision (e) of Section
				  7140.
The heading of Chapter 5.5 (commencing with 
16Section 15900) of Title 2 of the Corporations Code is amended 
17and renumbered to read:
18
Section 15282 of the Education Code is amended to 
22read:
(a) The citizens’ oversight committee shall consist of 
24at least seven members who shall serve for a minimum term of 
25two years without compensation and for no more than three 
26consecutive terms. While consisting of a minimum of at least seven 
27members, the citizens’ oversight committee shall be comprised, 
28as follows:
29(1) One member shall be active in a business organization 
30representing the business community located within the school 
31district or community college district.
32(2) One member shall be active in a senior citizens’ organization.
33(3) One member shall be active in a bona fide taxpayers’ 
34organization.
35(4) For a school district, one member shall be the parent or 
36guardian of a child enrolled in the school district. For a community 
37college district, one member shall be a student who is both 
38currently enrolled in the community college district and active in 
39a community college group, such as student government. The 
40community college student member may, at the discretion of the 
P53   1governing board of the community college district, serve up to six 
2months after his or her graduation.
3(5) For a school district, one member shall be both a parent or 
4guardian of a child enrolled in the school district and active in a 
5parent-teacher organization, such as the Parent Teacher Association 
6or schoolsite council. For a community college district, one 
7member shall be active in the support and organization of a 
8community college or the community colleges of the district, such 
9as a member of an advisory
				  council or foundation.
10(b) An employee or official of the school district or community 
11college district shall not be appointed to the citizens’ oversight 
12committee. A vendor, contractor, or consultant of the school district 
13or community college district shall not be appointed to the citizens’ 
14oversight committee. Members of the citizens’ oversight committee 
15shall, pursuant to Sections 35233 and 72533, abide by the 
16prohibitions contained in Article 4 (commencing with Section 
171090) and Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 1125) of Chapter 
181 of Division 4 of Title 1 of the Government Code.
Section 17193.5 of the Education Code is amended 
20to read:
(a) For purposes of this section, “public credit 
22provider” means any financial institution or combination of 
23financial institutions, that consists either solely, or has as a member 
24or participant, a public retirement system. Notwithstanding any 
25other law, a public credit provider, in connection with providing 
26credit enhancement for bonds, notes, certificates of participation, 
27or other evidences of indebtedness of a participating party, may 
28require the participating party to agree to the following conditions:
29(1) If a participating party adopts a resolution by a majority vote 
30of its board to participate under this section, it shall provide notice 
31to the Controller of that election. The notice shall include a 
32schedule for the repayment of principal and interest on
				  the bonds, 
33notes, certificates of participation, or other evidence of 
34indebtedness and identify the public credit provider that provided 
35credit enhancement. The notice shall be provided not later than 
36the date of issuance of the bonds.
37(2) If, for any reason, a public credit provider is required to 
38make principal or interest payments, or both, pursuant to a credit 
39enhancement agreement, the public credit provider shall 
P54   1immediately notify the Controller of that fact and of the amount 
2paid out by the public credit provider.
3(3) Upon receipt of the notice required by paragraph (2), the 
4Controller shall make an apportionment to the public credit 
5provider in the amount of the payments made by the public credit 
6provider for the purpose of reimbursing the public credit provider 
7for its expenditures made pursuant to the credit enhancement 
8agreement. The Controller shall make that
				  apportionment only 
9from moneys designated for apportionments to a participating 
10party, provided that such moneys are from one or more of the 
11following:
12(A) Any revenue limit apportionments to a school district or 
13county office of education without regard to the specific funding 
14source of the apportionment.
15(B) Any general apportionments to a community college district 
16without regard to the specific funding source of the apportionment.
17(C) Any charter school block grant apportionments to a charter 
18school without regard to the specific funding source of the 
19apportionment.
20(D) Any charter school categorical block grant apportionments 
21to a charter school without regard to the specific funding source 
22of the apportionment.
23(b) The amount apportioned for a participating party pursuant 
24to this section shall be deemed to be an allocation to the 
25participating party and shall be included in the computation of 
26allocation, limit, entitlement, or apportionment for the participating 
27party. The participating party and its creditors do not have a claim 
28to funds apportioned or anticipated to be apportioned to the trustee 
29by the Controller pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (a).
Section 17250.25 of the Education Code is amended 
31to read:
Design-build projects shall progress as follows:
33(a) (1) The school district governing board shall prepare a 
34request for proposal setting forth the scope of the project that may 
35include, but is not limited to, the size, type, and desired design 
36character of the buildings and site, performance specifications 
37covering the quality of materials, equipment, and workmanship, 
38preliminary plans or building layouts, or any other information 
39deemed necessary to describe adequately the school district’s 
40needs. The performance specifications and any plans shall be 
P55   1prepared by a design professional duly licensed or registered in 
2this state. The request for proposal shall not include a 
3design-build-operate contract for educational facilities pursuant 
4to this chapter.
5(2) Each request for proposal shall do all of the following:
6(A) Identify the basic scope and needs of the project or contract, 
7the expected cost range, and other information deemed necessary 
8by the school district to inform interested parties of the contracting 
9opportunity.
10(B) Invite interested parties to submit competitive sealed 
11proposals in the manner prescribed by the school district.
12(C) Include a section identifying and describing the following:
13(i) All significant factors and subfactors that the school district 
14reasonably expects to consider in evaluating proposals, including 
15cost or price and all nonprice related factors and subfactors.
16(ii) The methodology and rating or weighting scheme that will 
17be used by the school district governing board in evaluating 
18competitive proposals and specifically whether proposals will be 
19rated according to numeric or qualitative values.
20(iii) The relative importance or weight assigned to each of the 
21factors identified in the request for proposal.
22(iv) As an alternative to clause (iii), the governing board of a 
23school district shall specifically disclose whether all evaluation 
24factors other than cost or price, when combined, are any of the 
25following:
26(I) Significantly more important than cost or price.
27(II) Approximately equal in importance to cost or price.
28(III) Significantly less important than cost or price.
29(v) If the school district governing board wishes to reserve the 
30right to hold discussions or negotiations with responsive bidders, 
31it shall so specify in the request for proposal and shall publish 
32separately or incorporate into the request for proposal applicable 
33rules and procedures to be observed by the school district to ensure 
34that any discussions or negotiations are conducted in a fair and 
35impartial manner.
36(3) Notwithstanding Section 4-315 of Title 24 of the California 
37Code of Regulations, an architect or structural engineer who is 
38party to a design-build entity may perform the services set forth 
39in Section 17302.
P56   1(b) (1) The school district shall establish a procedure to
2
				  prequalify design-build entities using a standard questionnaire 
3developed by the Director of the Department of Industrial 
4Relations. In preparing the questionnaire, the director shall consult 
5with the construction industry, including representatives of the 
6building trades, surety industry, school districts, and other affected 
7parties. This questionnaire shall require information including, but 
8not limited to, all of the following:
9(A) If the design-build entity is a partnership, limited 
10partnership, or other association, a listing of all of the partners, 
11general partners, or association members who will participate as 
12subcontractors in the design-build contract, including, but not 
13limited to, electrical and mechanical subcontractors.
14(B) Evidence that the members of the design-build entity have 
15completed, or demonstrated, the experience, competency, 
16capability, and capacity to
				  complete projects of similar size, scope, 
17or complexity, and that proposed key personnel have sufficient 
18experience and training to competently manage and complete the 
19design and construction of the project.
20(C) The licenses, registration, and credentials required to design 
21and construct the project, including information on the revocation 
22or suspension of a license, credential, or registration.
23(D) Evidence that establishes that the design-build entity has 
24the capacity to obtain all required payment and performance 
25bonding, liability insurance, and errors and omissions insurance, 
26as well as a financial statement that ensures the school district that 
27the design-build entity has the capacity to complete the project.
28(E) Any prior serious or willful violation of the California 
29Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1973
				  (Part 1 (commencing 
30with Section 6300) of Division 5 of the Labor Code) or the federal 
31Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (P.L. 91-596), settled 
32against a member of the design-build entity, and information 
33concerning a contractor member’s workers’ compensation 
34experience history and worker safety program.
35(F) Information concerning any debarment, disqualification, or 
36removal from a federal, state, or local government public works 
37project.
38(G) Any instance where an entity, its owners, officers, or 
39managing employees, submitted a bid on a public works project 
40and were found by an awarding body not to be a responsible bidder.
P57   1(H) Any instance where the entity, its owners, officers, or 
2managing employees defaulted on a construction contract.
3(I) Any
				  prior violations of the Contractors’ State License Law 
4(Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 7000) of Division 3 of the 
5Business and Professions Code), excluding alleged violations of 
6federal or state law including the payment of wages, benefits, 
7apprenticeship requirements, or personal income tax withholding, 
8or of Federal Insurance Contribution Act (FICA) withholding 
9requirements, settled against a member of the design-build entity.
10(J) Information concerning the bankruptcy or receivership of a 
11member of the entity, including information concerning any work 
12completed by a surety.
13(K) Information concerning all settled adverse claims, disputes, 
14or lawsuits between the owner of a public works project and a 
15member of the design-build entity during the five-year period 
16preceding submission of the bid pursuant to this section, in which 
17the claim, settlement, or judgment exceeds fifty
				  thousand dollars 
18($50,000). Information shall also be provided concerning any work 
19completed by a surety during this period.
20(L) In the case of a partnership or other association that is not 
21a legal entity, a copy of the agreement creating the partnership or 
22association.
23(2) The information required pursuant to this subdivision shall 
24be verified under oath by the design-build entity and its members 
25in the manner in which civil pleadings in civil actions are verified. 
26Information that is not a public record pursuant to the California 
27Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) 
28of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code) shall not be open 
29to public inspection.
30(c) The school district shall establish a procedure for final 
31selection of the design-build entity. Selection shall be based on 
32either of
				  the following criteria:
33(1) A competitive bidding process resulting in lump-sum bids 
34by the prequalified design-build entities. Award shall be made on 
35the basis of the lowest responsible bid.
36(2) Notwithstanding any other provision of this code or of 
37Section 20110 of the Public Contract Code, a school district may 
38use a design-build competition based upon performance and other 
39criteria set forth by the governing board of the school district in 
40the solicitation of proposals. Criteria used in this evaluation of 
P58   1proposals may include, but need not be limited to, the proposed 
2design approach, life-cycle costs, project features, and project 
3functions. However, competitive proposals shall be evaluated by 
4using the criteria and source selection procedures specifically 
5identified in the request for proposal. Once the evaluation is 
6complete, all responsive bidders shall be ranked from the
				  most 
7advantageous to least advantageous to the school district.
8(A) An architectural or engineering firm or individual retained 
9by the governing board of the school district to assist in the 
10development criteria or preparation of the request for proposal 
11shall not be eligible to participate in the competition with the 
12design-build entity.
13(B) The award of the contract shall be made to the responsible 
14bidder whose proposal is determined, in writing by the school 
15district, to be the best value to the school district.
16(C) Proposals shall be evaluated and scored solely on the basis 
17of the factors and source selection procedures identified in the 
18request for proposal. However, the following minimum factors 
19shall collectively represent at least 50 percent of the total weight 
20or consideration given to all criteria factors:
				  price, technical 
21expertise, life-cycle costs over 15 years or more, skilled labor force 
22availability, and acceptable safety record.
23(D) The school district governing board shall issue a written 
24decision supporting its contract award and stating in detail the 
25basis of the award. The decision and the contract file must be 
26sufficient to satisfy an external audit.
27(E) Notwithstanding any provision of the Public Contract Code, 
28upon issuance of a contract award, the school district governing 
29board shall publicly announce its awards identifying the contractor 
30to whom the award is made, the winning contractor’s price proposal 
31and its overall combined rating on the request for proposal 
32evaluation factors. The notice of award shall also include the 
33agency’s ranking in relation to all other responsive bidders and 
34their respective price proposals and a summary of the school 
35district’s
				  rationale for the contract award.
36(F) For purposes of this chapter, “skilled labor force availability” 
37means that an agreement exists with a registered apprenticeship 
38program, approved by the California Apprenticeship Council, 
39which has graduated apprentices in the preceding five years. This 
40graduation requirement shall not apply to programs providing 
P59   1apprenticeship training for any craft that has not been deemed by 
2the United States Department of Labor and the Department of 
3Industrial Relations to be an apprenticable craft in the two years 
4before enactment of this act.
5(G) For purposes of this chapter, a bidder’s “safety record” shall 
6be deemed “acceptable” if its experience modification rate for the 
7most recent three-year period is an average of 1.00 or less, and its 
8average total recordable injury or illness rate and average lost work 
9rate for the most recent three-year period
				  do not exceed the 
10applicable statistical standards for its business category, or if the 
11bidder is a party to an alternative dispute resolution system as 
12provided for in Section 3201.5 of the Labor Code.
Section 18720 of the Education Code is amended to 
14read:
(a) There is hereby established in the state government 
16the California Library Services Board, to consist of 13 members. 
17The Governor shall appoint nine members of the board. Three of 
18the Governor’s appointments shall be representative of laypersons, 
19one of whom shall represent people with disabilities, one of whom 
20shall represent limited- and non-English-speaking persons, and 
21one of whom shall represent economically disadvantaged persons.
22(b) The Governor shall also appoint six members of the board, 
23each of whom shall represent one of the following categories: 
24school libraries, libraries for institutionalized persons, public library 
25trustees or commissioners, public libraries, special libraries, and 
26academic libraries.
27(c) The Legislature shall appoint the remaining four public 
28members from persons who are not representative of categories 
29mentioned in this section. Two shall be appointed by the Senate 
30Committee on Rules and two shall be appointed by the Speaker 
31of the Assembly.
32(d) The terms of office of members of the board shall be for 
33four years and shall begin on January 1 of the year in which the 
34respective terms are to start.
35(e) On January 1, 2013, the members of the board shall be those 
36persons serving on the former Library of California Board, 
37appointed pursuant to former Section 18820, as it existed on 
38December 31, 2012, who shall serve for the duration of their terms.
Section 22138.5 of the Education Code, as added by 
2Section 2 of Chapter 829 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to 
3read:
(a) (1) “Full time” means the days or hours of 
5creditable service the employer requires to be performed by a class 
6of employees in a school year in order to earn the compensation 
7earnable as defined in Section 22115 and specified under the terms 
8of a collective bargaining agreement or employment agreement. 
9For the purpose of crediting service under this part, “full time” 
10may not be less than the minimum standard specified in this 
11section. Each collective bargaining agreement or employment 
12agreement that applies to a member subject to the minimum 
13standard specified in either paragraph (5) or (6) of subdivision (c) 
14shall specify the number of hours of creditable service that equals 
15“full time” pursuant to this section for each class of employee 
16subject to either paragraph and make specific reference to this
17
				  section, and the district shall submit a copy of the agreement to 
18the system.
19(2) The copies of each agreement shall be submitted 
20electronically in a format determined by the system that ensures 
21the security of the transmitted member data.
22(3) The copies shall be electronically submitted annually to the 
23system on or before July 1, or on or before the effective date of 
24the agreement, whichever is later.
25(b) The minimum standard for full time in prekindergarten 
26through grade 12 is as follows:
27(1) One hundred seventy-five days per year or 1,050 hours per 
28year, except as provided in paragraphs (2) and (3).
29(2) (A)   One hundred ninety days per year or 1,520 hours per 
30year for all principals
				  and program managers, including advisers, 
31coordinators, consultants, and developers or planners of curricula, 
32instructional materials, or programs, and for administrators, except 
33as provided in subparagraph (B).
34(B) Two hundred fifteen days per year or 1,720 hours per year 
35including school and legal holidays pursuant to the policy adopted 
36by the employer’s governing board for administrators at a county 
37office of education.
38(3) One thousand fifty hours per year for teachers in adult 
39education programs.
P61   1(c) The minimum standard for full time in community colleges 
2is as follows:
3(1) One hundred seventy-five days per year or 1,050 hours per 
4year, except as provided in paragraphs (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6). 
5Full time includes time for duties the employer
				  requires to be 
6performed as part of the full-time assignment for a particular class 
7of employees.
8(2) One hundred ninety days per year or 1,520 hours per year 
9for all program managers and for administrators, except as provided 
10in paragraph (3).
11(3) Two hundred fifteen days per year or 1,720 hours per year 
12including school and legal holidays pursuant to the policy adopted 
13by the employer’s governing board for administrators at a district 
14office.
15(4) One hundred seventy-five days per year or 1,050 hours per 
16year for all counselors and librarians.
17(5) Five hundred twenty-five instructional hours per school year 
18for all instructors employed on a part-time basis, except instructors 
19specified in paragraph (6). If an instructor receives compensation 
20for office
				  hours pursuant to Article 10 (commencing with Section 
2187880) of Chapter 3 of Part 51 of Division 7 of Title 3, the 
22minimum standard shall be increased appropriately by the number 
23of office hours required annually for the class of employees.
24(6) Eight hundred seventy-five instructional hours per school 
25year for all instructors employed in adult education programs. If 
26an instructor receives compensation for office hours pursuant to 
27Article 10 (commencing with Section 87880) of Chapter 3 of Part 
2851 of Division 7 of Title 3, the minimum standard shall be 
29increased appropriately by the number of office hours required 
30annually for the class of employees.
31(d) The board has final authority to determine full time for 
32purposes of crediting service under this part if full time is not 
33otherwise specified in this section.
34(e) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2013.
Section 33195 of the Education Code is amended to 
36read:
(a) Every person, firm, association, partnership, or 
38corporation operating a heritage school as defined in Section 
3933195.4 shall, between the 1st and 31st day of January of each 
40year, commencing on January 1, 2011, file with the Superintendent 
P62   1an electronic registration form, under penalty of perjury, by the 
2owner or other head setting forth the following information for the 
3current year:
4(1) All names, whether real or fictitious, of the person, firm, 
5association, partnership, or corporation under which it has done 
6and is doing business.
7(2) The address, including city and street, of the location at 
8which the heritage school delivers services to pupils.
9(3) The names and addresses, including city and street, of the 
10directors, if any, and principal officers of the person, firm, 
11association, partnership, or corporation.
12(4) The school enrollment, by grade span, number of teachers, 
13and coeducational or enrollment limited to boys or girls.
14(5) That the following records are maintained at the address 
15stated, and are true and accurate:
16(A) The courses of study offered by the institution.
17(B) The names and addresses, including city and street, of its 
18faculty, together with a record of the educational qualifications of 
19each faculty member.
20(6) Criminal record summary information that has
				  been obtained 
21pursuant to Section 44237.
22(7) The heritage school telephone number.
23(8) Acknowledgment that the director of the heritage school 
24and all employees are mandated reporters and subject to the 
25requirements established by the Child Abuse and Neglect Reporting 
26Act (Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 11164) of Chapter 2 
27of Title 1 of Part 4 of the Penal Code) and, consistent with that 
28act, certification that:
29(A) The employer is aware that it is encouraged to provide its 
30employees with training in the duties imposed by the act.
31(B) Employees have signed a statement provided by the 
32employer that the employees have knowledge of the act and will 
33comply with its provisions.
34(C) Employees have been notified by the employer of their 
35reporting obligations and confidentiality rights, pursuant to Section 
3611165.9 of the Penal Code.
37(b) If two or more heritage schools are under the effective 
38control or supervision of a single administrative unit, the 
39administrative unit shall comply with the provisions of this section 
P63   1by submitting an electronic registration form on behalf of every 
2heritage school under its effective control or supervision.
3(c) Filing pursuant to this section shall not be interpreted to 
4mean, and it shall be unlawful for a school to expressly or impliedly 
5represent, that the State of California, the Superintendent, the state 
6board, the department or a division or bureau of the department, 
7or an accrediting agency has made an evaluation, recognition, 
8approval, or endorsement of the school or course, unless this is an 
9actual
				  fact.
10(d) Filing pursuant to this section does not grant a heritage 
11school a right to receive state funding.
Section 35583 of the Education Code is amended to 
13read:
For purposes of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of 
15Section 35735.1, the blended revenue limit per unit of average 
16daily attendance for the Wiseburn Unified School District shall be 
17calculated as follows:
18(a) Multiply the Wiseburn School District revenue limit per unit 
19of average daily attendance for the 2012-13 fiscal year by nine.
20(b) Multiply the Centinela Valley Union High School District 
21revenue limit per unit of average daily attendance for the 2012-13 
22fiscal year by four.
23(c) Add the products determined pursuant to subdivisions (a) 
24and (b).
25(d) Divide the sum determined pursuant to
				  subdivision (c) by 
2613. This amount shall be the blended revenue limit per unit of 
27average daily attendance for the Wiseburn Unified School District.
Section 38000 of the Education Code is amended to 
29read:
(a) The governing board of a school district may 
31establish a security department under the supervision of a chief of 
32security as designated by, and under the direction of, the 
33superintendent of the school district. In accordance with Chapter 
345 (commencing with Section 45100) of Part 25, the governing 
35board of a school district may employ personnel to ensure the 
36safety of school district personnel and pupils and the security of 
37the real and personal property of the school district. It is the intent 
38of the Legislature in enacting this section that a school district 
39security department is supplementary to city and county law 
40enforcement agencies and is not vested with general police powers.
P64   1(b) The governing board of a school district may establish a 
2school police
				  department under the supervision of a school chief 
3of police and, in accordance with Chapter 5 (commencing with 
4Section 45100) of Part 25, may employ peace officers, as defined 
5in subdivision (b) of Section 830.32 of the Penal Code, to ensure 
6the safety of school district personnel and pupils, and the security 
7of the real and personal property of the school district.
8(c) The governing board of a school district that establishes a 
9security department or a police department shall set minimum 
10qualifications of employment for the chief of security or school 
11chief of police, respectively, including, but not limited to, prior 
12employment as a peace officer or completion of a peace officer 
13training course approved by the Commission on Peace Officer 
14Standards and Training. A chief of security or school chief of 
15police shall comply with the prior employment or training 
16requirement set forth in this subdivision as of January 1, 1993, or 
17a date one year
				  subsequent to the initial employment of the chief 
18of security or school chief of police by the school district, 
19whichever occurs later. This subdivision shall not be construed to 
20require the employment by a school district of additional personnel.
21(d) A school district may assign a school police reserve officer 
22who is deputized pursuant to Section 35021.5 to a schoolsite to 
23supplement the duties of school police officers pursuant to this 
24section.
Section 41320.1 of the Education Code is amended 
26to read:
Acceptance by the school district of the 
28apportionments made pursuant to Section 41320 constitutes the 
29agreement by the school district to all of the following conditions:
30(a) The Superintendent shall appoint a trustee who has 
31recognized expertise in management and finance and may employ, 
32on a short-term basis, staff necessary to assist the trustee, including, 
33but not limited to, certified public accountants, as follows:
34(1) The expenses incurred by the trustee and necessary staff 
35shall be borne by the school district.
36(2) The Superintendent shall establish the terms and conditions 
37of the employment, including the remuneration of the trustee. The 
38trustee
				  shall serve at the pleasure of, and report directly to, the 
39Superintendent.
P65   1(3) The trustee, and necessary staff, shall serve until the school 
2district has adequate fiscal systems and controls in place, the 
3Superintendent has determined that the school district’s future 
4compliance with the fiscal plan approved for the school district 
5under Section 41320 is probable, and the Superintendent decides 
6to terminate the trustee’s appointment, but in no event, for less 
7than three years. The Superintendent shall notify the county 
8superintendent of schools, the Legislature, the Department of 
9Finance, and the Controller no less than 60 days before the time 
10that the Superintendent expects these conditions to be met.
11(4) Before the school district repays the loan, including interest, 
12the recipient of the loan shall select an auditor from a list 
13established by the Superintendent and the
				  Controller to conduct 
14an audit of its fiscal systems. If the fiscal systems are deemed to 
15be inadequate, the Superintendent may retain the trustee until the 
16deficiencies are corrected. The cost of this audit and any additional 
17cost of the trustee shall be borne by the school district.
18(5) Notwithstanding any other law, all reports submitted to the 
19trustee are public records.
20(6) To facilitate the appointment of the trustee and the 
21employment of necessary staff, for purposes of this section, the 
22Superintendent is exempt from the requirements of Article 6 
23(commencing with Section 999) of Chapter 6 of Division 4 of the 
24Military and Veterans Code and Part 2 (commencing with Section 
2510100) of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code.
26(7) Notwithstanding any other law, the Superintendent may 
27appoint an employee of the
				  department to act as trustee for up to 
28the duration of the trusteeship. The salary and benefits of that 
29employee shall be established by the Superintendent and paid by 
30the school district. During the time of appointment, the employee 
31is an employee of the school district, but shall remain in the same 
32retirement system under the same plan as if the employee had 
33remained in the department. Upon the expiration or termination 
34of the appointment, the employee shall have the right to return to 
35his or her former position, or to a position at substantially the same 
36level as that position, with the department. The time served in the 
37appointment shall be counted for all purposes as if the employee 
38had served that time in his or her former position with the 
39department.
P66   1(b) (1) The trustee appointed by the Superintendent shall 
2monitor and review the operation of the school district. During the 
3period of his or her service, the trustee
				  may stay or rescind an 
4action of the governing board of the school district that, in the 
5judgment of the trustee, may affect the financial condition of the 
6school district.
7(2) After the trustee’s period of service, and until the loan is 
8repaid, the county superintendent of schools that has jurisdiction 
9over the school district may stay or rescind an action of the 
10governing board of the school district that, in his or her judgment, 
11may affect the financial condition of the school district. The county 
12superintendent of schools shall notify the Superintendent, within 
13five business days, if he or she stays or rescinds an action of the 
14governing board of the school district. The notice shall include, 
15but not be limited to, both of the following:
16(A) A description of the governing board of the school district’s 
17intended action and its financial implications.
18(B) The rationale and findings that support the county 
19superintendent of school’s decision to stay or rescind the action 
20of the governing board of the school district.
21(3) If the Superintendent is notified by the county superintendent 
22of schools pursuant to paragraph (2), the Superintendent shall 
23report to the Legislature, on or before December 30 of every year, 
24whether the school district is complying with the fiscal plan 
25approved for the school district.
26(4) The Superintendent may establish timelines and prescribe 
27formats for reports and other materials to be used by the trustee to 
28monitor and review the operations of the school district. The trustee 
29shall approve or reject all reports and other materials required from 
30the school district as a condition of receiving the apportionment. 
31The Superintendent, upon the
				  recommendation of the trustee, may 
32reduce an apportionment to the school district in an amount up to 
33two hundred dollars ($200) per day for each late or unacceptable 
34report or other material required under this part, and shall report 
35to the Legislature a failure of the school district to comply with 
36the requirements of this section. If the Superintendent determines, 
37at any time, that the fiscal plan approved for the school district 
38under Section 41320 is unsatisfactory, he or she may modify the 
39plan as necessary, and the school district shall comply with the 
40plan as modified.
P67   1(c) At the request of the Superintendent, the Controller shall 
2transfer to the department, from an apportionment to which the 
3school district would otherwise have been entitled pursuant to 
4Section 42238, the amount necessary to pay the expenses incurred 
5by the trustee and associated costs incurred by the county 
6superintendent of schools.
7(d) For the fiscal year in which the apportionments are disbursed 
8and every year thereafter, the Controller, or his or her designee, 
9shall cause an audit to be conducted of the books and accounts of 
10the school district, in lieu of the audit required by Section 41020. 
11At the Controller’s discretion, the audit may be conducted by the 
12Controller, his or her designee, or an auditor selected by the school 
13district and approved by the Controller. The costs of these audits 
14shall be borne by the school district. These audits shall be required 
15until the Controller determines, in consultation with the 
16Superintendent, that the school district is financially solvent, but 
17in no event earlier than one year following the implementation of 
18the plan or later than the time the apportionment made is repaid, 
19including interest. In addition, the Controller shall conduct quality 
20control reviews pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 14504.2.
21(e) For purposes of errors and omissions liability insurance 
22policies, the trustee appointed pursuant to this section is an 
23employee of the local educational agency to which he or she is 
24assigned. For purposes of workers’ compensation benefits, the 
25trustee is an employee of the local educational agency to which 
26he or she is assigned, except that a trustee appointed pursuant to 
27paragraph (7) of subdivision (a) is an employee of the department 
28for those purposes.
29(f) Except for an individual appointed by the Superintendent as 
30trustee pursuant to paragraph (7) of subdivision (a), the 
31state-appointed trustee is a member of the State Teachers’ 
32Retirement System, if qualified, for the period of service as trustee, 
33unless the trustee elects in writing not to become a member. A 
34person who is a member or retirant of the State Teachers’ 
35Retirement System at the time of appointment shall
				  continue to 
36be a member or retirant of the system for the duration of the 
37appointment. If the trustee chooses to become a member or is 
38already a member, the trustee shall be placed on the payroll of the 
39school district for the purpose of providing appropriate 
40contributions to the system. The Superintendent may also require 
P68   1that an individual appointed as trustee pursuant to paragraph (7) 
2of subdivision (a) be placed on the payroll of the school district 
3for purposes of remuneration, other benefits, and payroll 
4deductions. For purposes of workers’ compensation benefits, the 
5state-appointed trustee is deemed an employee of the local 
6educational agency to which he or she is assigned, except that a 
7trustee who is appointed pursuant to paragraph (7) of subdivision 
8(a) is an employee of the department for those purposes.
Section 41326 of the Education Code is amended to 
10read:
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this code, 
12the acceptance by a school district of an apportionment made 
13pursuant to Section 41320 that exceeds an amount equal to 200 
14percent of the amount of the reserve recommended for that school 
15district under the standards and criteria adopted pursuant to Section 
1633127 constitutes the agreement by the school district to the 
17conditions set forth in this article. Before applying for an 
18emergency apportionment in the amount identified in this 
19subdivision, the governing board of a school district shall discuss 
20the need for that apportionment at a regular or special meeting of 
21the governing board of the school district and, at that meeting, 
22shall receive testimony regarding the apportionment from parents, 
23exclusive representatives of employees of the school district, and 
24other members of
				  the community. For purposes of this article, 
25“qualifying school district” means a school district that accepts a 
26loan as described in this subdivision.
27(b) The Superintendent shall assume all the legal rights, duties, 
28and powers of the governing board of a qualifying school district. 
29The Superintendent, in consultation with the county superintendent 
30of schools, shall appoint an administrator to act on his or her behalf 
31in exercising the authority described in this subdivision in 
32accordance with all of the following:
33(1) The administrator shall serve under the direction and 
34supervision of the Superintendent until terminated by the 
35Superintendent at his or her discretion. The Superintendent shall 
36consult with the county superintendent of schools before 
37terminating the administrator.
38(2) The administrator shall have
				  recognized expertise in 
39management and finance.
P69   1(3) To facilitate the appointment of the administrator and the 
2employment of necessary staff, for purposes of this section, the 
3Superintendent is exempt from the requirements of Article 6 
4(commencing with Section 999) of Chapter 6 of Division 4 of the 
5Military and Veterans Code and Part 2 (commencing with Section 
610100) of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code.
7(4) Notwithstanding any other law, the Superintendent may 
8appoint an employee of the state or the office of the county 
9superintendent of schools to act as administrator for up to the 
10duration of the administratorship. During the tenure of his or her 
11appointment, the administrator, if he or she is an employee of the 
12state or the office of the county superintendent of schools, is an 
13employee of the qualifying school district, but shall remain in the 
14same retirement system under
				  the same plan that has been provided 
15by his or her employment with the state or the office of the county 
16superintendent of schools. Upon the expiration or termination of 
17the appointment, the employee shall have the right to return to his 
18or her former position, or to a position at substantially the same 
19level as that position, with the state or the office of the county 
20superintendent of schools. The time served in the appointment 
21shall be counted for all purposes as if the administrator had served 
22that time in his or her former position with the state or the office 
23of the county superintendent of schools.
24(5) Except for an individual appointed as an administrator by 
25the Superintendent pursuant to paragraph (4), the administrator 
26shall be a member of the State Teachers’ Retirement System, if 
27qualified, for the period of service as administrator, unless he or 
28she elects in writing not to become a member. A person who is a 
29member or retirant of
				  the State Teachers’ Retirement System at 
30the time of appointment shall continue to be a member or retirant 
31of the system for the duration of the appointment. If the 
32administrator chooses to become a member or is already a member, 
33the administrator shall be placed on the payroll of the qualifying 
34school district for purposes of providing appropriate contributions 
35to the system. The Superintendent may also require the 
36administrator to be placed on the payroll of the qualifying school 
37district for purposes of remuneration, other benefits, and payroll 
38deductions.
39(6) For purposes of workers’ compensation benefits, the 
40administrator is an employee of the qualifying school district, 
P70   1except that an administrator appointed pursuant to paragraph (4) 
2may be deemed an employee of the state or office of the county 
3superintendent of schools, as applicable.
4(7) The qualifying school district
				  shall add the administrator as 
5a covered employee of the qualifying school district for all purposes 
6of errors and omissions liability insurance policies.
7(8) The salary and benefits of the administrator shall be 
8established by the Superintendent and paid by the qualifying school 
9district.
10(9) The Superintendent or the administrator may employ, on a 
11short-term basis and at the expense of the qualifying school district, 
12any staff necessary to assist the administrator, including, but not 
13limited to, a certified public accountant.
14(10) The administrator may do all of the following:
15(A) Implement substantial changes in the fiscal policies and 
16practices of the qualifying school district, including, if necessary, 
17the filing of a petition under Chapter 9
				  (commencing with Section 
18901) of Title 11 of the United States Code for the adjustment of 
19indebtedness.
20(B) Revise the educational program of the qualifying school 
21district to reflect realistic income projections and pupil performance 
22relative to state standards.
23(C) Encourage all members of the school community to accept 
24a fair share of the burden of the fiscal recovery of the qualifying 
25school district.
26(D) Consult, for the purposes described in this subdivision, with 
27the governing board of the qualifying school district, the exclusive 
28representatives of the employees of the qualifying school district, 
29parents, and the community.
30(E) Consult with, and seek recommendations from, the 
31Superintendent, the county superintendent of schools, and the 
32County
				  Office Fiscal Crisis and Management Assistance Team 
33authorized pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 42127.8 for 
34purposes described in this article.
35(F) With the approval of the Superintendent, enter into 
36agreements on behalf of the qualifying school district and, subject 
37to any contractual obligation of the qualifying school district, 
38change existing school district rules, regulations, policies, or 
39practices as necessary for the effective implementation of the 
40recovery plans referred to in Sections 41327 and 41327.1.
P71   1(c) (1) Except as provided for in paragraph (2), the period of 
2time during which the Superintendent exercises the authority 
3described in subdivision (b), the governing board of the qualifying 
4school district shall serve as an advisory body reporting to the 
5state-appointed administrator, and has no rights, duties, or powers, 
6and is not entitled
				  to any stipend, benefits, or other compensation 
7from the qualifying school district.
8(2) (A) After one complete fiscal year has elapsed following 
9the qualifying school district’s acceptance of an emergency 
10apportionment, the governing board of the qualifying school district 
11may conduct an annual advisory evaluation of an administrator 
12for the duration of the administratorship.
13(B) An advisory evaluation of an administrator shall focus on 
14the administrator’s effectiveness in leading the qualifying school 
15district toward fiscal recovery and improved academic 
16achievement. Advisory evaluation criteria shall be agreed upon 
17by the governing board of the qualifying school district and the 
18administrator before the advisory evaluation. The advisory 
19evaluation shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:
20(i) Goals and standards consistent with Section 41327.1.
21(ii) Commendations in the areas of the administrator’s strengths 
22and achievements.
23(iii) Recommendations for improving the administrator’s 
24effectiveness in areas of concern and unsatisfactory performance.
25(C) An advisory evaluation of an administrator conducted by 
26the governing board of a qualifying school district shall be 
27submitted to the Governor, the Legislature, the Superintendent, 
28and the County Office Fiscal Crisis and Management Assistance 
29Team.
30(3) Upon the appointment of an administrator pursuant to this 
31section, the district superintendent is no longer an employee of the 
32qualifying school district.
33(4) A determination of the severance compensation for the 
34district superintendent shall be made pursuant to subdivision (j).
35(d) Notwithstanding Section 35031 or any other law, the 
36administrator, after according the affected employee reasonable 
37notice and the opportunity for a hearing, may terminate the 
38employment of a deputy, associate, assistant superintendent, or 
39other school district level administrator who is employed by a 
40qualifying school district under a contract of employment signed 
P72   1or renewed after January 1, 1992, if the employee fails to 
2document, to the satisfaction of the administrator, that before the 
3date of the acceptance of the emergency apportionment he or she 
4either advised the governing board of the qualifying school district, 
5or his or her superior, that actions contemplated or taken by the 
6governing board of the qualifying school district could result in 
7the
				  fiscal insolvency of the qualifying school district, or took other 
8appropriate action to avert that fiscal insolvency.
9(e) The authority of the Superintendent, and the administrator, 
10under this section shall continue until all of the following occur:
11(1) (A) After one complete fiscal year has elapsed following 
12the qualifying school district’s acceptance of an emergency 
13apportionment as described in subdivision (a), the administrator 
14determines, and so notifies the Superintendent and the county 
15superintendent of schools, that future compliance by the qualifying 
16school district with the recovery plans approved pursuant to 
17paragraph (2) is probable.
18(B) The Superintendent may return power to the governing 
19board of the qualifying school district for an area listed in 
20subdivision (a) of Section
				  41327.1 if performance under the 
21recovery plan for that area has been demonstrated to the satisfaction 
22of the Superintendent.
23(2) The Superintendent has approved all of the recovery plans 
24referred to in subdivision (a) of Section 41327 and the County 
25Office Fiscal Crisis and Management Assistance Team completes 
26the improvement plans specified in Section 41327.1 and has 
27completed a minimum of two reports identifying the qualifying 
28school district’s progress in implementing the improvement plans.
29(3) The administrator certifies that all necessary collective 
30bargaining agreements have been negotiated and ratified, and that 
31the agreements are consistent with the terms of the recovery plans.
32(4) The qualifying school district has completed all reports 
33required by the Superintendent and the administrator.
34(5) The Superintendent determines that future compliance by 
35the qualifying school district with the recovery plans approved 
36pursuant to paragraph (2) is probable.
37(f) When the conditions stated in subdivision (e) have been met, 
38and at least 60 days after the Superintendent has notified the 
39Legislature, the Department of Finance, the Controller, and the 
40county superintendent of schools that he or she expects the 
P73   1conditions prescribed pursuant to this section to be met, the 
2governing board of the qualifying school district shall regain all 
3of its legal rights, duties, and powers, except for the powers held 
4by the trustee provided for pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with 
5Section 41320). The Superintendent shall appoint a trustee under 
6Section 41320.1 to monitor and review the operations of the 
7qualifying school district until the conditions of subdivision (b) 
8of that section have been
				  met.
9(g) Notwithstanding subdivision (f), if the qualifying school 
10district violates a provision of the recovery plans approved by the 
11Superintendent pursuant to this article within five years after the 
12trustee appointed pursuant to Section 41320.1 is removed or after 
13the emergency apportionment is repaid, whichever occurs later, 
14or the improvement plans specified in Section 41327.1 during the 
15period of the trustee’s appointment, the Superintendent may 
16reassume, either directly or through an administrator appointed in 
17accordance with this section, all of the legal rights, duties, and 
18powers of the governing board of the qualifying school district. 
19The Superintendent shall return to the governing board of the 
20qualifying school district all of its legal rights, duties, and powers 
21reassumed under this subdivision when he or she determines that 
22future compliance with the approved recovery plans is probable, 
23or after a period of one year, whichever
				  occurs later.
24(h) Article 2 (commencing with Section 41320) shall apply 
25except as otherwise specified in this article.
26(i) It is the intent of the Legislature that the legislative budget 
27subcommittees annually conduct a review of each qualifying school 
28district that includes an evaluation of the financial condition of the 
29qualifying school district, the impact of the recovery plans upon 
30the qualifying school district’s educational program, and the efforts 
31made by the state-appointed administrator to obtain input from the 
32community and the governing board of the qualifying school 
33district.
34(j) (1) The district superintendent is entitled to a due process 
35hearing for purposes of determining final compensation. The final 
36compensation of the district superintendent shall be between zero 
37and six times
				  his or her monthly salary. The outcome of the due 
38process hearing shall be reported to the Superintendent and the 
39public. The information provided to the public shall explain the 
40rationale for the compensation.
P74   1(2) This subdivision applies only to a contract for employment 
2negotiated on or after June 21, 2004.
3(k) (1) When the Superintendent assumes control over a 
4qualifying school district pursuant to subdivision (b), he or she 
5shall, in consultation with the County Office Fiscal Crisis and 
6Management Assistance Team, review the fiscal oversight of the 
7qualifying school district by the county superintendent of schools. 
8The Superintendent may consult with other fiscal experts, including 
9other county superintendents of schools and regional fiscal teams, 
10in conducting this review.
11(2) Within three
				  months of assuming control over a qualifying 
12school district, the Superintendent shall report his or her findings 
13to the Legislature and shall provide a copy of that report to the 
14Department of Finance. This report shall include findings as to 
15fiscal oversight actions that were or were not taken and may include 
16recommendations as to an appropriate legislative response to 
17improve fiscal oversight.
18(3) If, after performing the duties described in paragraphs (1) 
19and (2), the Superintendent determines that the county 
20superintendent of schools failed to carry out his or her 
21responsibilities for fiscal oversight as required by this code, the 
22Superintendent may exercise the authority of the county 
23superintendent of schools who has oversight responsibilities for a 
24qualifying school district. If the Superintendent finds, based on 
25the report required in paragraph (2), that the county superintendent 
26of schools failed to appropriately take into account
				  particular types 
27of indicators of financial distress, or failed to take appropriate 
28remedial actions in the qualifying school district, the 
29Superintendent shall further investigate whether the county 
30superintendent of schools failed to take into account those 
31indicators, or similarly failed to take appropriate actions in other 
32school districts with negative or qualified certifications, and shall 
33provide an additional report on the fiscal oversight practices of the 
34county superintendent of schools to the appropriate policy and 
35fiscal committees of each house of the Legislature and the 
36Department of Finance.
Section 47660 of the Education Code is amended to 
38read:
(a) For purposes of computing eligibility for, and 
40entitlements to, general purpose funding and operational funding 
P75   1for categorical programs, the enrollment and average daily 
2attendance of a sponsoring local educational agency shall exclude 
3the enrollment and attendance of pupils in its charter schools 
4funded pursuant to this chapter.
5(b) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), and commencing with 
6the 2005-06 fiscal year, for purposes of computing eligibility for, 
7and entitlements to, revenue limit funding, the average daily 
8attendance of a unified school district, other than a unified school 
9district that has converted all of its schools to charter status 
10pursuant to Section 47606, shall include all attendance of pupils 
11who reside in the unified
				  school district and who would otherwise 
12have been eligible to attend a noncharter school of the school 
13district, if the school district was a basic aid school district in the 
14prior fiscal year, or if the pupils reside in the unified school district 
15and attended a charter school of that school district that converted 
16to charter status on or after July 1, 2005. Only the attendance of 
17the pupils described by this paragraph shall be included in the 
18calculation made pursuant to paragraph (7) of subdivision (h) of 
19Section 42238.
20(2) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), for the 2005-06 fiscal year 
21only, for purposes of computing eligibility for, and entitlements 
22to, revenue limit funding, the average daily attendance of a unified 
23school district, other than a unified school district that has 
24converted all of its schools to charter status pursuant to Section 
2547606 and is operating them as charter schools, shall include all 
26attendance of pupils who reside
				  in the unified school district and 
27who would otherwise have been eligible to attend a noncharter 
28school of the unified school district if the pupils attended a charter 
29school operating in the unified school district prior to July 1, 2005. 
30Only the attendance of pupils described by this paragraph shall be 
31included in the calculation made pursuant to Section 42241.3. The 
32attendance of the pupils described by this paragraph shall be 
33included in the calculation made pursuant to paragraph (7) of 
34subdivision (h) of Section 42238.
35(c) (1) For the attendance of pupils specified in subdivision (b), 
36the general-purpose entitlement for a charter school that is 
37established through the conversion of an existing public school 
38within a unified school district on or after July 1, 2005, but before 
39January 1, 2010, shall be determined using the following amount 
40of general-purpose funding per unit of average daily attendance, 
P76   1in lieu of the
				  amount calculated pursuant to subdivision (a) of 
2Section 47633:
3(A) The amount of the actual unrestricted revenues expended 
4per unit of average daily attendance for that school in the year 
5prior to its conversion to, and operation as, a charter school, 
6adjusted for the base revenue limit per pupil inflation increase 
7adjustment set forth in Section 42238.1, if this adjustment is 
8provided, and also adjusted for equalization, deficit reduction, and 
9other state general-purpose increases, if any, provided for the 
10unified school district in the year of conversion to, and operation 
11as a charter school.
12(B) For a subsequent fiscal year, the general-purpose entitlement 
13shall be determined based on the amount per unit of average daily 
14attendance allocated in the prior fiscal year adjusted for the base 
15revenue limit per pupil inflation increase adjustment set forth in 
16Section 42238.1, if
				  this adjustment is provided, and also adjusted 
17for equalization, deficit reduction, and other state general-purpose 
18increases, if any, provided for the unified school district in that 
19fiscal year.
20(2) This subdivision shall not apply to a charter school that is 
21established through the conversion of an existing public school 
22within a unified school district on or after January 1, 2010, which 
23instead shall receive general-purpose funding pursuant to Section 
2447633. This paragraph does not preclude a charter school or unified 
25school district from agreeing to an alternative funding formula.
26(d) Commencing with the 2005-06 fiscal year, the 
27general-purpose funding per unit of average daily attendance 
28specified for a unified school district for purposes of paragraph 
29(7) of subdivision (h) of Section 42238 for a school within the 
30unified school district that converted to charter status on
				  or after 
31July 1, 2005, shall be deemed to be the amount computed pursuant 
32to subdivision (c).
33(e) A unified school district that is the sponsoring local 
34educational agency, as defined in subdivision (j) of Section 47632, 
35of a charter school that is subject to paragraphs (1) and (2) of 
36subdivision (c) shall certify to the Superintendent the amount 
37specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) prior to the approval 
38of the charter petition by the governing board of the school district. 
39This amount may be based on estimates of the unrestricted revenues 
40expended in the fiscal year prior to the school’s conversion to 
P77   1charter status and the school’s operation as a charter school, 
2provided that the amount is recertified when the actual data 
3becomes available.
4(f) For the purposes of this section, “basic aid school district” 
5means a school district that does not receive from the state an
6
				  apportionment of state funds pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 
742238.
8(g) A school district may use the existing Standardized Account 
9Code Structure and cost allocation methods, if appropriate, for an 
10accounting of the actual unrestricted revenues expended in support 
11of a school pursuant to subdivision (c).
12(h) For purposes of this section and Section 42241.3, “operating” 
13means that pupils are attending and receiving instruction at the 
14charter school.
Section 48853 of the Education Code is amended to 
16read:
(a) A pupil described in subdivision (a) of Section 
1848853.5 who is placed in a licensed children’s institution or foster 
19family home shall attend programs operated by the local 
20educational agency, unless one of the following applies:
21(1) The pupil is entitled to remain in his or her school of origin 
22pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (d) of Section 48853.5.
23(2) The pupil has an individualized education program requiring 
24placement in a nonpublic, nonsectarian school or agency, or in 
25another local educational agency.
26(3) The parent or guardian, or other person holding the right to 
27make educational decisions for the pupil pursuant to
				  Section 361 
28or 726 of the Welfare and Institutions Code or Section 56055, 
29determines that it is in the best interests of the pupil to be placed 
30in another educational program, in which case the parent or 
31guardian or other person holding the right to make educational 
32decisions for the pupil shall provide a written statement that he or 
33she has made that determination to the local educational agency. 
34This statement shall include a declaration that the parent, guardian, 
35or other person holding the right to make educational decisions 
36for the pupil is aware of all of the following:
37(A) The pupil has a right to attend a regular public school in the 
38least restrictive environment.
39(B) The alternate education program is a special education 
40program, if applicable.
P78   1(C) The decision to unilaterally remove the pupil from the
2
				  regular public school and to place the pupil in an alternate 
3education program may not be financed by the local educational 
4agency.
5(D) Any attempt to seek reimbursement for the alternate 
6education program may be at the expense of the parent, guardian, 
7or other person holding the right to make educational decisions 
8for the pupil.
9(b) For purposes of ensuring a parent, guardian, or other person 
10holding the right to make educational decisions for the pupil is 
11aware of the information described in subparagraphs (A) to (D), 
12inclusive, of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a), the local educational 
13agency may provide him or her with that information in writing.
14(c) Before any decision is made to place a pupil in a juvenile 
15court school as defined by Section 48645.1, a community school 
16as described in Sections 1981 and 48660,
				  or other alternative 
17educational setting, the parent or guardian, or person holding the 
18right to make educational decisions for the pupil pursuant to 
19Section 361 or 726 of the Welfare and Institutions Code or Section 
2056055, shall first consider placement in the regular public school.
21(d) If any dispute arises as to the school placement of a pupil 
22subject to this section, the pupil has the right to remain in his or 
23her school of origin, as defined in subdivision (e) of Section 
2448853.5, pending resolution of the dispute. The dispute shall be 
25resolved in accordance with the existing dispute resolution process 
26available to any pupil served by the local educational agency.
27(e) This section does not supersede other laws that govern pupil 
28expulsion.
29(f) This section does not supersede any other law governing the 
30educational
				  placement in a juvenile court school, as defined by 
31Section 48645.1, of a pupil detained in a county juvenile hall, or 
32committed to a county juvenile ranch, camp, forestry camp, or 
33regional facility.
34(g) Foster children living in emergency shelters, as referenced 
35in the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act (42 
36U.S.C. Sec. 11301 et seq.), may receive educational services at 
37the emergency shelter as necessary for short periods of time for 
38either of the following reasons:
39(1) For health and safety emergencies.
P79   1(2) To provide temporary, special, and supplementary services 
2to meet the child’s unique needs if a decision regarding whether 
3it is in the child’s best interests to attend the school of origin cannot 
4be made promptly, it is not practical to transport the child to the 
5school of origin, and the child
				  would otherwise not receive 
6educational services.
7The educational services may be provided at the shelter pending 
8a determination by the person holding the right regarding the 
9educational placement of the child.
10(h) All educational and school placement decisions shall be 
11made to ensure that the child is placed in the least restrictive 
12educational programs and has access to academic resources, 
13services, and extracurricular and enrichment activities that are 
14available to all pupils. In all instances, educational and school 
15placement decisions shall be based on the best interests of the 
16child.
Section 48853.5 of the Education Code is amended 
18to read:
(a) This section applies to a foster child. “Foster 
20child” means a child who has been removed from his or her home 
21pursuant to Section 309 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, is 
22the subject of a petition filed under Section 300 or 602 of the 
23Welfare and Institutions Code, or has been removed from his or 
24her home and is the subject of a petition filed under Section 300 
25or 602 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
26(b) Each local educational agency shall designate a staff person 
27as the educational liaison for foster children. In a school district 
28that operates a foster children services program pursuant to Chapter 
2911.3 (commencing with Section 42920) of Part 24 of Division 3, 
30the educational liaison shall be affiliated with the local foster 
31children services
				  program. The educational liaison shall do all of 
32the following:
33(1) Ensure and facilitate the proper educational placement, 
34enrollment in school, and checkout from school of foster children.
35(2) Assist foster children when transferring from one school to 
36another school or from one school district to another school district 
37in ensuring proper transfer of credits, records, and grades.
38(c) If so designated by the superintendent of the local educational 
39agency, the educational liaison shall notify a foster child’s attorney 
40and the appropriate representative of the county child welfare 
P80   1agency of pending expulsion proceedings if the decision to 
2recommend expulsion is a discretionary act, pending proceedings 
3to extend a suspension until an expulsion decision is rendered if 
4the decision to recommend expulsion is a
				  discretionary act, and, 
5if the foster child is an individual with exceptional needs, pending 
6manifestation determinations pursuant to Section 1415(k) of Title 
720 of the United States Code if the local educational agency has 
8proposed a change in placement due to an act for which the 
9decision to recommend expulsion is at the discretion of the 
10principal or the district superintendent of schools.
11(d) This section does not grant authority to the educational 
12liaison that supersedes the authority granted under state and federal 
13law to a parent or legal guardian retaining educational rights, a 
14responsible adult appointed by the court to represent the child 
15pursuant to Section 361 or 726 of the Welfare and Institutions 
16Code, a surrogate parent, or a foster parent exercising the authority 
17granted under Section 56055. The role of the educational liaison 
18is advisory with respect to placement decisions and determination 
19of the school of origin.
20(e) (1) At the initial detention or placement, or any subsequent 
21change in placement of a foster child, the local educational agency 
22serving the foster child shall allow the foster child to continue his 
23or her education in the school of origin for the duration of the 
24jurisdiction of the court.
25(2) If the jurisdiction of the court is terminated before the end 
26of an academic year, the local educational agency shall allow a 
27former foster child who is in kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 8, 
28inclusive, to continue his or her education in the school of origin 
29through the duration of the academic school year.
30(3) (A) If the jurisdiction of the court is terminated while a 
31foster child is in high school, the local educational agency shall 
32allow the former foster child to continue his
				  or her education in 
33the school of origin through graduation.
34(B) For purposes of this paragraph, a school district is not 
35required to provide transportation to a former foster child who has 
36an individualized education program that does not require 
37transportation as a related service and who changes residence but 
38remains in his or her school of origin pursuant to this paragraph, 
39unless the individualized education program team determines that 
40transportation is a necessary related service.
P81   1(4) To ensure that the foster child has the benefit of matriculating 
2with his or her peers in accordance with the established feeder 
3patterns of school districts, if the foster child is transitioning 
4between school grade levels, the local educational agency shall 
5allow the foster child to continue in the school district of origin in 
6the same attendance area, or, if the foster child is
				  transitioning to 
7a middle school or high school, and the school designated for 
8matriculation is in another school district, to the school designated 
9for matriculation in that school district.
10(5) Paragraphs (2), (3), and (4) do not require a school district 
11to provide transportation services to allow a foster child to attend 
12a school or school district, unless otherwise required under federal 
13law. This paragraph does not prohibit a school district from, at its 
14discretion, providing transportation services to allow a foster child 
15to attend a school or school district.
16(6) The educational liaison, in consultation with, and with the 
17agreement of, the foster child and the person holding the right to 
18make educational decisions for the foster child, may recommend, 
19in accordance with the foster child’s best interests, that the foster 
20child’s right to attend the school of origin be waived
				  and the foster 
21child be enrolled in a public school that pupils living in the 
22attendance area in which the foster child resides are eligible to 
23attend.
24(7) Before making a recommendation to move a foster child 
25from his or her school of origin, the educational liaison shall 
26provide the foster child and the person holding the right to make 
27educational decisions for the foster child with a written explanation 
28stating the basis for the recommendation and how the 
29recommendation serves the foster child’s best interest.
30(8) (A) If the educational liaison, in consultation with the foster 
31child and the person holding the right to make educational decisions 
32for the foster child, agrees that the best interests of the foster child 
33would best be served by his or her transfer to a school other than 
34the school of origin, the foster child shall immediately be enrolled 
35in the
				  new school.
36(B) The new school shall immediately enroll the foster child 
37even if the foster child has outstanding fees, fines, textbooks, or 
38other items or moneys due to the school last attended or is unable 
39to produce clothing or records normally required for enrollment, 
40such as previous academic records, medical records, including, 
P82   1but not limited to, records or other proof of immunization history 
2pursuant to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 120325) of Part 
32 of Division 105 of the Health and Safety Code, proof of 
4residency, other documentation, or school uniforms.
5(C) Within two business days of the foster child’s request for 
6enrollment, the educational liaison for the new school shall contact 
7the school last attended by the foster child to obtain all academic 
8and other records. The last school attended by the foster child shall 
9provide all required records to the new school
				  regardless of any 
10outstanding fees, fines, textbooks, or other items or moneys owed 
11to the school last attended. The educational liaison for the school 
12last attended shall provide all records to the new school within two 
13business days of receiving the request.
14(9) If a dispute arises regarding the request of a foster child to 
15remain in the school of origin, the foster child has the right to 
16remain in the school of origin pending resolution of the dispute. 
17The dispute shall be resolved in accordance with the existing 
18dispute resolution process available to a pupil served by the local 
19educational agency.
20(10) The local educational agency and the county placing agency 
21are encouraged to collaborate to ensure maximum use of available 
22federal moneys, explore public-private partnerships, and access 
23any other funding sources to promote the well-being of foster 
24children through educational
				  stability.
25(11) It is the intent of the Legislature that this subdivision shall 
26not supersede or exceed other laws governing special education 
27services for eligible foster children.
28(f) For purposes of this section, “school of origin” means the 
29school that the foster child attended when permanently housed or 
30the school in which the foster child was last enrolled. If the school 
31the foster child attended when permanently housed is different 
32from the school in which the foster child was last enrolled, or if 
33there is some other school that the foster child attended with which 
34the foster child is connected and that the foster child attended 
35within the immediately preceding 15 months, the educational 
36liaison, in consultation with, and with the agreement of, the foster 
37child and the person holding the right to make educational decisions 
38for the foster child, shall determine, in the best
				  interests of the 
39foster child, the school that shall be deemed the school of origin.
P83   1(g) This section does not supersede other law governing the 
2educational placements in juvenile court schools, as described in 
3Section 48645.1, by the juvenile court under Section 602 of the 
4Welfare and Institutions Code.
Section 48900 of the Education Code is amended to 
6read:
A pupil shall not be suspended from school or 
8recommended for expulsion, unless the superintendent of the school 
9district or the principal of the school in which the pupil is enrolled 
10determines that the pupil has committed an act as defined pursuant 
11to any of subdivisions (a) to (r), inclusive:
12(a) (1) Caused, attempted to cause, or threatened to cause 
13physical injury to another person.
14(2) Willfully used force or violence upon the person of another, 
15except in self-defense.
16(b) Possessed, sold, or otherwise furnished a firearm, knife, 
17explosive, or other dangerous object, unless, in the case of 
18possession of an object of this type, the
				  pupil had obtained written 
19permission to possess the item from a certificated school employee, 
20which is concurred in by the principal or the designee of the 
21principal.
22(c) Unlawfully possessed, used, sold, or otherwise furnished, 
23or been under the influence of, a controlled substance listed in 
24Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 11053) of Division 10 of the 
25Health and Safety Code, an alcoholic beverage, or an intoxicant 
26of any kind.
27(d) Unlawfully offered, arranged, or negotiated to sell a 
28controlled substance listed in Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 
2911053) of Division 10 of the Health and Safety Code, an alcoholic 
30beverage, or an intoxicant of any kind, and either sold, delivered, 
31or otherwise furnished to a person another liquid, substance, or 
32material and represented the liquid, substance, or material as a 
33controlled substance, alcoholic beverage, or intoxicant.
34(e) Committed or attempted to commit robbery or extortion.
35(f) Caused or attempted to cause damage to school property or 
36private property.
37(g) Stole or attempted to steal school property or private 
38property.
39(h) Possessed or used tobacco, or products containing tobacco 
40or nicotine products, including, but not limited to, cigarettes, cigars, 
P84   1miniature cigars, clove cigarettes, smokeless tobacco, snuff, chew 
2packets, and betel. However, this section does not prohibit use or 
3possession by a pupil of his or her own prescription products.
4(i) Committed an obscene act or engaged in habitual profanity 
5or vulgarity.
6(j) Unlawfully
				  possessed or unlawfully offered, arranged, or 
7negotiated to sell drug paraphernalia, as defined in Section 11014.5 
8of the Health and Safety Code.
9(k) Disrupted school activities or otherwise willfully defied the 
10valid authority of supervisors, teachers, administrators, school 
11officials, or other school personnel engaged in the performance of 
12their duties.
13(l) Knowingly received stolen school property or private 
14property.
15(m) Possessed an imitation firearm. As used in this section, 
16“imitation firearm” means a replica of a firearm that is so 
17substantially similar in physical properties to an existing firearm 
18as to lead a reasonable person to conclude that the replica is a 
19firearm.
20(n) Committed or attempted to commit a sexual assault as 
21defined in
				  Section 261, 266c, 286, 288, 288a, or 289 of the Penal 
22Code or committed a sexual battery as defined in Section 243.4 
23of the Penal Code.
24(o) Harassed, threatened, or intimidated a pupil who is a 
25complaining witness or a witness in a school disciplinary 
26proceeding for purposes of either preventing that pupil from being 
27a witness or retaliating against that pupil for being a witness, or 
28both.
29(p) Unlawfully offered, arranged to sell, negotiated to sell, or 
30sold the prescription drug Soma.
31(q) Engaged in, or attempted to engage in, hazing. For purposes 
32of this subdivision, “hazing” means a method of initiation or 
33preinitiation into a pupil organization or body, whether or not the 
34pupil organization or body is officially recognized by an 
35educational institution, which is likely to cause serious bodily 
36injury or personal
				  degradation or disgrace resulting in physical or 
37mental harm to a former, current, or prospective pupil. For purposes 
38of this subdivision, “hazing” does not include athletic events or 
39school-sanctioned events.
P85   1(r) Engaged in an act of bullying. For purposes of this 
2subdivision, the following terms have the following meanings:
3(1)  “Bullying” means any severe or pervasive physical or verbal 
4act or conduct, including communications made in writing or by 
5means of an electronic act, and including one or more acts 
6committed by a pupil or group of pupils as defined in Section 
748900.2, 48900.3, or 48900.4, directed toward one or more pupils 
8that have or can be reasonably predicted to have the effect of one 
9or more of the following:
10(A) Placing a reasonable pupil or pupils in fear of harm to that 
11pupil’s or those pupils’
				  person or property.
12(B) Causing a reasonable pupil to experience a substantially 
13detrimental effect on his or her physical or mental health.
14(C) Causing a reasonable pupil to experience substantial 
15interference with his or her academic performance.
16(D) Causing a reasonable pupil to experience substantial 
17interference with his or her ability to participate in or benefit from 
18the services, activities, or privileges provided by a school.
19(2) (A) “Electronic act” means the transmission, by means of 
20an electronic device, including, but not limited to, a telephone, 
21wireless telephone, or other wireless communication device, 
22computer, or pager, of a communication, including, but not limited 
23to, any of the following:
24(i) A message, text, sound, or image.
25(ii) A post on a social network Internet Web site, including, but 
26not limited to:
27(I) Posting to or creating a burn page. “Burn page” means an 
28Internet Web site created for the purpose of having one or more 
29of the effects listed in paragraph (1).
30(II) Creating a credible impersonation of another actual pupil 
31for the purpose of having one or more of the effects listed in 
32paragraph (1). “Credible impersonation” means to knowingly and 
33without consent impersonate a pupil for the purpose of bullying 
34the pupil and such that another pupil would reasonably believe, or 
35has reasonably believed, that the pupil was or is the pupil who was 
36impersonated.
37(III) Creating
				  a false profile for the purpose of having one or 
38more of the effects listed in paragraph (1). “False profile” means 
39a profile of a fictitious pupil or a profile using the likeness or 
P86   1attributes of an actual pupil other than the pupil who created the 
2false profile.
3(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (1) and subparagraph (A), an 
4electronic act shall not constitute pervasive conduct solely on the 
5basis that it has been transmitted on the Internet or is currently 
6posted on the Internet.
7(3) “Reasonable pupil” means a pupil, including, but not limited 
8to, an exceptional needs pupil, who exercises average care, skill, 
9and judgment in conduct for a person of his or her age, or for a 
10person of his or her age with his or her exceptional needs.
11(s) A pupil shall not be suspended or expelled for any of the 
12acts enumerated in this
				  section unless the act is related to a school 
13activity or school attendance occurring within a school under the 
14jurisdiction of the superintendent of the school district or principal 
15or occurring within any other school district. A pupil may be 
16suspended or expelled for acts that are enumerated in this section 
17and related to a school activity or school attendance that occur at 
18any time, including, but not limited to, any of the following:
19(1) While on school grounds.
20(2) While going to or coming from school.
21(3) During the lunch period whether on or off the campus.
22(4) During, or while going to or coming from, a 
23school-sponsored activity.
24(t) A pupil who aids or abets, as defined in
				  Section 31 of the 
25Penal Code, the infliction or attempted infliction of physical injury 
26to another person may be subject to suspension, but not expulsion, 
27pursuant to this section, except that a pupil who has been adjudged 
28by a juvenile court to have committed, as an aider and abettor, a 
29crime of physical violence in which the victim suffered great bodily 
30injury or serious bodily injury shall be subject to discipline pursuant 
31to subdivision (a).
32(u) As used in this section, “school property” includes, but is 
33not limited to, electronic files and databases.
34(v) For a pupil subject to discipline under this section, a 
35superintendent of the school district or principal may use his or 
36her discretion to provide alternatives to suspension or expulsion 
37that are age appropriate and designed to address and correct the 
38pupil’s specific misbehavior as specified in Section 48900.5.
P87   1(w) It is the intent of the Legislature that alternatives to 
2suspension or expulsion be imposed against a pupil who is truant, 
3tardy, or otherwise absent from school activities.
Section 48902 of the Education Code is amended to 
5read:
(a) The principal of a school or the principal’s designee 
7shall, before the suspension or expulsion of any pupil, notify the 
8appropriate law enforcement authorities of the county or city in 
9which the school is situated, of any acts of the pupil that may 
10violate Section 245 of the Penal Code.
11(b) The principal of a school or the principal’s designee shall, 
12within one schoolday after suspension or expulsion of any pupil, 
13notify, by telephone or any other appropriate method chosen by 
14the school, the appropriate law enforcement authorities of the 
15county or the school district in which the school is situated of any 
16acts of the pupil that may violate subdivision (c) or (d) of Section 
1748900.
18(c) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), the principal of a school 
19or the principal’s designee shall notify the appropriate law 
20enforcement authorities of the county or city in which the school 
21is located of any acts of a pupil that may involve the possession 
22or sale of narcotics or of a controlled substance or a violation of 
23Section 626.9 or 626.10 of the Penal Code. The principal of a 
24school or the principal’s designee shall report any act specified in 
25paragraph (1) or (5) of subdivision (c) of Section 48915 committed 
26by a pupil or nonpupil on a schoolsite to the city police or county 
27sheriff with jurisdiction over the school and the school security 
28department or the school police department, as applicable.
29(d) A principal, the principal’s designee, or any other person 
30reporting a known or suspected act described in subdivision (a) or 
31(b) is not civilly or criminally liable as a result of making any 
32report authorized by this article
				  unless it can be proven that a false 
33report was made and that the person knew the report was false or 
34the report was made with reckless disregard for the truth or falsity 
35of the report.
36(e) The principal of a school or the principal’s designee reporting 
37a criminal act committed by a schoolage individual with 
38exceptional needs, as defined in Section 56026, shall ensure that 
39copies of the special education and disciplinary records of the pupil 
40are transmitted, as described in Section 1415(k)(6) of Title 20 of 
P88   1the United States Code, for consideration by the appropriate 
2authorities to whom he or she reports the criminal act. Any copies 
3of the pupil’s special education and disciplinary records may be 
4transmitted only to the extent permissible under the federal Family 
5Educational Rights and Privacy Act of 1974 (20 U.S.C. Sec. 1232g 
6et seq.).
Section 48911 of the Education Code is amended to 
8read:
(a) The principal of the school, the principal’s designee, 
10or the district superintendent of schools may suspend a pupil from 
11the school for any of the reasons enumerated in Section 48900, 
12and pursuant to Section 48900.5, for no more than five consecutive 
13schooldays.
14(b) Suspension by the principal, the principal’s designee, or the 
15district superintendent of schools shall be preceded by an informal 
16conference conducted by the principal, the principal’s designee, 
17or the district superintendent of schools between the pupil and, 
18whenever practicable, the teacher, supervisor, or school employee 
19who referred the pupil to the principal, the principal’s designee, 
20or the district superintendent of schools. At the conference, the 
21pupil shall be informed of the reason for the
				  disciplinary action 
22and the evidence against him or her, and shall be given the 
23opportunity to present his or her version and evidence in his or her 
24defense.
25(c) A principal, the principal’s designee, or the district 
26superintendent of schools may suspend a pupil without affording 
27the pupil an opportunity for a conference only if the principal, the 
28principal’s designee, or the district superintendent of schools 
29determines that an emergency situation exists. “Emergency 
30situation,” as used in this article, means a situation determined by 
31the principal, the principal’s designee, or the district superintendent 
32of schools to constitute a clear and present danger to the life, safety, 
33or health of pupils or school personnel. If a pupil is suspended 
34without a conference before suspension, both the parent and the 
35pupil shall be notified of the pupil’s right to a conference and the 
36pupil’s right to return to school for the purpose of a conference. 
37The
				  conference shall be held within two schooldays, unless the 
38pupil waives this right or is physically unable to attend for any 
39reason, including, but not limited to, incarceration or 
P89   1hospitalization. The conference shall then be held as soon as the 
2pupil is physically able to return to school for the conference.
3(d) At the time of suspension, a school employee shall make a 
4reasonable effort to contact the pupil’s parent or guardian in person 
5or by telephone. If a pupil is suspended from school, the parent or 
6guardian shall be notified in writing of the suspension.
7(e) A school employee shall report the suspension of the pupil, 
8including the cause for the suspension, to the governing board of 
9the school district or to the district superintendent of schools in 
10accordance with the regulations of the governing board of the 
11school district.
12(f) The parent or guardian of a pupil shall respond without delay 
13to a request from school officials to attend a conference regarding 
14his or her child’s behavior.
15No penalties shall be imposed on a pupil for failure of the pupil’s 
16parent or guardian to attend a conference with school officials. 
17Reinstatement of the suspended pupil shall not be contingent upon 
18attendance by the pupil’s parent or guardian at the conference.
19(g) In a case where expulsion from a school or suspension for 
20the balance of the semester from continuation school is being 
21processed by the governing board of the school district, the district 
22superintendent of schools or other person designated by the district 
23superintendent of schools in writing may extend the suspension 
24until the governing board of the school district has rendered a 
25decision in the action. However, an
				  extension may be granted only 
26if the district superintendent of schools or the district 
27superintendent’s designee has determined, following a meeting in 
28which the pupil and the pupil’s parent or guardian are invited to 
29participate, that the presence of the pupil at the school or in an 
30alternative school placement would cause a danger to persons or 
31property or a threat of disrupting the instructional process. If the 
32pupil is a foster child, as defined in Section 48853.5, the district 
33superintendent of schools or the district superintendent’s designee, 
34including, but not limited to, the educational liaison for the school 
35district, shall also invite the pupil’s attorney and an appropriate 
36representative of the county child welfare agency to participate in 
37the meeting. If the pupil or the pupil’s parent or guardian has 
38requested a meeting to challenge the original suspension pursuant 
39to Section 48914, the purpose of the meeting shall be to decide 
40upon the extension of the suspension order under this section and
P90   1
				  may be held in conjunction with the initial meeting on the merits 
2of the suspension.
3(h) For purposes of this section, a “principal’s designee” is one 
4or more administrators at the schoolsite specifically designated by 
5the principal, in writing, to assist with disciplinary procedures.
6In the event that there is not an administrator in addition to the 
7principal at the schoolsite, a certificated person at the schoolsite 
8may be specifically designated by the principal, in writing, as a 
9“principal’s designee,” to assist with disciplinary procedures. The 
10principal may designate only one person at a time as the principal’s 
11primary designee for the school year.
12An additional person meeting the requirements of this 
13subdivision may be designated by the principal, in writing, to act 
14for purposes of this article when both the principal and the 
15principal’s primary
				  designee are absent from the schoolsite. The 
16name of the person, and the names of any person or persons 
17designated as “principal’s designee,” shall be on file in the 
18principal’s office.
19This section is not an exception to, nor does it place any 
20limitation on, Section 48903.
Section 49076 of the Education Code is amended to 
22read:
(a) A school district shall not permit access to pupil 
24records to a person without written parental consent or under 
25judicial order except as set forth in this section and as permitted 
26by Part 99 (commencing with Section 99.1) of Title 34 of the Code 
27of Federal Regulations.
28(1) Access to those particular records relevant to the legitimate 
29educational interests of the requester shall be permitted to the 
30following:
31(A) School officials and employees of the school district, 
32members of a school attendance review board appointed pursuant 
33to Section 48321 who are authorized representatives of the school 
34district, and any volunteer aide, 18 years of age or older, who has 
35been investigated, selected, and
				  trained by a school attendance 
36review board for the purpose of providing followup services to 
37pupils referred to the school attendance review board, provided 
38that the person has a legitimate educational interest to inspect a 
39record.
P91   1(B) Officials and employees of other public schools or school 
2systems, including local, county, or state correctional facilities 
3where educational programs leading to high school graduation are 
4provided or where the pupil intends to or is directed to enroll, 
5subject to the rights of parents as provided in Section 49068.
6(C) Authorized representatives of the Comptroller General of 
7the United States, the Secretary of Education, and state and local 
8educational authorities, or the United States Department of 
9Education’s Office for Civil Rights, if the information is necessary 
10to audit or evaluate a state or federally supported education 
11program, or in
				  connection with the enforcement of, or compliance 
12with, the federal legal requirements that relate to such a program. 
13Records released pursuant to this subparagraph shall comply with 
14the requirements of Section 99.35 of Title 34 of the Code of Federal 
15Regulations.
16(D) Other state and local officials to the extent that information 
17is specifically required to be reported pursuant to state law adopted 
18before November 19, 1974.
19(E) Parents of a pupil 18 years of age or older who is a 
20dependent as defined in Section 152 of Title 26 of the United States 
21Code.
22(F) A pupil 16 years of age or older or having completed the 
2310th grade who requests access.
24(G) A district attorney who is participating in or conducting a 
25truancy mediation program pursuant to Section
				  48263.5, or Section 
26601.3 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or participating in the 
27presentation of evidence in a truancy petition pursuant to Section 
28681 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
29(H) A district attorney’s office for consideration against a parent 
30or guardian for failure to comply with the Compulsory Education 
31Law (Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 48200)) or with 
32Compulsory Continuation Education (Chapter 3 (commencing 
33with Section 48400)).
34(I) (i) A probation officer, district attorney, or counsel of record 
35for a minor for purposes of conducting a criminal investigation or 
36an investigation in regards to declaring a person a ward of the court 
37or involving a violation of a condition of probation.
38(ii) For purposes of this subparagraph, a probation officer, 
39district attorney,
				  and counsel of record for a minor shall be deemed 
P92   1to be local officials for purposes of Section 99.31(a)(5)(i) of Title 
234 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
3(iii) Pupil records obtained pursuant to this subparagraph shall 
4be subject to the evidentiary rules described in Section 701 of the 
5Welfare and Institutions Code.
6(J) A judge or probation officer for the purpose of conducting 
7a truancy mediation program for a pupil, or for purposes of 
8presenting evidence in a truancy petition pursuant to Section 681 
9of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The judge or probation officer 
10shall certify in writing to the school district that the information 
11will be used only for truancy purposes. A school district releasing 
12pupil information to a judge or probation officer pursuant to this 
13subparagraph shall inform, or provide written notification to, the 
14parent or guardian of the pupil within 24
				  hours of the release of 
15the information.
16(K) A county placing agency when acting as an authorized 
17representative of a state or local educational agency pursuant to 
18subparagraph (C). School districts, county offices of education, 
19and county placing agencies may develop cooperative agreements 
20to facilitate confidential access to and exchange of the pupil 
21information by email, facsimile, electronic format, or other secure 
22means, provided the agreement complies with the requirements 
23set forth in Section 99.35 of Title 34 of the Code of Federal 
24Regulations.
25(2) School districts may release information from pupil records 
26to the following:
27(A) Appropriate persons in connection with an emergency if 
28the knowledge of the information is necessary to protect the health 
29or safety of a pupil or other persons. Schools or school
				  districts 
30releasing information pursuant to this subparagraph shall comply 
31with the requirements set forth in Section 99.31(a)(5) of Title 34 
32of the Code of Federal Regulations.
33(B) Agencies or organizations in connection with the application 
34of a pupil for, or receipt of, financial aid. However, information 
35permitting the personal identification of a pupil or his or her parents 
36may be disclosed only as may be necessary for purposes as to 
37determine the eligibility of the pupil for financial aid, to determine 
38the amount of the financial aid, to determine the conditions which 
39will be imposed regarding the financial aid, or to enforce the terms 
40or conditions of the financial aid.
P93   1(C) Pursuant to Section 99.37 of Title 34 of the Code of Federal 
2Regulations, a county elections official, for the purpose of 
3identifying pupils eligible to register to vote, or for conducting 
4programs to
				  offer pupils an opportunity to register to vote. The 
5information shall not be used for any other purpose or given or 
6transferred to any other person or agency.
7(D) Accrediting associations in order to carry out their 
8accrediting functions.
9(E) Organizations conducting studies for, or on behalf of, 
10educational agencies or institutions for the purpose of developing, 
11validating, or administering predictive tests, administering student 
12aid programs, and improving instruction, if the studies are 
13conducted in a manner that will not permit the personal 
14identification of pupils or their parents by persons other than 
15representatives of the organizations, the information will be 
16destroyed when no longer needed for the purpose for which it is 
17obtained, and the organization enters into a written agreement with 
18the educational agency or institution that complies with Section 
1999.31(a)(6) of
				  Title 34 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
20(F) Officials and employees of private schools or school systems 
21where the pupil is enrolled or intends to enroll, subject to the rights 
22of parents as provided in Section 49068 and in compliance with 
23the requirements in Section 99.34 of Title 34 of the Code of Federal 
24Regulations. This information shall be in addition to the pupil’s 
25permanent record transferred pursuant to Section 49068.
26(G) (i) A contractor or consultant with a legitimate educational 
27interest who has a formal written agreement or contract with the 
28school district regarding the provision of outsourced institutional 
29services or functions by the contractor or consultant.
30(ii) Notwithstanding Section 99.31(a)(1)(i)(B) of Title 34 of the 
31Code of Federal Regulations, a disclosure pursuant
				  to this 
32subparagraph shall not be permitted to a volunteer or other party.
33(3) A person, persons, agency, or organization permitted access 
34to pupil records pursuant to this section shall not permit access to 
35any information obtained from those records by another person, 
36persons, agency, or organization, except for allowable exceptions 
37contained within the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy 
38Act of 2001 (20 U.S.C. Sec. 1232g) and state law, without the 
39written consent of the pupil’s parent. This paragraph does not 
40require prior parental consent when information obtained pursuant 
P94   1to this section is shared with other persons within the educational 
2institution, agency, or organization obtaining access, so long as 
3those persons have a legitimate educational interest in the 
4information pursuant to Section 99.31(a)(1) of Title 34 of the Code 
5of Federal Regulations.
6(4) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a school district, 
7including a county office of education or county superintendent 
8of schools, may participate in an interagency data information 
9system that permits access to a computerized database system 
10within and between governmental agencies or school districts as 
11to information or records that are nonprivileged, and where release 
12is authorized as to the requesting agency under state or federal law 
13or regulation, if each of the following requirements are met:
14(A) Each agency and school district shall develop security 
15procedures or devices by which unauthorized personnel cannot 
16access data contained in the system.
17(B) Each agency and school district shall develop procedures 
18or devices to secure privileged or confidential data from 
19unauthorized disclosure.
20(C) Each school district shall comply with the access log 
21requirements of Section 49064.
22(D) The right of access granted shall not include the right to 
23add, delete, or alter data without the written permission of the 
24agency holding the data.
25(E) An agency or school district shall not make public or 
26otherwise release information on an individual contained in the 
27database if the information is protected from disclosure or release 
28as to the requesting agency by state or federal law or regulation.
29(b) The officials and authorities to whom pupil records are 
30disclosed pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 48902 and 
31subparagraph (I) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) shall certify 
32in writing to the disclosing school district that the information 
33shall not be disclosed to another party, except as provided
				  under 
34the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act of 2001 
35(20 U.S.C. Sec. 1232g) and state law, without the prior written 
36consent of the parent of the pupil or the person identified as the 
37holder of the pupil’s educational rights.
38(c) (1) Any person or party who is not permitted access to pupil 
39records pursuant to subdivision (a) or (b) may request access to 
40pupil records as provided for in paragraph (2).
P95   1(2) A local educational agency or other person or party who has 
2received pupil records, or information from pupil records, may 
3release the records or information to a person or party identified 
4in paragraph (1) without the consent of the pupil’s parent or 
5guardian pursuant to Section 99.31(b) of Title 34 of the Code of 
6Federal Regulations, if the records or information are deidentified, 
7which requires the removal of all personally identifiable
8
				  information, provided that the disclosing local educational agency 
9or other person or party has made a reasonable determination that 
10a pupil’s identity is not personally identifiable, whether through 
11single or multiple releases, and has taken into account other 
12pertinent reasonably available information.
Section 49548 of the Education Code is amended to 
14read:
(a) The state board, in order to effect compliance with 
16legislative findings expressed in Section 49547, shall restrict the 
17criteria for the issuance of waivers from the requirements of Section 
1849550 to feed children during a summer school session. A waiver 
19shall be granted for a period not to exceed one year if either of the 
20following conditions exists:
21(1) (A) A summer school session serving pupils enrolled in 
22elementary school, as defined in clause (iii), shall be granted a 
23waiver if a Summer Food Service Program for Children site is 
24available within one-half mile of the schoolsite and either of the 
25following conditions exists:
26(i) The hours of operation of the Summer Food
				  Service Program 
27for Children site commence no later than one-half hour after the 
28completion of the summer school session day.
29(ii) The hours of operation of the Summer Food Service Program 
30for Children site conclude no earlier than one hour after the 
31completion of the summer school session day.
32(iii) For purposes of this subdivision, “elementary school” means 
33a public school that maintains kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 
348, inclusive.
35(B) A summer school session serving pupils enrolled in middle 
36school, junior high school, or high school shall be granted a waiver 
37if a Summer Food Service Program for Children site is available 
38within one mile of the schoolsite and either of the following 
39conditions exists:
P96   1(i) The hours of operation of the Summer Food
				  Service Program 
2for Children site commence no later than one-half hour after the 
3completion of the summer school session day.
4(ii) The hours of operation of the Summer Food Service Program 
5for Children site conclude no earlier than one hour after the 
6completion of the summer school session day.
7(2) (A) Serving meals during the summer school session would 
8result in a financial loss to the school district, documented in a 
9financial analysis performed by the school district, in an amount 
10equal to one-third of net cash resources, as defined in Section 210.2 
11of Part 210 of Title 7 of the Code of Federal Regulations, which, 
12for purposes of this article, shall exclude funds that are 
13encumbered. If there are no net cash resources, an amount equal 
14to the operating costs of one month as averaged over the summer 
15school sessions.
16(B) The financial analysis required by subparagraph (A) shall 
17include a projection of future meal program participation based 
18on either of the following:
19(i) Commencement of a meal service period after the 
20commencement of the summer school session day and conclusion 
21of a meal service period before the completion of the summer 
22school session day.
23(ii) Operation of a schoolsite as an open Summer Seamless 
24Option or a Summer Food Service Program for Children site, and 
25providing adequate notification thereof, including flyers and 
26banners, in order to fulfill community needs under the Summer 
27Food Service Program for Children (7 C.F.R. 225.14(d)(3)).
28(3) The entire summer school day is two hours or less in 
29duration.
30(b) The state board and the Superintendent shall provide 
31leadership to encourage and support schools and public agencies 
32to participate in the Summer Food Service Program for Children, 
33consistent with the intent of Section 49504.
34(c) An application for a waiver shall be submitted no later than 
3560 days before the last regular meeting of the state board before 
36the commencement of the summer school session for which the 
37waiver is sought.
Section 52052 of the Education Code is amended to 
39read:
(a) (1) The Superintendent, with approval of the state 
2board, shall develop an Academic Performance Index (API) to 
3measure the performance of schools, especially the academic 
4performance of pupils.
5(2) A school shall demonstrate comparable improvement in 
6academic achievement as measured by the API by all numerically 
7significant pupil subgroups at the school, including:
8(A) Ethnic subgroups.
9(B) Socioeconomically disadvantaged pupils.
10(C) English learners.
11(D) Pupils with disabilities.
12(3) (A) For purposes of this section, a numerically significant 
13pupil subgroup is one that meets both of the following criteria:
14(i) The subgroup consists of at least 50 pupils, each of whom 
15has a valid test score.
16(ii) The subgroup constitutes at least 15 percent of the total 
17population of pupils at a school who have valid test scores.
18(B) If a subgroup does not constitute 15 percent of the total 
19population of pupils at a school who have valid test scores, the 
20subgroup may constitute a numerically significant pupil subgroup 
21if it has at least 100 valid test scores.
22(C) For a school with an API score that is based on no fewer 
23than 11 and no more than 99 pupils with valid
				  test scores, 
24numerically significant pupil subgroups shall be defined by the 
25Superintendent, with approval by the state board.
26(4) (A) The API shall consist of a variety of indicators currently 
27reported to the department, including, but not limited to, the results 
28of the achievement test administered pursuant to Section 60640, 
29attendance rates for pupils in elementary schools, middle schools, 
30and secondary schools, and the graduation rates for pupils in 
31secondary schools.
32(B) The Superintendent, with the approval of the state board, 
33may also incorporate into the API the rates at which pupils 
34successfully promote from one grade to the next in middle school 
35and high school, and successfully matriculate from middle school 
36to high school.
37(C) Graduation rates for pupils in secondary schools shall be
38
				  calculated for the API as follows:
39(i) Four-year graduation rates shall be calculated by taking the 
40number of pupils who graduated on time for the current school 
P98   1year, which is considered to be three school years after the pupils 
2entered grade 9 for the first time, and dividing that number by the 
3total calculated in clause (ii).
4(ii) The number of pupils entering grade 9 for the first time in 
5the school year three school years before the current school year, 
6plus the number of pupils who transferred into the class graduating 
7at the end of the current school year between the school year that 
8was three school years before the current school year and the date 
9of graduation, less the number of pupils who transferred out of the 
10school between the school year that was three school years before 
11the current school year and the date of graduation who were 
12members of the class that is
				  graduating at the end of the current 
13school year.
14(iii) Five-year graduation rates shall be calculated by taking the 
15number of pupils who graduated on time for the current school 
16year, which is considered to be four school years after the pupils 
17entered grade 9 for the first time, and dividing that number by the 
18total calculated in clause (iv).
19(iv) The number of pupils entering grade 9 for the first time in 
20the school year four years before the current school year, plus the 
21number of pupils who transferred into the class graduating at the 
22end of the current school year between the school year that was 
23four school years before the current school year and the date of 
24graduation, less the number of pupils who transferred out of the 
25school between the school year that was four years before the 
26current school year and the date of graduation who were members 
27of the class that is
				  graduating at the end of the current school year.
28(v) Six-year graduation rates shall be calculated by taking the 
29number of pupils who graduated on time for the current school 
30year, which is considered to be five school years after the pupils 
31entered grade 9 for the first time, and dividing that number by the 
32total calculated in clause (vi).
33(vi) The number of pupils entering grade 9 for the first time in 
34the school year five years before the current school year, plus the 
35number of pupils who transferred into the class graduating at the 
36end of the current school year between the school year that was 
37five school years before the current school year and the date of 
38graduation, less the number of pupils who transferred out of the 
39school between the school year that was five years before the 
P99   1current school year and the date of graduation who were members 
2of the class that is
				  graduating at the end of the current school year.
3(D) The inclusion of five- and six-year graduation rates for 
4pupils in secondary schools shall meet the following requirements:
5(i) Schools shall be granted one-half the credit in their API 
6scores for graduating pupils in five years that they are granted for 
7graduating pupils in four years.
8(ii) Schools shall be granted one-quarter the credit in their API 
9scores for graduating pupils in six years that they are granted for 
10graduating pupils in four years.
11(iii) Notwithstanding clauses (i) and (ii), schools shall be granted 
12full credit in their API scores for graduating in five or six years a 
13pupil with disabilities who graduates in accordance with his or her 
14individualized education program.
15(E) The pupil data collected for the API that comes from the 
16achievement test administered pursuant to Section 60640 and the 
17high school exit examination administered pursuant to Section 
1860851, when fully implemented, shall be disaggregated by special 
19education status, English learners, socioeconomic status, gender, 
20and ethnic group. Only the test scores of pupils who were counted 
21as part of the enrollment in the annual data collection of the 
22California Basic Educational Data System for the current fiscal 
23year and who were continuously enrolled during that year may be 
24included in the test result reports in the API score of the school.
25(F) (i) Commencing with the baseline API calculation in 2016, 
26and for each year thereafter, results of the achievement test and 
27other tests specified in subdivision (b) shall constitute no more 
28than 60 percent of the value of the
				  index for secondary schools.
29(ii)  In addition to the elements required by this paragraph, the 
30Superintendent, with approval of the state board, may incorporate 
31into the index for secondary schools valid, reliable, and stable 
32measures of pupil preparedness for postsecondary education and 
33career.
34(G) Results of the achievement test and other tests specified in 
35subdivision (b) shall constitute at least 60 percent of the value of 
36the index for primary schools and middle schools.
37(H) It is the intent of the Legislature that the state’s system of 
38public school accountability be more closely aligned with both the 
39public’s expectations for public education and the workforce needs 
40of the state’s economy. It is therefore necessary that the 
P100  1accountability system evolve beyond its narrow focus on pupil
				  test 
2scores to encompass other valuable information about school 
3performance, including, but not limited to, pupil preparedness for 
4college and career, as well as the high school graduation rates 
5already required by law.
6(I) The Superintendent shall annually determine the accuracy 
7of the graduation rate data. Notwithstanding any other law, 
8graduation rates for pupils in dropout recovery high schools shall 
9not be included in the API. For purposes of this subparagraph, 
10“dropout recovery high school” means a high school in which 50 
11percent or more of its pupils have been designated as dropouts 
12pursuant to the exit/withdrawal codes developed by the department 
13or left a school and were not otherwise enrolled in a school for a 
14period of at least 180 days.
15(J) To complement the API, the Superintendent, with the 
16approval of the state board, may develop and implement a program 
17of school
				  quality review that features locally convened panels to 
18visit schools, observe teachers, interview pupils, and examine pupil 
19work, if an appropriation for this purpose is made in the annual 
20Budget Act.
21(K) The Superintendent shall annually provide to local 
22educational agencies and the public a transparent and 
23understandable explanation of the individual components of the 
24API and their relative values within the API.
25(L) An additional element chosen by the Superintendent and 
26the state board for inclusion in the API pursuant to this paragraph 
27shall not be incorporated into the API until at least one full school 
28year after the state board’s decision to include the element into the 
29API.
30(b) Pupil scores from the following tests, when available and 
31when found to be valid and reliable for this purpose, shall be
32
				  incorporated into the API:
33(1) The standards-based achievement tests provided for in 
34Section 60642.5.
35(2) The high school exit examination.
36(c) Based on the API, the Superintendent shall develop, and the 
37state board shall adopt, expected annual percentage growth targets 
38for all schools based on their API baseline score from the previous 
39year. Schools are expected to meet these growth targets through 
40effective allocation of available resources. For schools below the 
P101  1statewide API performance target adopted by the state board 
2pursuant to subdivision (d), the minimum annual percentage growth 
3target shall be 5 percent of the difference between the actual API 
4score of a school and the statewide API performance target, or one 
5API point, whichever is greater. Schools at or above the statewide 
6API performance target shall
				  have, as their growth target, 
7maintenance of their API score above the statewide API 
8performance target. However, the state board may set differential 
9growth targets based on grade level of instruction and may set 
10higher growth targets for the lowest performing schools because 
11they have the greatest room for improvement. To meet its growth 
12target, a school shall demonstrate that the annual growth in its API 
13is equal to or more than its schoolwide annual percentage growth 
14target and that all numerically significant pupil subgroups, as 
15defined in subdivision (a), are making comparable improvement.
16(d) Upon adoption of state performance standards by the state 
17board, the Superintendent shall recommend, and the state board 
18shall adopt, a statewide API performance target that includes 
19consideration of performance standards and represents the 
20proficiency level required to meet the state performance target. 
21When the API is fully developed, schools, at
				  a minimum, shall 
22meet their annual API growth targets to be eligible for the 
23Governor’s Performance Award Program as set forth in Section 
2452057. The state board may establish additional criteria that schools 
25must meet to be eligible for the Governor’s Performance Award 
26Program.
27(e) (1) A school with 11 to 99 pupils with valid test scores shall 
28receive an API score with an asterisk that indicates less statistical 
29certainty than API scores based on 100 or more test scores.
30(2) A school annually shall receive an API score, unless the 
31Superintendent determines that an API score would be an invalid 
32measure of the performance of the school for one or more of the 
33following reasons:
34(A) Irregularities in testing procedures occurred.
35(B) The data used to calculate the API score of the school are 
36not representative of the pupil population at the school.
37(C) Significant demographic changes in the pupil population 
38render year-to-year comparisons of pupil performance invalid.
39(D) The department discovers or receives information indicating 
40that the integrity of the API score has been compromised.
P102  1(E) Insufficient pupil participation in the assessments included 
2in the API.
3(3) If a school has fewer than 100 pupils with valid test scores, 
4the calculation of the API or adequate yearly progress pursuant to 
5the federal No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 (20 U.S.C. Sec. 6301 
6et seq.) and federal regulations may be calculated over more than 
7one annual administration of the tests
				  administered pursuant to 
8Section 60640 and the high school exit examination administered 
9pursuant to Section 60851, consistent with regulations adopted by 
10the state board.
11(f) Only schools with 100 or more test scores contributing to 
12the API may be included in the API rankings.
13(g) The Superintendent, with the approval of the state board, 
14shall develop an alternative accountability system for schools under 
15the jurisdiction of a county board of education or a county 
16superintendent of schools, community day schools, nonpublic, 
17nonsectarian schools pursuant to Section 56366, and alternative 
18schools serving high-risk pupils, including continuation high 
19schools and opportunity schools. Schools in the alternative 
20accountability system may receive an API score, but shall not be 
21included in the API rankings.
Section 60200.8 of the Education Code is amended 
23to read:
(a) Notwithstanding Section 60200.7, the state board 
25may consider the adoption of a revised curriculum framework and 
26evaluation criteria for instructional materials in history-social 
27science.
28(b) The department shall conduct work necessary to revise the 
29curriculum framework and evaluation criteria for instructional 
30materials in history-social science only after it has completed work 
31related to the development of curriculum frameworks for the 
32common core academic content standards pursuant to Section 
3360207.
Section 60209 of the Education Code is amended to 
35read:
For purposes of conducting an adoption of basic 
37instructional materials for mathematics pursuant to Section 60207, 
38all of the following shall apply:
39(a) The department shall provide notice, pursuant to subdivision 
40(b), to all publishers or manufacturers known to produce basic 
P103  1instructional materials in that subject, post an appropriate notice 
2on the Internet Web site of the department, and take other 
3reasonable measures to ensure that appropriate notice is widely 
4circulated to potentially interested publishers and manufacturers.
5(b) The notice shall specify that each publisher or manufacturer 
6choosing to participate in the adoption shall be assessed a fee based 
7on the number of programs the publisher or manufacturer
				  indicates 
8will be submitted for review and the number of grade levels 
9proposed to be covered by each program.
10(c) The fee assessed pursuant to subdivision (d) shall be in an 
11amount that does not exceed the reasonable costs to the department 
12in conducting the adoption process. The department shall take 
13reasonable steps to limit costs of the adoption and to keep the fee 
14modest.
15(d) The department, before incurring substantial costs for the 
16adoption, shall require that a publisher or manufacturer that wishes 
17to participate in the adoption first declare the intent to submit one 
18or more specific programs for adoption and specify the specific 
19grade levels to be covered by each program.
20(1) After a publisher or manufacturer declares the intent to 
21submit one or more programs and the grade levels to be covered 
22by each
				  program, the department shall assess a fee that shall be 
23payable by the publisher or manufacturer even if the publisher or 
24manufacturer subsequently chooses to withdraw a program or 
25reduce the number of grade levels covered.
26(2) A submission by a publisher or manufacturer shall not be 
27reviewed for purposes of adoption until the fee assessed has been 
28paid in full.
29(e) (1) Upon the request of a small publisher or small 
30manufacturer, the state board may reduce the fee for participation 
31in the adoption.
32(2) For purposes of this section, “small publisher” and “small 
33manufacturer” mean an independently owned or operated publisher 
34or manufacturer that is not dominant in its field of operation and 
35that, together with its affiliates, has 100 or fewer employees, and 
36has average annual gross receipts of
				  ten million dollars 
37($10,000,000) or less over the previous three years.
38(f) If the department determines that there is little or no interest 
39in participating in an adoption by publishers and manufacturers, 
40the department shall recommend to the state board whether or not 
P104  1the adoption shall be conducted, and the state board may choose 
2not to conduct the adoption.
3(g) Revenue derived from fees assessed pursuant to subdivision 
4(d) shall be budgeted as reimbursements and subject to review 
5through the annual budget process, and may be used to pay for 
6costs associated with any adoption and for any costs associated 
7with the review of instructional materials, including reimbursement 
8of substitute costs for teacher reviewers and may be used to cover 
9stipends for content review experts.
Section 60605.87 of the Education Code is amended 
11to read:
(a) The department shall recommend, and the state 
13board shall approve, evaluation criteria to guide the development 
14and review of supplemental instructional materials for English 
15learners.
16(b) Notwithstanding any other law, and on a one-time basis, the 
17department, on or before March 1, 2014, shall develop a list of 
18supplemental instructional materials for beginning through 
19advanced levels of proficiency for use in kindergarten and grades 
201 to 8, inclusive, that are aligned with the revised English language 
21development standards adopted pursuant to Section 60811.3. The 
22supplemental instructional materials shall provide a bridge between 
23the current English language development standards and the revised 
24English language development standards pursuant to Section
25
				  60811.3 with the purpose of ensuring the supplemental instructional 
26materials address the unique features of the English language 
27development standards and remain consistent with the relevant 
28elements of the evaluation criteria for English language arts 
29supplemental instructional materials adopted pursuant to Section 
3060605.86.
31(c) (1) The department shall recommend, and the state board 
32shall approve, content review experts to review, in an open and 
33transparent process, supplemental instructional materials submitted 
34for approval in the subject area of English language development.
35(2) The majority of content review experts approved pursuant 
36to paragraph (1) shall be elementary and secondary schoolteachers 
37who are credentialed in English language arts, possess the 
38appropriate state English learner authorization, and have five years 
39of classroom experience
				  instructing English learners. The content 
40review experts also shall include appropriate persons possessing 
P105  1English learner expertise from postsecondary educational 
2institutions and school and school district curriculum administrators 
3possessing English learner expertise, and other persons who are 
4knowledgeable in English language arts and English language 
5development.
6(d) (1) On or before June 30, 2014, the state board shall do the 
7following:
8(A) Approve all, or a portion, of the list of supplemental 
9instructional materials proposed by the department, taking into 
10consideration the review of the content review experts and any 
11other relevant information, as appropriate.
12(B) Reject all, or a portion, of the list of supplemental 
13instructional materials proposed by the department, taking into
14
				  consideration the review of the content review experts and any 
15other relevant information, as appropriate.
16(2) If the state board rejects all, or a portion, of the list of 
17supplemental instructional materials proposed by the department, 
18or adds an item to the list, the state board, in a public meeting held 
19pursuant to the Bagley-Keene Open Meeting Act (Article 9 
20(commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of 
21Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code), shall provide 
22written reasons for the removal or addition of an item on the list. 
23The state board shall not approve a supplemental instructional 
24material it adds to the list at the same time it provides its written 
25reason for adding the material; instead, the state board shall 
26approve the added material at a subsequent public meeting.
27(e) (1) The governing board of a school district and a county
28
				  board of education may approve supplemental instructional 
29materials other than those approved by the state board pursuant to 
30subdivision (d) if the governing board of a school district or county 
31board of education determines that other supplemental instructional 
32materials are aligned with the revised English language 
33development standards adopted pursuant to Section 60811.3 and 
34meet the needs of pupils of the district who are English learners. 
35The governing board of a school district or the county board of 
36education may only approve supplemental instructional materials 
37that comply with all of the following:
38(A) The evaluation criteria approved pursuant to subdivision 
39(a).
40(B) Section 60226.
P106 1(C) Subdivision (h).
2(D) Article 4 (commencing with Section 60060) of Chapter 1.
3(2) (A) A supplemental instructional material approved by a 
4governing board of a school district or county board of education 
5pursuant to this subdivision that is in the subject area of English 
6language development shall be reviewed by content review experts 
7chosen by the governing board.
8(B) The majority of the content review experts chosen pursuant 
9to subparagraph (A) shall be elementary and secondary 
10schoolteachers who are credentialed in English language arts, 
11possess the appropriate state English learner authorization, and 
12have five years of classroom experience instructing English 
13learners.
14(C) The content review experts also shall include appropriate 
15persons possessing English learner expertise from postsecondary 
16educational institutions and school and school district
				  curriculum 
17administrators possessing English learner expertise, and other 
18persons who are knowledgeable in English language arts and 
19English language development.
20(f) Publishers choosing to submit supplemental instructional 
21materials for approval by the state board shall submit standards 
22maps.
23(g) (1) Before approving supplemental instructional materials 
24pursuant to this section, the state board shall review those 
25instructional materials for academic content, social content, and 
26instructional support to teachers and pupils. Supplemental 
27instructional materials approved by the state board pursuant to this 
28section shall meet required program criteria for grade-level 
29programs and shall include materials for use by teachers.
30(2) Before approving supplemental instructional materials 
31pursuant to this
				  section, the governing board of a school district 
32or county board of education shall review those instructional 
33materials for academic content and instructional support to teachers 
34and pupils who are English learners. Supplemental instructional 
35materials approved by the governing board of a school district or 
36county board of education pursuant to this section shall meet 
37required program criteria for grade-level programs and shall include 
38materials for use by teachers.
P107  1(h) Supplemental instructional materials approved pursuant to 
2this section shall comply with the social content review 
3requirements pursuant to Section 60050.
4(i) The department shall maintain on its Internet Web site the 
5list of supplemental instructional materials approved by the state 
6board pursuant to subdivision (d).
7(j) This
				  section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2014, and, 
8as of July 1, 2015, is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that 
9becomes operative on or before July 1, 2015, deletes or extends 
10the dates on which it becomes inoperative and is repealed.
Section 60852.1 of the Education Code is amended 
12to read:
(a) The Superintendent shall recommend, and the 
14state board shall select, members of a panel that shall convene to 
15make recommendations regarding alternative means for eligible 
16pupils with disabilities to demonstrate that they have achieved the 
17same level of academic achievement in the content standards in 
18English language arts or mathematics, or both, required for passage 
19of the high school exit examination.
20(1) The panel shall be composed of educators and other 
21individuals who have experience with the population of pupils 
22with disabilities eligible for alternative means of demonstrating 
23academic achievement, as defined in Section 60852.2, and 
24educators and other individuals who have expertise with multiple 
25forms of assessment. The panel shall consult with
				  experts in other 
26states that offer alternative means for pupils with disabilities to 
27demonstrate academic achievement. A majority of the panel shall 
28be classroom teachers.
29(2) The panel shall make findings and recommendations 
30regarding all of the following:
31(A) Specific options for alternative assessments, submission of 
32evidence, or other alternative means by which eligible pupils with 
33disabilities may demonstrate that they have achieved the same 
34level of academic achievement in the content standards in English 
35language arts or mathematics, or both, required for passage of the 
36high school exit examination.
37(B) Scoring or other evaluation systems designed to ensure that 
38the eligible pupil with a disability has achieved the same 
39competence in the content standards required for passage of the 
40high school exit
				  examination.
P108  1(C) Processes to ensure that the form, content, and scoring of 
2assessments, evidence, or other means of demonstrating academic 
3achievement are applied uniformly across the state.
4(D) Estimates of one-time or ongoing costs, and whether each 
5option should be implemented on a statewide or regional basis, or 
6both.
7(3) The panel shall present its options and make its findings and 
8recommendations to the Superintendent and to the state board by 
9October 1, 2009.
10(b) For those portions of, or those academic content standards 
11assessed by, the high school exit examination for which the state 
12board determines it is feasible to create alternative means by which 
13eligible pupils with disabilities may demonstrate the same level 
14of academic achievement
				  required for passage of the high school 
15exit examination, the state board, taking into consideration the 
16findings and recommendations of the panel, shall adopt regulations 
17for alternative means by which eligible pupils with disabilities, as 
18defined in Section 60852.2, may demonstrate that they have 
19achieved the same level of academic achievement in the content 
20standards required for passage of the high school exit examination. 
21The regulations shall include appropriate timelines and the manner 
22in which eligible pupils with disabilities and school districts shall 
23be timely notified of the results.
Section 66407 of the Education Code is amended to 
25read:
(a) (1) The publisher of a textbook, or an agent or 
27employee of the publisher, shall provide a prospective purchaser 
28of the textbook with all of the following:
29(A) A list of all the products offered for sale by the publisher 
30germane to the prospective purchaser’s subject area of interest.
31(B) For a product listed pursuant to subparagraph (A), the 
32wholesale or retail price of the product, and the estimated length 
33of time the publisher intends to keep the product on the market.
34(C) For each new edition of a product listed pursuant to 
35subparagraph (A), a list of the substantial content differences or 
36changes between the
				  new edition and the previous edition of the 
37textbook.
38(2) The publisher shall make the lists required by paragraph (1) 
39available to a prospective purchaser at the commencement of a 
40sales interaction, including, but not necessarily limited to, a sales 
P109  1interaction conducted in person, by telephone, or electronically. 
2The publisher shall also post in a prominent position on its Internet 
3Web site the lists required by paragraph (1).
4(b) As used in this section, the following terms have the 
5following meanings:
6(1) “Product” means each version, including, but not necessarily 
7limited to, a version in a digital format, of a textbook, or set of 
8textbooks, in a particular subject area, including, but not necessarily 
9limited to, a supplemental item, whether or not the supplemental 
10item is sold separately or together with a
				  textbook.
11(2) “Publisher” has the same meaning as defined in subdivision 
12(b) of Section 66406.7.
13(3) “Purchaser” means a faculty member of a public or private 
14postsecondary educational institution who selects the textbooks 
15assigned to students.
16(4) “Textbook” has the same meaning as defined in subdivision 
17(b) of Section 66406.7.
Section 81378.1 of the Education Code is amended 
19to read:
(a) The governing board of a community college 
21district may, without complying with any other provision of this 
22article, let, in the name of the district, any buildings, grounds, or 
23space therein, together with any personal property located thereon, 
24not needed for academic activities, upon the terms and conditions 
25agreed upon by the governing board and the lessee for a period of 
26more than five days but less than five years, as determined by the 
27governing board. Before executing the lease, the governing board 
28shall include in an agenda of a meeting of the board open to the 
29public a description of the proposed lease and an explanation of 
30the methodology used to establish the lease rate and for determining 
31the fair market value of the lease.
32(b) The governing board
				  shall give public notice before taking 
33any action pursuant to subdivision (a). The notice shall include a 
34description of the governing board’s intended action. The notice 
35shall be printed once a week for three successive weeks prior to 
36the board meeting described in subdivision (a) in a newspaper of 
37general circulation that is published at least once a week.
38(c) The governing board shall include, as a condition in any 
39agreement to let any buildings, grounds, or space therein, together 
40with any personal property located thereon, a provision that the 
P110  1agreement shall be subject to renegotiation and may be rescinded 
2after 60 days’ notice to the lessee if the governing board determines 
3at any time during the term of the agreement that the buildings, 
4grounds, or space therein subject to the agreement are needed for 
5academic activities. Any revenue derived pursuant to the agreement 
6shall be retained for the exclusive use of the community college
7
				  district whose buildings, grounds, or space therein are the basis of 
8the agreement and shall be used to supplement, but not supplant, 
9any state funding. Any buildings, grounds, or space therein let by 
10the district shall be included as space actually available for use by 
11the college in any calculations related to any plan for capital 
12construction submitted to the board of governors pursuant to 
13Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 81800), or any other law.
14(d) The authority of a governing board under this section does 
15not apply to the letting of an entire campus.
16(e) The use of any buildings, grounds, or space therein, together 
17with any personal property located thereon, let by the governing 
18board pursuant to this section shall be consistent with all applicable 
19zoning ordinances and regulations.
Section 88620 of the Education Code is amended to 
21read:
The following definitions govern the construction of 
23this part:
24(a) “Board of governors” means the Board of Governors of the 
25California Community Colleges.
26(b) “Business Resource Assistance and Innovation Network” 
27means the network of projects and programs that comprise the 
28California Community Colleges Economic and Workforce 
29Development Program.
30(c) “California Community Colleges Economic and Workforce 
31Development Program” and “economic and workforce development 
32program” mean the program.
33(d) “Career pathways,” and “career ladders,” or “career lattices” 
34mean an identified series of positions,
				  work experiences, or 
35educational benchmarks or credentials that offer occupational and 
36financial advancement within a specified career field or related 
37fields over time.
38(e) (1) “Center” means a comprehensive program of services 
39offered by one or more community colleges to an economic region 
40of the state in accordance with criteria established by the 
P111  1chancellor’s office for designation as an economic and workforce 
2development program center. Center services shall be designed to 
3respond to the statewide strategic priorities pursuant to the mission 
4of the community colleges’ economic and workforce development 
5program, and to be consistent with programmatic priorities, 
6competitive and emerging industry sectors and industry clusters, 
7identified economic development, career technical education, 
8business development, and continuous workforce training needs 
9of a region. Centers shall provide a foundation for a long-term,
10
				  sustained relationship with businesses, labor, colleges, and other 
11workforce education and training delivery systems, such as local 
12workforce investment boards, in the region.
13(2) A center shall support, develop, and deliver direct services 
14to students, businesses, colleges, labor organizations, employees, 
15and employers. For purposes of this subdivision, direct services 
16include, but are not necessarily limited to, data analysis both of 
17labor market information and college performance; intraregion 
18and multiregion sector coordination and logistics; inventory of 
19community college and other assets relevant to meeting a labor 
20market need; curriculum development, curriculum model 
21development, or job task analysis development; articulation of 
22curriculum in a career pathway or career lattice or in a system of 
23stackable credentials; faculty training; calibration to a career 
24readiness or other assessment; assessment administration; career 
25guidance module
				  development or counseling; convenings, such 
26as seminars, workshops, conferences, and training; facilitating 
27collaboration between faculty working in related disciplines and 
28sectors; upgrading, leveraging, and developing technology; and 
29other educational services. The establishment and maintenance of 
30the centers is under the sole authority of the chancellor’s office in 
31order to preserve the flexibility of the system to adapt to labor 
32market needs and to integrate resources.
33(f) “Chancellor” means the Chancellor of the California 
34Community Colleges.
35(g) “Economic security” means, with respect to a worker, 
36earning a wage sufficient to adequately support a family and to, 
37over time, save money for emergency expenses and adequate 
38retirement income, the sufficiency of which is determined 
39considering a variety of factors including household size, the cost 
P112  1of living in the worker’s
				  community, and other factors that may 
2vary by region.
3(h) “High-priority occupation” means an occupation that has a 
4significant presence in a targeted industry sector or industry cluster, 
5is in demand by employers, and pays or leads to payment of high 
6wages.
7(i) “Industry cluster” means a geographic concentration or 
8emerging concentration of interdependent industries with direct 
9service, supplier, and research relationships, or independent 
10industries that share common resources in a given regional 
11economy or labor market. An industry cluster is a group of 
12employers closely linked by a common product or services, 
13workforce needs, similar technologies, and supply chains in a given 
14regional economy or labor market.
15(j) “Industry-driven regional collaborative” means a regional 
16public, private, or other community
				  organizational structure that 
17jointly defines priorities, delivers services across programs, sectors, 
18and in response to, or driven by, industry needs. The 
19industry-driven regional collaborative projects meet the needs and 
20fill gaps in services that respond to regional business, employee, 
21and labor needs. These service-delivery structures offer flexibility 
22to local communities and partners to meet the identified needs in 
23an economic development region. Industry-driven regional 
24collaboratives are broadly defined to allow maximum local 
25autonomy in developing projects responding to the needs of 
26business, industry, and labor.
27(k) “Industry sector” means those firms that produce similar 
28products or provide similar services using somewhat similar 
29business processes.
30(l) “Initiative” is an identified strategic priority area that is 
31organized statewide, but is a regionally based effort to
				  develop 
32and implement innovative solutions designed to facilitate the 
33development, implementation, and coordination of community 
34college economic development and related programs and services. 
35Each initiative shall be workforce and business development driven 
36by a statewide committee made up of community college faculty 
37and administrators and practitioners and managers from business, 
38labor, and industry. Centers, industry-driven regional 
39collaboratives, and other economic and workforce development 
40programs performing services as a part of the implementation of 
P113  1an initiative shall coordinate services statewide and within regions 
2of the state, as appropriate.
3(m) “Job development incentive training” means programs that 
4provide incentives to employers to create entry-level positions in 
5their businesses, or through their suppliers or prime customers, for 
6welfare recipients and the working poor.
7(n) “Matching resources” means any combination of public or 
8private resources, either cash or in-kind, derived from sources 
9other than the economic and workforce development program 
10funds appropriated by the annual Budget Act, that are determined 
11to be necessary for the success of the project to which they are 
12applied. The criteria for in-kind resources shall be developed by 
13the board of governors, with advice from the chancellor and the 
14California Community Colleges Economic and Workforce 
15Development Program Advisory Committee, and shall be consistent 
16with generally accepted accounting practices for state and federal 
17matching requirements. The ratio of matching resources to 
18economic and workforce development program funding shall be 
19determined by the board of governors.
20(o) “Performance improvement training” means training 
21delivered by a community college that includes all of the following:
22(1) An initial needs assessment process that identifies both 
23training and nontraining issues that need to be addressed to improve 
24individual and organizational performance.
25(2) Consultation with employers to develop action plans that 
26address business or nonprofit performance improvements.
27(3) Training programs that link individual performance 
28requirements with quantifiable business measures, resulting in 
29demonstrable productivity gains, and, as appropriate, job retention, 
30job creation, improvement in wages, or attainment of wages that 
31provide economic security.
32(p) “Program” means the California Community Colleges 
33Economic and Workforce Development Program established under 
34this part.
35(q) “Region” means a geographic area of the state defined by 
36economic and labor market factors containing at least one industry 
37cluster and the cities, counties, or community college districts, or 
38all of them, in the industry cluster’s geographic area. For the 
39purposes of this chapter, “California Community College economic 
40development regions” shall be designated by the board of governors 
P114  1based on factors, including, but not necessarily limited to, all of 
2the following:
3(1) Regional economic development and training needs of 
4business and industry.
5(2) Regional collaboration, as appropriate, among community 
6colleges and districts, and existing economic development, 
7continuous workforce improvement, technology deployment, and 
8business development.
9(3) Other state economic development definitions of regions.
10(r) “Sector strategies” means prioritizing investments in 
11competitive and emerging industry sectors and industry clusters 
12on the basis of labor market and other economic data that indicate 
13strategic growth potential, especially with regard to jobs and 
14income. Sector strategies focus workforce investment in education 
15and workforce training programs that are likely to lead to 
16high-wage jobs or to entry-level jobs with well-articulated career 
17pathways into high-wage jobs. Sector strategies effectively boost 
18labor productivity or reduce business barriers to growth and 
19expansion stemming from workforce supply problems, including 
20skills gaps, and occupational shortages by directing resources and 
21making investments to plug skills gaps and provide education and 
22training programs for high-priority occupations. Sector strategies 
23may be implemented using articulated career pathways or career 
24lattices and a system of stackable credentials. Sector
				  strategies 
25often target underserved communities, disconnected youth, 
26incumbent workers, and recently separated military veterans. 
27Cluster-based sector strategies focus workforce and economic 
28development on those sectors that have demonstrated a capacity 
29for economic growth and job creation in a particular geographic 
30area. Industry clusters are similar to industry sectors, but the focus 
31is on a geographic concentration of interdependent industries.
32(s) “Skills panel” means a collaboration which brings together 
33multiple employers from an industry sector or industry cluster with 
34career technical educators, including, but not limited to, community 
35college career technical education faculty, and other stakeholders 
36which may include workers and organized labor to address 
37common workforce needs. Skills panels assess workforce training 
38and education needs through the identification of assets relevant 
39to industry need, produce curricula models, perform
				  job task 
40analysis, define how curricula articulate into career pathways or 
P115  1career lattices or a system of stackable credentials, calibrate career 
2readiness, develop other assessment tools, and produce career 
3guidance tools.
4(t) “Stackable credentials” means a progression of training 
5modules, credentials, or certificates that build on one another and 
6are linked to educational and career advancement.
Section 2162 of the Elections Code is amended to 
8read:
(a) No affidavits of registration other than those provided 
10by the Secretary of State to the county elections officials or the 
11national voter registration forms authorized pursuant to the federal 
12National Voter Registration Act of 1993 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1973gg 
13et seq.) shall be used for the registration of voters.
14(b) A voter registration card shall not be altered, defaced, or 
15changed in any way, other than by the insertion of a mailing 
16address and the affixing of postage, if mailed, or as otherwise 
17specifically authorized by the Secretary of State, prior to 
18distribution of the cards.
19(c) The affidavit portion of a voter registration card shall not 
20be marked,
				  stamped, or partially or fully completed by a person 
21other than an elector attempting to register to vote or by a person 
22assisting the elector in completing the affidavit at the request of 
23the elector.
Section 2224 of the Elections Code is amended to 
25read:
(a) If a voter has not voted in an election within the 
27preceding four years, and his or her residence address, name, or 
28party affiliation has not been updated during that time, the county 
29elections official may send an alternate residency confirmation 
30postcard. The use of this postcard may be sent subsequent to NCOA 
31or sample ballot returns, but shall not be used in the residency 
32confirmation process conducted under Section 2220. The postcard 
33shall be forwardable, including a postage-paid and preaddressed 
34return form to enable the voter to verify or correct the address 
35information, and shall be in substantially the following form:
36“If the person named on the postcard is not at this address, 
37PLEASE help keep the voter rolls current and save taxpayer dollars 
38by returning this postcard to
				  your mail carrier.”
39“IMPORTANT NOTICE”
P116  1“According to our records you have not voted in any election 
2during the past four years, which may indicate that you no longer 
3reside in ____ County. If you continue to reside in this county you 
4must confirm your residency address in order to remain on the 
5active voter list and receive election materials in the mail.”
6“If confirmation has not been received within 15 days, you may 
7be required to provide proof of your residence address in order to 
8vote at future elections. If you no longer live in ____ County, you 
9must reregister at your new residence address in order to vote in 
10the next election. California residents may obtain a mail registration 
11form by calling the county elections office or the Secretary of 
12State’s office.”
13(b) The use of a toll-free number to confirm the old
				  residence 
14address is optional. Any change to a voter’s address shall be 
15received in writing.
16(c) A county using the alternate residency confirmation 
17procedure shall notify all voters of the procedure in the sample 
18ballot pamphlet or in a separate mailing.
Section 2225 of the Elections Code is amended to 
20read:
(a) Based on change-of-address data received from the 
22United States Postal Service or its licensees, the county elections 
23official shall send a forwardable notice, including a postage-paid 
24and preaddressed return form, to enable the voter to verify or 
25correct address information.
26Notification received through NCOA or Operation Mail that a 
27voter has moved and has given no forwarding address shall not 
28require the mailing of a forwardable notice to that voter.
29(b) If postal service change-of-address data indicates that the 
30voter has moved to a new residence address in the same county, 
31the forwardable notice shall be in substantially the following form:
33“We have received notification that the voter has moved to a 
34new residence address in ____ County. You will be registered to 
35vote at your new address unless you notify our office within 15 
36days that the address to which this card was mailed is not a change 
37of your permanent residence. You must notify our office by either 
38returning the attached postage-paid postcard, or by calling toll 
39free. If this is not a permanent residence, and if you do not notify 
P117  1us within 15 days, you may be required to provide proof of your 
2residence address in order to vote at future elections.”
4(c) If postal service change-of-address data indicates that the 
5voter has moved to a new address in another county, the 
6forwardable notice shall be in substantially the following form:
8“We have received
				  notification that you have moved to a new 
9address not in ____ County. Please use the attached postage-paid 
10postcard to: (1) advise us if this is or is not a permanent change of 
11residence address, or (2) to advise us if our information is incorrect. 
12If you do not return this card within 15 days and continue to reside 
13in ____ County, you may be required to provide proof of your 
14residence address in order to vote at future elections and, if you 
15do not offer to vote at any election in the period between the date 
16of this notice and the second federal general election following 
17this notice, your voter registration will be canceled and you will 
18have to reregister in order to vote. If you no longer live in ____ 
19County, you must reregister at your new residence address in order 
20to vote in the next election. California residents may obtain a mail 
21registration form by calling the county elections officer or 
221-800-345-VOTE.”
24(d) If postal service change-of-address data received from a 
25nonforwardable mailing indicates that a voter has moved and left 
26no forwarding address, a forwardable notice shall be sent in 
27substantially the following form:
29“We are attempting to verify postal notification that the voter to 
30whom this card is addressed has moved and left no forwarding 
31address. If the person receiving this card is the addressed voter, 
32please confirm your continued residence or provide current 
33residence information on the attached postage-paid postcard within 
3415 days. If you do not return this card and continue to reside in 
35____ County, you may be required to provide proof of your 
36residence address in order to vote at future elections and, if you 
37do not offer to vote at any election in the period between the date 
38of this notice and the second federal general election following 
39this notice, your voter registration will be cancelled and
				  you will 
40have to reregister in order to vote. If you no longer live in ____ 
P118  1County, you must reregister at your new residence address in order 
2to vote in the next election. California residents may obtain a mail 
3registration form by calling the county elections office or the 
4Secretary of State’s office.”
6(e) The use of a toll-free number to confirm the old residence 
7address is optional. Any change to the voter address must be 
8received in writing.
Section 3111 of the Elections Code is amended to 
10read:
If a military or overseas voter is unable to appear at his 
12or her polling place because of being recalled to service after the 
13final day for making application for a vote by mail ballot, but 
14before 5 p.m. on the day before the day of election, he or she may 
15appear before the elections official in the county in which the 
16military or overseas voter is registered or, if within the state, in 
17the county in which he or she is recalled to service and make 
18application for a vote by mail ballot, which may be submitted by 
19facsimile, or by electronic mail or online transmission if the 
20elections official makes the transmission option available. The 
21elections official shall deliver to him or her a vote by mail ballot 
22which may be voted in the elections official’s office or voted 
23outside the elections official’s office on or before the close of the 
24polls on the day
				  of election and returned as are other vote by mail 
25ballots. To be counted, the ballot shall be returned to the elections 
26official’s office in person, by facsimile transmission, or by an 
27authorized person on or before the close of the polls on the day of 
28the election. If the military or overseas voter appears in the county 
29in which he or she is recalled to service, rather than the county to 
30which he or she is registered, the elections official shall coordinate 
31with the elections official in the county in which the military or 
32overseas voter is registered to provide the ballot that contains the 
33appropriate measures and races for the precinct in which the 
34military or overseas voter is registered.
Section 13115 of the Elections Code is amended to 
36read:
The order in which all state measures that are to be 
38submitted to the voters shall appear on the ballot is as follows:
39(a) Bond measures, including those proposed by initiative, in 
40the order in which they qualify.
P119  1(b) Constitutional amendments, including those proposed by 
2initiative, in the order in which they qualify.
3(c) Legislative measures, other than those described in 
4subdivision (a) or (b), in the order in which they are approved by 
5the Legislature.
6(d) Initiative measures, other than those described in subdivision 
7(a) or (b), in the order in which they qualify.
8(e) Referendum measures, in the order in which they qualify.
Section 21000 of the Elections Code is amended to 
10read:
The county elections official in each county shall 
12compile and make available to the Legislature or any appropriate 
13committee of the Legislature any information and statistics that 
14may be necessary for use in connection with the reapportionment 
15of legislative districts, including, but not limited to, precinct maps 
16indicating the boundaries of municipalities, school districts, judicial 
17districts, Assembly districts, senatorial districts, and congressional 
18districts, lists showing the election returns for each precinct, and 
19election returns for each precinct reflecting the vote total for all 
20ballots cast, including both vote by mail ballots and ballots cast at 
21polling places, compiled pursuant to Section 15321 in the county 
22at each statewide election. If the county elections official stores 
23the information and statistics in data-processing files, he or
				  she 
24shall make the files available, along with whatever documentation 
25shall be necessary in order to allow the use of the files by the 
26appropriate committee of the Legislature and shall retain these 
27files until the next reapportionment has been completed.
Section 3047 of the Family Code is amended to read:
(a) A party’s absence, relocation, or failure to comply 
30with custody and visitation orders shall not, by itself, be sufficient 
31to justify a modification of a custody or visitation order if the 
32reason for the absence, relocation, or failure to comply is the party’s 
33activation to military duty or temporary duty, mobilization in 
34support of combat or other military operation, or military 
35deployment out of state.
36(b) (1) If a party with sole or joint physical custody or visitation 
37receives temporary duty, deployment, or mobilization orders from 
38the military that require the party to move a substantial distance 
39from his or her residence or otherwise has a material effect on the 
40ability of the party to exercise custody or visitation rights, any
P120  1
				  necessary modification of the existing custody order shall be 
2deemed a temporary custody order made without prejudice, which 
3shall be subject to review and reconsideration upon the return of 
4the party from military deployment, mobilization, or temporary 
5duty.
6(2) If the temporary order is reviewed upon return of the party 
7from military deployment, mobilization, or temporary duty, there 
8shall be a presumption that the custody order shall revert to the 
9order that was in place before the modification, unless the court 
10determines that it is not in the best interest of the child. The court 
11shall not, as part of its review of the temporary order upon the 
12return of the deploying party, order a child custody evaluation 
13under Section 3111 of this code or Section 730 of the Evidence 
14Code, unless the party opposing reversion of the order makes a 
15prima facie showing that reversion is not in the best interest of the 
16child.
17(3) (A) If the court makes a temporary custody order, it shall 
18consider any appropriate orders to ensure that the relocating party 
19can maintain frequent and continuing contact with the child by 
20means that are reasonably available.
21(B) Upon a motion by the relocating party, the court may grant 
22reasonable visitation rights to a stepparent, grandparent, or other 
23family member if the court does all of the following:
24(i) Finds that there is a preexisting relationship between the 
25family member and the child that has engendered a bond such that 
26visitation is in the best interest of the child.
27(ii) Finds that the visitation will facilitate the child’s contact 
28with the relocating party.
29(iii) Balances the interest of the child in having visitation with 
30the family member against the right of the parents to exercise 
31parental authority.
32(C) Nothing in this paragraph shall increase the authority of the 
33persons described in subparagraph (B) to seek visitation orders 
34independently.
35(D) The granting of visitation rights to a nonparent pursuant to 
36subparagraph (B) shall not impact the calculation of child support.
37(c) If a party’s deployment, mobilization, or temporary duty 
38will have a material effect on his or her ability, or anticipated 
39ability, to appear in person at a regularly scheduled hearing, the 
40court shall do either of the following:
P121  1(1) Upon motion of the party, hold an expedited hearing to 
2determine custody and
				  visitation issues prior to the departure of 
3the party.
4(2) Upon motion of the party, allow the party to present 
5testimony and evidence and participate in court-ordered child 
6custody mediation by electronic means, including, but not limited 
7to, telephone, video teleconferencing, or the Internet, to the extent 
8that this technology is reasonably available to the court and protects 
9the due process rights of all parties.
10(d) A relocation by a nondeploying parent during a period of a 
11deployed parent’s absence while a temporary modification order 
12for a parenting plan is in effect shall not, by itself, terminate the 
13exclusive and continuing jurisdiction of the court for purposes of 
14later determining custody or parenting time under this chapter.
15(e) When a court of this state has issued a custody or visitation 
16order, the
				  absence of a child from this state during the deployment 
17of a parent shall be considered a “temporary absence” for purposes 
18of the Uniform Child Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act 
19(Part 3 (commencing with Section 3400)), and the court shall retain 
20exclusive continuing jurisdiction under Section 3422.
21(f) The deployment of a parent shall not be used as a basis to 
22assert inconvenience of the forum under Section 3427.
23(g) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the 
24following meanings:
25(1) “Deployment” means the temporary transfer of a member 
26of the Armed Forces in active-duty status in support of combat or 
27some other military operation.
28(2) “Mobilization” means the transfer of a member of the 
29National Guard or Military Reserve to
				  extended active-duty status, 
30but does not include National Guard or Military Reserve annual 
31training.
32(3) “Temporary duty” means the transfer of a service member 
33from one military base to a different location, usually another base, 
34for a limited period of time to accomplish training or to assist in 
35the performance of a noncombat mission.
36(h) It is the intent of the Legislature that this section provide a 
37fair, efficient, and expeditious process to resolve child custody 
38and visitation issues when a party receives temporary duty, 
39deployment, or mobilization orders from the military, as well as 
40at the time that the party returns from service and files a motion 
P122  1to revert back to the custody order in place before the deployment. 
2The Legislature intends that family courts shall, to the extent 
3feasible within existing resources and court practices, prioritize 
4the calendaring of these
				  cases, avoid unnecessary delay or 
5continuances, and ensure that parties who serve in the military are 
6not penalized for their service by a delay in appropriate access to 
7their children.
Section 3200.5 of the Family Code is amended to 
9read:
(a) Any standards for supervised visitation providers 
11adopted by the Judicial Council pursuant to Section 3200 shall 
12conform to this section. A provider, as described in Section 3200, 
13shall be a professional provider or nonprofessional provider.
14(b) In any case in which the court has determined that there is 
15domestic violence or child abuse or neglect, as defined in Section 
1611165.6 of the Penal Code, and the court determines supervision 
17is necessary, the court shall consider whether to use a professional 
18or nonprofessional provider based upon the child’s best interest.
19(c) For the purposes of this section, the following definitions 
20apply:
21(1) “Nonprofessional provider” means any person who is not 
22paid for providing supervised visitation services. Unless otherwise 
23ordered by the court or stipulated by the parties, the 
24nonprofessional provider shall:
25(A) Have no record of a conviction for child molestation, child 
26abuse, or other crimes against a person.
27(B) Have proof of automobile insurance if transporting the child.
28(C) Have no current or past court order in which the provider 
29is the person being supervised.
30(D) Agree to adhere to and enforce the court order regarding 
31supervised visitation.
32(2) “Professional provider” means any person paid for providing 
33supervised visitation services, or an independent
				  contractor, 
34employee, intern, or volunteer operating independently or through 
35a supervised visitation center or agency. The professional provider 
36shall:
37(A) Be at least 21 years of age.
38(B) Have no record of a conviction for driving under the 
39influence (DUI) within the last five years.
40(C) Not have been on probation or parole for the last 10 years.
P123  1(D) Have no record of a conviction for child molestation, child 
2abuse, or other crimes against a person.
3(E) Have proof of automobile insurance if transporting the child.
4(F) Have no civil, criminal, or juvenile restraining orders within 
5the last 10 years.
6(G) Have no current or past court order in which the provider 
7is the person being supervised.
8(H) Be able to speak the language of the party being supervised 
9and of the child, or the provider must provide a neutral interpreter 
10over 18 years of age who is able to do so.
11(I) Agree to adhere to and enforce the court order regarding 
12supervised visitation.
13(J) Meet the training requirements set forth in subdivision (d).
14(d) (1) Professional providers shall have received 24 hours of 
15training that includes training in the following subjects:
16(A) The role of a professional provider.
17(B) Child abuse reporting laws.
18(C) Recordkeeping procedures.
19(D) Screening, monitoring, and termination of visitation.
20(E) Developmental needs of children.
21(F) Legal responsibilities and obligations of a provider.
22(G) Cultural sensitivity.
23(H) Conflicts of interest.
24(I) Confidentiality.
25(J)  Issues relating to substance abuse, child abuse, sexual abuse, 
26and domestic violence.
27(K) Basic knowledge of family and juvenile law.
28(2) Professional providers shall sign a declaration or any Judicial 
29Council form that they meet the training and qualifications of a 
30provider.
31(e) The ratio of children to a professional provider shall be 
32contingent on:
33(1) The degree of risk factors present in each case.
34(2) The nature of supervision required in each case.
35(3) The number and ages of the children to be supervised during 
36a visit.
37(4) The number of people visiting the child during the visit.
38(5) The duration and location of the visit.
39(6) The experience of the provider.
40(f) Professional providers of supervised visitation shall:
P124  1(1) Advise the parties before commencement of supervised 
2visitation that no confidential privilege exists.
3(2) Report suspected child abuse to the appropriate agency, as 
4provided by law, and inform the parties of the provider’s obligation 
5to make those reports.
6(3) Suspend or terminate visitation under subdivision (h).
7(g) Professional providers shall:
8(1) Prepare a written contract to be signed by the parties before 
9commencement of the supervised visitation.
				  The contract should 
10inform each party of the terms and conditions of supervised 
11visitation.
12(2) Review custody and visitation orders relevant to the 
13supervised visitation.
14(3) Keep a record for each case, including, at least, all of the 
15following:
16(A) A written record of each contact and visit.
17(B) Who attended the visit.
18(C) Any failure to comply with the terms and conditions of the 
19visitation.
20(D) Any incidence of abuse, as required by law.
21(h) (1) Each provider shall make every reasonable effort to 
22provide a safe visit for the child and
				  the noncustodial party.
23(2) If a provider determines that the rules of the visit have been 
24violated, the child has become acutely distressed, or the safety of 
25the child or the provider is at risk, the visit may be temporarily 
26interrupted, rescheduled at a later date, or terminated.
27(3) All interruptions or terminations of visits shall be recorded 
28in the case file.
29(4) All providers shall advise both parties of the reasons for the 
30interruption or termination of a visit.
31(i) A professional provider shall state the reasons for temporary 
32suspension or termination of supervised visitation in writing and 
33shall provide the written statement to both parties, their attorneys, 
34the attorney for the child, and the court.
Section 4055 of the Family Code, as amended by 
36Section 1 of Chapter 646 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to 
37read:
(a) The statewide uniform guideline for determining 
39child support orders is as follows: CS = K[HN - (H%)(TN)].
40(b) (1) The components of the formula are as follows:
P125 1(A) CS = child support amount.
2(B) K = amount of both parents’ income to be allocated for child 
3support as set forth in paragraph (3).
4(C) HN = high earner’s net monthly disposable income.
5(D) H% = approximate percentage of time that the high earner 
6has or will have primary physical responsibility for the children 
7compared to
				  the other parent. In cases in which parents have 
8different time-sharing arrangements for different children, H% 
9equals the average of the approximate percentages of time the high 
10earner parent spends with each child.
11(E) TN = total net monthly disposable income of both parties.
12(2) To compute net disposable income, see Section 4059.
13(3) K (amount of both parents’ income allocated for child 
14support) equals one plus H% (if H% is less than or equal to 50 
15percent) or two minus H% (if H% is greater than 50 percent) times 
16the following fraction:
| 
 Total Net Disposable  | 
 K  | 
| 
 $0-800  | 
 0.20 + TN/16,000  | 
| 
 $801-6,666  | 
 0.25  | 
| 
 $6,667-10,000  | 
 0.10 + 1,000/TN  | 
| 
 Over $10,000  | 
 0.12 + 800/TN  | 
25For example, if H% equals 20 percent and the total monthly net 
26disposable income of the parents is $1,000, K = (1 + 0.20) × 0.25, 
27or 0.30. If H% equals 80 percent and the total monthly net 
28disposable income of the parents is $1,000, K = (2 - 0.80) × 0.25, 
29or 0.30.
30(4) For more than one child, multiply CS by:
| 
 2 children  | 
 1.6  | 
| 
 3 children  | 
 2  | 
| 
 4 children  | 
 2.3  | 
| 
 5 children  | 
 2.5  | 
| 
 6 children  | 
 2.625  | 
| 
 7 children  | 
 2.75  | 
| 
 8 children  | 
 2.813  | 
| 
 9 children  | 
 2.844  | 
| 
 10 children  | 
 2.86  | 
P126  1(5) If the amount calculated under the formula results in a 
2positive number, the higher earner shall pay that amount to the 
3lower earner. If the amount calculated under the formula results 
4in a negative number, the lower earner shall pay the absolute value 
5of that amount to the higher earner.
6(6) In any default proceeding where proof is by affidavit
7
				  pursuant to Section 2336, or in any proceeding for child support 
8in which a party fails to appear after being duly noticed, H% shall 
9be set at zero in the formula if the noncustodial parent is the higher 
10earner or at 100 if the custodial parent is the higher earner, where 
11there is no evidence presented demonstrating the percentage of 
12time that the noncustodial parent has primary physical 
13responsibility for the children. H% shall not be set as described 
14above if the moving party in a default proceeding is the 
15noncustodial parent or if the party who fails to appear after being 
16duly noticed is the custodial parent. A statement by the party who 
17is not in default as to the percentage of time that the noncustodial 
18parent has primary physical responsibility for the children shall 
19be deemed sufficient evidence.
20(7) In all cases in which the net disposable income per month 
21of the obligor is less than one thousand five hundred dollars 
22($1,500), adjusted
				  annually for cost-of-living increases, there shall 
23be a rebuttable presumption that the obligor is entitled to a 
24low-income adjustment. On March 1, 2013, and annually thereafter, 
25the Judicial Council shall determine the amount of the net 
26disposable income adjustment based on the change in the annual 
27California Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, 
28published by the California Department of Industrial Relations, 
29Division of Labor Statistics and Research. The presumption may 
30be rebutted by evidence showing that the application of the 
31low-income adjustment would be unjust and inappropriate in the 
32particular case. In determining whether the presumption is rebutted, 
33the court shall consider the principles provided in Section 4053, 
34and the impact of the contemplated adjustment on the respective 
35net incomes of the obligor and the obligee. The low-income 
36adjustment shall reduce the child support amount otherwise 
37determined under this section by an amount that is no greater than 
38the amount calculated by
				  multiplying the child support amount 
39otherwise determined under this section by a fraction, the 
P127  1numerator of which is 1,500 minus the obligor’s net disposable 
2income per month, and the denominator of which is 1,500.
3(8) Unless the court orders otherwise, the order for child support 
4shall allocate the support amount so that the amount of support for 
5the youngest child is the amount of support for one child, and the 
6amount for the next youngest child is the difference between that 
7amount and the amount for two children, with similar allocations 
8for additional children. However, this paragraph does not apply 
9to cases in which there are different time-sharing arrangements 
10for different children or where the court determines that the 
11allocation would be inappropriate in the particular case.
12(c) If a court uses a computer to calculate the child support 
13order, the computer program shall
				  not automatically default 
14affirmatively or negatively on whether a low-income adjustment 
15is to be applied. If the low-income adjustment is applied, the 
16computer program shall not provide the amount of the low-income 
17adjustment. Instead, the computer program shall ask the user 
18whether or not to apply the low-income adjustment, and if 
19answered affirmatively, the computer program shall provide the 
20range of the adjustment permitted by paragraph (7) of subdivision 
21(b).
22(d) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2018, 
23and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that 
24is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends that date.
Section 4055 of the Family Code, as added by Section 
262 of Chapter 646 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to read:
(a) The statewide uniform guideline for determining 
28child support orders is as follows: CS = K[HN - (H%)(TN)].
29(b) (1) The components of the formula are as follows:
30(A) CS = child support amount.
31(B) K = amount of both parents’ income to be allocated for child 
32support as set forth in paragraph (3).
33(C) HN = high earner’s net monthly disposable income.
34(D) H% = approximate percentage of time that the high earner 
35has or will have primary physical responsibility for the children 
36compared to
				  the other parent. In cases in which parents have 
37different time-sharing arrangements for different children, H% 
38equals the average of the approximate percentages of time the high 
39earner parent spends with each child.
40(E) TN = total net monthly disposable income of both parties.
P128 1(2) To compute net disposable income, see Section 4059.
2(3) K (amount of both parents’ income allocated for child 
3support) equals one plus H% (if H% is less than or equal to 50 
4percent) or two minus H% (if H% is greater than 50 percent) times 
5the following fraction:
| 
 Total Net Disposable  | 
 K  | 
| 
 $0-800  | 
 0.20 + TN/16,000  | 
| 
 $801-6,666  | 
 0.25  | 
| 
 $6,667-10,000  | 
 0.10 + 1,000/TN  | 
| 
 Over $10,000  | 
 0.12 + 800/TN  | 
14For example, if H% equals 20 percent and the total monthly net 
15disposable income of the parents is $1,000, K = (1 + 0.20) × 0.25, 
16or 0.30. If H% equals 80 percent and the total monthly net 
17disposable income of the parents is $1,000, K = (2 - 0.80) × 0.25, 
18or 0.30.
19(4) For more than one child, multiply CS by:
| 
 2 children  | 
 1.6  | 
| 
 3 children  | 
 2  | 
| 
 4 children  | 
 2.3  | 
| 
 5 children  | 
 2.5  | 
| 
 6 children  | 
 2.625  | 
| 
 7 children  | 
 2.75  | 
| 
 8 children  | 
 2.813  | 
| 
 9 children  | 
 2.844  | 
| 
 10 children  | 
 2.86  | 
31(5) If the amount calculated under the formula results in a 
32positive number, the higher earner shall pay that amount to the 
33lower earner. If the amount calculated under the formula results 
34in a negative number, the lower earner shall pay the absolute value 
35of that amount to the higher earner.
36(6) In any default proceeding where proof is by affidavit
37
				  pursuant to Section 2336, or in any proceeding for child support 
38in which a party fails to appear after being duly noticed, H% shall 
39be set at zero in the formula if the noncustodial parent is the higher 
40earner or at 100 if the custodial parent is the higher earner, where 
P129  1there is no evidence presented demonstrating the percentage of 
2time that the noncustodial parent has primary physical 
3responsibility for the children. H% shall not be set as described 
4above if the moving party in a default proceeding is the 
5noncustodial parent or if the party who fails to appear after being 
6duly noticed is the custodial parent. A statement by the party who 
7is not in default as to the percentage of time that the noncustodial 
8parent has primary physical responsibility for the children shall 
9be deemed sufficient evidence.
10(7) In all cases in which the net disposable income per month 
11of the obligor is less than one thousand dollars ($1,000), there shall 
12be a
				  rebuttable presumption that the obligor is entitled to a 
13low-income adjustment. The presumption may be rebutted by 
14evidence showing that the application of the low-income 
15adjustment would be unjust and inappropriate in the particular 
16case. In determining whether the presumption is rebutted, the court 
17shall consider the principles provided in Section 4053, and the 
18impact of the contemplated adjustment on the respective net 
19incomes of the obligor and the obligee. The low-income adjustment 
20shall reduce the child support amount otherwise determined under 
21this section by an amount that is no greater than the amount 
22calculated by multiplying the child support amount otherwise 
23determined under this section by a fraction, the numerator of which 
24is 1,000 minus the obligor’s net disposable income per month, and 
25the denominator of which is 1,000.
26(8) Unless the court orders otherwise, the order for child support 
27shall allocate the support amount so that
				  the amount of support for 
28the youngest child is the amount of support for one child, and the 
29amount for the next youngest child is the difference between that 
30amount and the amount for two children, with similar allocations 
31for additional children. However, this paragraph does not apply 
32to cases in which there are different time-sharing arrangements 
33for different children or where the court determines that the 
34allocation would be inappropriate in the particular case.
35(c) If a court uses a computer to calculate the child support 
36order, the computer program shall not automatically default 
37affirmatively or negatively on whether a low-income adjustment 
38is to be applied. If the low-income adjustment is applied, the 
39computer program shall not provide the amount of the low-income 
40adjustment. Instead, the computer program shall ask the user 
P130  1whether or not to apply the low-income adjustment, and if 
2answered affirmatively, the computer program shall
				  provide the 
3range of the adjustment permitted by paragraph (7) of subdivision 
4(b).
5(d) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2018.
Section 1587 of the Fish and Game Code is amended 
7to read:
(a) The Mirage Trail within the Magnesia Spring 
9Ecological Reserve shall be open nine months of the year to 
10recreational hiking if the commission determines that the following 
11conditions are met:
12(1) Local public agencies or other entities will assume complete 
13financial responsibility for the following as determined to be 
14necessary by the commission:
15(A) Fencing to dissuade hikers from traversing beyond the trail 
16and into sensitive Peninsular bighorn sheep habitat.
17(B) Signage and educational materials to educate hikers about 
18Peninsular bighorn sheep.
19(2) A single entity has
				  been designated to fulfill the financial 
20arrangements and other terms and conditions determined by the 
21commission to be necessary pursuant to paragraph (1).
22(b) The commission shall determine seasonal openings and 
23closures of the trail that will not conflict with the use of the area 
24by Peninsular bighorn sheep, consistent with subdivision (a).
25(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2018, 
26and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that 
27is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends that date.
Section 15100 of the Fish and Game Code is amended 
29to read:
There is within the department an aquaculture 
31coordinator who shall perform all of the following duties as part 
32of the department’s aquaculture program:
33(a) Promote understanding of aquaculture among public agencies 
34and the general public.
35(b) Propose methods of reducing the negative impact of public 
36regulation at all levels of government on the aquaculture industry.
37(c) Provide information on all aspects of regulatory compliance 
38to the various sectors of the aquaculture industry.
P131  1(d) Provide advice to the owner of a registered aquaculture 
2facility on project siting and facility design, as
				  necessary, to comply 
3with regulatory requirements.
4(e) Coordinate with the Aquaculture Development Committee 
5regarding the duties described in subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive.
Section 4101.3 of the Food and Agricultural Code, 
7as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 137 of the Statutes of 2012, 
8is amended to read:
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the 
10California Science Center is hereby authorized to enter into a site 
11lease with the California Science Center Foundation, a California 
12Nonprofit Corporation, with the approval of the Natural Resources 
13Agency, the Department of Finance, and the Department of General 
14Services, for the purpose of the foundation developing, 
15constructing, equipping, furnishing, and funding the project known 
16as Phase II of the California Science Center. The overall
17 construction cost and scope shall be consistent with the amount 
18authorized in the Budget Act of 2002, provided that nothing in this 
19section shall prevent the foundation from expending additional 
20nonstate funds to complete Phase II provided that the additional 
21expenditures do not result in additional state operation and 
22maintenance costs.
				  Any additional expenditure of nonstate funds 
23by the foundation shall not increase the state’s contribution.
24(b) For the purpose of carrying out subdivision (a), all of the 
25following shall apply:
26(1) In connection with the development described in subdivision 
27(a), above, the foundation may, in its determination, select the 
28most qualified construction manager/general contractor to oversee 
29and manage the work and prepare the competitive bid packages 
30for all major subcontractors to be engaged in the construction of 
31Phase II Project. Any construction manager/general contractor 
32selected shall be required to have a California general contractor’s 
33license.
34(2) Prior to commencement of construction of the Phase II 
35Project, the California Science Center shall enter into a 
36lease-purchase agreement upon approval by the
				  Department of 
37Finance with the foundation on terms that are compatible with the 
38Phase I Project financing. The term of the lease-purchase agreement 
39shall be a term not to exceed 25 years. Lease payments on behalf 
40of the state shall be commensurate with the twenty-two million 
P132  1nine hundred forty-five thousand two hundred sixty-three dollars 
2($22,945,263), (nineteen million one hundred thirty-seven thousand 
3dollars ($19,137,000) plus 19.9 percent augmentation authority) 
4construction cost allocation of the state. Lease payments may also 
5include any cost of financing that the foundation may incur related 
6to tax-exempt financing. The California Science Center shall be 
7authorized to direct the Controller to send the rental payments 
8under the lease-purchase agreement directly to the foundation’s 
9bond trustee.
10(3) The foundation shall ensure that the Phase II Project is 
11inspected during construction by the state in the manner consistent 
12with state
				  infrastructure projects. The foundation shall also 
13indemnify and defend and save harmless the Department of General 
14Services for any and all claims and losses accruing and resulting 
15from or arising out of the foundation’s use of the state’s plans and 
16specifications. The foundation and the California Science Center, 
17upon consultation with the Director of General Services and the 
18Department of Finance shall agree on a reasonable level of state 
19oversight throughout the construction of the Phase II Project in 
20order to assist the foundation in the completion of the project within 
21the intended scope and cost.
22(4) At the end of the term of the site lease and the lease-purchase 
23agreement unencumbered title to the land and improvements shall 
24return to the state with jurisdiction held by the California Science 
25Center.
Section 4106 of the Food and Agricultural Code, as 
27amended by Section 6 of Chapter 137 of the Statutes of 2012, is 
28amended to read:
(a) The California Science Center shall work with the 
30Los Angeles Memorial Coliseum Commission, the City of Los 
31Angeles, and the County of Los Angeles to develop additional 
32parking facilities in Exposition Park to the extent necessary to 
33allow for expansion of the park.
34(b) The California Science Center shall manage or operate its 
35parking facilities in a manner that preserves and protects the 
36interests of itself and the California African American Museum 
37and recognizes the cultural and educational character of Exposition 
38Park.
39(c) The Exposition Park Improvement Fund is hereby created 
40in the State Treasury. All revenues received by the California 
P133  1Science Center from its parking facilities, from rental
				  of museum 
2facilities, or from other business activities shall be deposited in 
3the Exposition Park Improvement Fund.
4(d) The moneys in the Exposition Park Improvement Fund may 
5only be used, upon appropriation by the Legislature, for 
6improvements to Exposition Park, including, but not limited to, 
7maintenance of existing parking and museum facilities, replacement 
8of museum equipment, supplies and wages expended to generate 
9revenues from rental of museum facilities, development of new 
10parking facilities, and acquisition of land within or adjacent to 
11Exposition Park.
12(e) (1) The Legislature hereby finds and declares that there is 
13a need for development of additional park, recreation, museum, 
14and parking facilities in Exposition Park. The Legislature 
15recognizes that the provision of these needed improvements as 
16identified in the California Science Center Exposition
				  Park Master 
17Plan may require the use of funds provided by other governmental 
18agencies or private donors.
19(2) The California Science Center may accept funds from other 
20governmental agencies or private contributions for the purpose of 
21implementation of the California Science Center Exposition Park 
22Master Plan. The private contributions and funds from 
23governmental agencies other than state governmental agencies 
24shall be deposited in the Exposition Park Improvement Fund in 
25the State Treasury and shall be available for expenditure without 
26regard to fiscal years by the California Science Center for 
27implementation of the California Science Center Exposition Park 
28Master Plan. Funds from other state governmental agencies shall 
29be deposited in the Exposition Park Improvement Fund and shall 
30be available for expenditure, upon appropriation, by the California 
31Science Center for implementation of the California Science Center 
32Exposition Park Master Plan.
				  However, any expenditure is not 
33authorized sooner than 30 days after notification in writing of the 
34necessity therefor to the chairperson of the committee in each 
35house of the Legislature that considers appropriations and the 
36Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, or not 
37sooner than whatever lesser time as the chairperson of the joint 
38committee, or his or her designee, may in each instance determine. 
39Neither the City of Los Angeles nor the County of Los Angeles 
P134  1shall impose any tax upon tickets purchased authorizing the use 
2of parking facilities owned by the California Science Center.
Section 14611 of the Food and Agricultural Code is 
4amended to read:
(a) A licensee whose name appears on the label who 
6sells or distributes bulk fertilizing materials, as defined in Sections 
714517 and 14533, to unlicensed purchasers, shall pay to the 
8secretary an assessment not to exceed two mills ($0.002) per dollar 
9of sales for all fertilizing materials. A licensee whose name appears 
10on the label of packaged fertilizing materials, as defined in Sections 
1114533 and 14551, shall pay to the secretary an assessment not to 
12exceed two mills ($0.002) per dollar of sales. The secretary may, 
13based on the findings and recommendations of the board, reduce 
14the assessment rate to a lower rate that provides sufficient revenue 
15to carry out this chapter.
16(b) In addition to the assessment provided in subdivision (a), 
17the secretary may impose an
				  assessment in an amount not to exceed 
18one mill ($0.001) per dollar of sales for all sales of fertilizing 
19materials, to provide funding for research and education regarding 
20the use and handling of fertilizing material, including, but not 
21limited to, support for University of California Cooperative 
22Extension, the California resource conservation districts, other 
23California institutions of postsecondary education, or other 
24qualified entities to develop programs in the following areas:
25(1) Technical education for users of fertilizer materials in the 
26development and implementation of nutrient management projects 
27that result in more agronomically sound uses of fertilizer materials 
28and minimize the environmental impacts of fertilizer use, including, 
29but not limited to, nitrates in groundwater and emissions of 
30greenhouse gases resulting from fertilizer use.
31(2) Research to improve
				  nutrient management practices resulting 
32in more agronomically sound uses of fertilizer materials and to 
33minimize the environmental impacts of fertilizer use, including, 
34but not limited to, nitrates in groundwater and emissions of 
35greenhouse gases resulting from fertilizer use.
36(3) Education to increase awareness of more agronomically 
37sound use of fertilizer materials to reduce the environmental 
38impacts resulting from the overuse or inefficient use of fertilizing 
39materials.
Section 19447 of the Food and Agricultural Code is 
2amended to read:
(a) In lieu of any civil action pursuant to Section 19445, 
4and in lieu of seeking prosecution, the secretary may levy a civil 
5penalty against a person who violates Article 6 (commencing with 
6Section 19300), Article 6.5 (commencing with Section 19310), or 
7any regulation adopted pursuant to those articles, in an amount not 
8to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each violation.
9(b) Before a civil penalty is levied, the person charged with the 
10violation shall receive notice of the nature of the violation and 
11shall be granted the opportunity to review the secretary’s evidence 
12and, for up to 30 days following the issuance of the notice, the 
13opportunity to present written argument and evidence to the 
14secretary as to why the civil penalty should not be imposed or
15
				  should be reduced from the amount specified in the penalty notice. 
16Notwithstanding Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) 
17of, and Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of, Part 1 of 
18Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code or any other 
19provision of law, this section does not require the department to 
20conduct either a formal or informal hearing. The secretary instead 
21may dispose of the matter upon review of the documentation 
22presented.
23(c) Any person upon whom a civil penalty is levied may appeal 
24to the secretary within 20 days of the date of receiving notification 
25of the penalty, as follows:
26(1) The appeal shall be in writing and signed by the appellant 
27or his or her authorized agent and shall state the grounds for the 
28appeal.
29(2) Any party, at the time of filing the appeal, or within 10 days 
30thereafter,
				  may present written evidence and a written argument 
31to the secretary.
32(3) The secretary may grant oral arguments upon application 
33made at the time written arguments are made.
34(4) If an application to present an oral argument is granted, 
35written notice of the time and place for the oral argument shall be 
36given at least 10 days prior to the date set therefor. This time 
37requirement may be altered by an agreement between the secretary 
38and the person appealing the penalty.
39(5) The secretary shall decide the appeal on any oral or written 
40arguments, briefs, and evidence that he or she has received.
P136  1(6) The secretary shall render a written decision within 45 days 
2of the date of appeal, or within 15 days of the date of oral 
3arguments. A copy of the secretary’s
				  decision shall be delivered 
4or mailed to the appellant.
5(7) The secretary may sustain the decision, modify the decision 
6by reducing the amount of the penalty levied, or reverse the 
7decision.
8(8) A review of the decision of the secretary may be sought by 
9the appellant pursuant to Section 1094.5 of the Code of Civil 
10Procedure.
11(d) (1) If the person upon whom a penalty is levied does not 
12file a petition for a writ of administrative mandamus, the court, 
13upon receiving a certified copy of the department’s final decision 
14that directs payment of a civil penalty, shall enter judgment in 
15favor of the department.
16(2) After completion of the appeal procedure provided for in 
17this section, the secretary may file a certified copy of the
18
				  department’s final decision that directs payment of a civil penalty 
19and, if applicable, any order denying a petition for a writ of 
20administrative mandamus, with the clerk of the superior court of 
21any county that has jurisdiction over the matter. No fees shall be 
22charged by the clerk of the superior court for the performance of 
23any official services required in connection with the entry of 
24judgment pursuant to this section.
25(e) Any penalties levied by the secretary pursuant to this section 
26shall be deposited in the Department of Food and Agriculture Fund, 
27and, upon appropriation by the Legislature, shall be used for the 
28purposes described in Section 221.
Section 55527.6 of the Food and Agricultural Code
30 is amended to read:
(a)  Licensees or applicants for a license shall be 
32required to furnish and maintain an irrevocable guarantee in a form 
33and amount satisfactory to the secretary if, within the preceding 
34four years, the secretary determines that they have done any of the 
35following:
36(1) Engaged in conduct which demonstrates a lack of financial 
37responsibility, including, but not limited to, delinquent accounts 
38payable, judgments of liability, insolvency, or bankruptcy.
39(2) Failed to assure future financial responsibility unless an 
40irrevocable guarantee is provided.
P137  1(3) Otherwise violated this chapter which resulted in license 
2revocation.
3(b) The irrevocable guarantee may include a personal or 
4corporate guarantee, a certificate of deposit, a bank letter of credit, 
5or a surety bond, as determined to be appropriate by the secretary.
6(c) The guarantee shall not be less than ten thousand dollars 
7($10,000) or 20 percent of the annual dollar volume of business 
8based on farm product value returned to the grower, whichever is 
9greater, as assurance that the licensee’s or applicant’s business 
10will be conducted in accordance with this chapter and that the 
11licensee or applicant will pay all amounts due farm products 
12creditors.
13(d) The secretary, based on changes in the nature and volume 
14of business conducted by the licensee, may require an increase or 
15authorize a reduction in the amount of the guarantee, but in no 
16case shall the guarantee be reduced below ten
				  thousand dollars 
17($10,000). A licensee who is notified by the secretary to provide 
18a guarantee in an increased amount shall do so within a reasonable 
19time as specified by the secretary. If the licensee fails to do so, the 
20secretary may, after a notice and opportunity for a hearing, suspend 
21or revoke the license of the licensee.
Section 64101 of the Food and Agricultural Code is 
23amended to read:
There is in the state government the Dairy Council of 
25California which shall consist of not less than 24, nor more than 
2625, members. All members of the council shall be appointed by 
27the secretary and may hold office at the pleasure of the secretary. 
28The membership of the council shall be as follows:
29(a) There shall be 12 members that are actually engaged in the 
30production of milk. These 12 members are the producer members 
31of the council.
32(b) There shall be 12 members that are handlers or 
33producer-handlers of dairy products. These 12 members are the 
34handler members of the council.
35(c) Upon the recommendation of the council, the secretary may 
36appoint one person
				  who is neither a producer, handler, or 
37producer-handler, and who shall represent the public generally.
Section 3513 of the Government Code is amended 
39to read:
As used in this chapter:
P138  1(a) “Employee organization” means any organization that 
2includes employees of the state and that has as one of its primary 
3purposes representing these employees in their relations with the 
4state.
5(b) “Recognized employee organization” means an employee 
6organization that has been recognized by the state as the exclusive 
7representative of the employees in an appropriate unit.
8(c) “State employee” means any civil service employee of the 
9state, and the teaching staff of schools under the jurisdiction of the 
10State Department of Education or the Superintendent of Public 
11Instruction, except managerial employees, confidential employees,
12
				  supervisory employees, employees of the Department of Human 
13Resources, professional employees of the Department of Finance 
14engaged in technical or analytical state budget preparation other 
15than the auditing staff, professional employees in the 
16Personnel/Payroll Services Division of the Controller’s office 
17engaged in technical or analytical duties in support of the state’s 
18personnel and payroll systems other than the training staff, 
19employees of the Legislative Counsel Bureau, employees of the 
20Bureau of State Audits, employees of the office of the Inspector 
21General, employees of the board, conciliators employed by the 
22California State Mediation and Conciliation Service, employees 
23of the Office of the State Chief Information Officer except as 
24otherwise provided in Section 11546.5, and intermittent athletic 
25inspectors who are employees of the State Athletic Commission.
26(d) “Mediation” means effort by an impartial third party to assist 
27in
				  reconciling a dispute regarding wages, hours, and other terms 
28and conditions of employment between representatives of the 
29public agency and the recognized employee organization or 
30recognized employee organizations through interpretation, 
31suggestion, and advice.
32(e) “Managerial employee” means any employee having 
33significant responsibilities for formulating or administering agency 
34or departmental policies and programs or administering an agency 
35or department.
36(f) “Confidential employee” means any employee who is 
37required to develop or present management positions with respect 
38to employer-employee relations or whose duties normally require 
39access to confidential information contributing significantly to the 
40development of management positions.
P139  1(g) “Supervisory employee” means any individual, regardless 
2of the job
				  description or title, having authority, in the interest of 
3the employer, to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, 
4discharge, assign, reward, or discipline other employees, or 
5responsibility to direct them, or to adjust their grievances, or 
6effectively to recommend this action, if, in connection with the 
7foregoing, the exercise of this authority is not of a merely routine 
8or clerical nature, but requires the use of independent judgment. 
9Employees whose duties are substantially similar to those of their 
10subordinates shall not be considered to be supervisory employees.
11(h) “Board” means the Public Employment Relations Board. 
12The Educational Employment Relations Board shall be renamed 
13the Public Employment Relations Board as provided in Section 
143540. The powers and duties of the board described in Section 
153541.3 shall also apply, as appropriate, to this chapter.
16(i) “Maintenance of membership” means that all employees 
17who voluntarily are, or who voluntarily become, members of a 
18recognized employee organization shall remain members of that 
19employee organization in good standing for a period as agreed to 
20by the parties pursuant to a memorandum of understanding, 
21commencing with the effective date of the memorandum of 
22understanding. A maintenance of membership provision shall not 
23apply to any employee who within 30 days prior to the expiration 
24of the memorandum of understanding withdraws from the 
25employee organization by sending a signed withdrawal letter to 
26the employee organization and a copy to the Controller’s office.
27(j) “State employer,” or “employer,” for the purposes of 
28bargaining or meeting and conferring in good faith, means the 
29Governor or his or her designated representatives.
30(k) “Fair share fee” means the fee
				  deducted by the state 
31employer from the salary or wages of a state employee in an 
32appropriate unit who does not become a member of and financially 
33support the recognized employee organization. The fair share fee 
34shall be used to defray the costs incurred by the recognized 
35employee organization in fulfilling its duty to represent the
36 employees in their employment relations with the state, and shall 
37not exceed the standard initiation fee, membership dues, and 
38general assessments of the recognized employee organization.
Section 3527 of the Government Code is amended 
40to read:
As used in this chapter:
2(a) “Employee” means a civil service employee of the State of 
3California. The “State of California” as used in this chapter 
4includes those state agencies, boards, and commissions as may be 
5designated by law that employ civil service employees, except the 
6University of California, Hastings College of the Law, and the 
7California State University.
8(b) “Excluded employee,” means all managerial employees, as 
9defined in subdivision (e) of Section 3513, all confidential 
10employees, as defined in subdivision (f) of Section 3513, and all 
11supervisory employees, as defined in subdivision (g) of Section 
123513, and all civil service employees of the Department of Human 
13Resources, professional employees of the
				  Department of Finance 
14engaged in technical or analytical state budget preparation other 
15than the auditing staff, professional employees in the 
16Personnel/Payroll Services Division of the Controller’s office 
17engaged in technical or analytical duties in support of the state’s 
18personnel and payroll systems other than the training staff, 
19employees of the Legislative Counsel Bureau, employees of the 
20Bureau of State Audits, employees of the Public Employment 
21Relations Board, conciliators employed by the California State 
22Mediation and Conciliation Service, employees of the office of 
23the State Chief Information Officer except as provided in Section 
2411546.5, and intermittent athletic inspectors who are employees 
25of the State Athletic Commission.
26(c) “Supervisory employee organization” means an organization 
27that represents members who are supervisory employees under 
28subdivision (g) of Section 3513.
29(d) “Excluded employee organization” means an organization 
30that includes excluded employees of the state, as defined in 
31subdivision (b), and that has as one of its primary purposes 
32representing its members in employer-employee relations. 
33Excluded employee organization includes supervisory employee 
34organizations.
35(e) “State employer” or “employer,” for purposes of meeting 
36and conferring on matters relating to supervisory 
37employer-employee relations, means the Governor or his or her 
38designated representatives.
Section 7480 of the Government Code, as amended 
40by Section 2 of Chapter 304 of the Statutes of 2011, is repealed.
Section 7522.20 of the Government Code is amended 
2to read:
(a) Each retirement system that offers a defined 
4benefit plan for nonsafety members of the system shall use the 
5formula prescribed by this section. The defined benefit plan shall 
6provide a pension at retirement for service equal to the percentage 
7of the member’s final compensation set forth opposite the 
8member’s age at retirement, taken to the preceding quarter year, 
9in the following table, multiplied by the number of years of service 
10in the system as a nonsafety member. A member may retire for 
11service under this section after five years of service and upon 
12reaching 52 years of age. 
| Age of Retirement | Fraction | 
| 
 52  | 1.000 | 
| 
 521⁄4  | 
 1.025  | 
| 
 521⁄2  | 
 1.050  | 
| 
 523⁄4  | 
 1.075  | 
| 
 53 ......  | 
 1.100  | 
| 
 531⁄4  | 
 1.125  | 
| 
 531⁄2  | 
 1.150  | 
| 
 533⁄4  | 
 1.175  | 
| 
 54  | 
 1.200  | 
| 
 541⁄4  | 
 1.225  | 
| 
 541⁄2  | 
 1.250  | 
| 
 543⁄4  | 
 1.275  | 
| 
 55  | 
 1.300  | 
| 
 551⁄4  | 
 1.325  | 
| 
 551⁄2  | 
 1.350  | 
| 
 553⁄4  | 
 1.375  | 
| 
 56  | 
 1.400  | 
| 
 561⁄4  | 
 1.425  | 
| 
 561⁄2  | 
 1.450  | 
| 
 563⁄4  | 
 1.475  | 
| 
 57  | 
 1.500  | 
| 
 571⁄4  | 
 1.525  | 
| 
 571⁄2  | 
 1.550  | 
| 
 573⁄4  | 
 1.575  | 
| 
 58  | 
 1.600  | 
| 
 581⁄4  | 
 1.625  | 
| 
 581⁄2  | 
 1.650  | 
| 
 583⁄4  | 
 1.675  | 
| 
 59  | 
 1.700  | 
| 
 591⁄4  | 
 1.725  | 
| 
 591⁄2  | 
 1.750  | 
| 
 593⁄4  | 
 1.775  | 
| 
 60  | 
 1.800  | 
| 
 601⁄4  | 
 1.825  | 
| 
 601⁄2  | 
 1.850  | 
| 
 603⁄4  | 
 1.875  | 
| 
 61  | 
 1.900  | 
| 
 611⁄4  | 
 1.925  | 
| 
 611⁄2  | 
 1.950  | 
| 
 613⁄4  | 
 1.975  | 
| 
 62  | 
 2.000  | 
| 
 621⁄4  | 
 2.025  | 
| 
 621⁄2  | 
 2.050  | 
| 
 623⁄4  | 
 2.075  | 
| 
 63  | 
 2.100  | 
| 
 631⁄4  | 
 2.125  | 
| 
 631⁄2  | 
 2.150  | 
| 
 633⁄4  | 
 2.175  | 
| 
 64  | 
 2.200  | 
| 
 641⁄4  | 
 2.225  | 
| 
 641⁄2  | 
 2.250  | 
| 
 643⁄4  | 
 2.275  | 
| 
 65  | 
 2.300  | 
| 
 651⁄4  | 
 2.325  | 
| 
 651⁄2  | 
 2.350  | 
| 
 653⁄4  | 
 2.375  | 
| 
 66  | 
 2.400  | 
| 
 661⁄4  | 
 2.425  | 
| 
 661⁄2  | 
 2.450  | 
| 
 663⁄4  | 
 2.475  | 
| 
 67  | 
 2.500  | 
P142 37(b) Pensionable compensation used to calculate the defined 
38benefit shall be limited as described in Section 7522.10.
P143  1(c) A new member of the State Teachers’ Retirement System 
2shall be subject to the formula established pursuant to Section 
324202.6 of the Education Code.
Section 7522.56 of the Government Code is amended 
5to read:
(a) This section shall apply to any person who is 
7receiving a pension benefit from a public retirement system and 
8shall supersede any other provision in conflict with this section.
9(b) A retired person shall not serve, be employed by, or be 
10employed through a contract directly by, a public employer in the 
11same public retirement system from which the retiree receives the 
12benefit without reinstatement from retirement, except as permitted 
13by this section.
14(c) A person who retires from a public employer may serve 
15without reinstatement from retirement or loss or interruption of 
16benefits provided by the retirement system upon appointment by 
17the appointing power of a public employer either during an
18
				  emergency to prevent stoppage of public business or because the 
19retired person has skills needed to perform work of limited 
20duration.
21(d) Appointments of the person authorized under this section 
22shall not exceed a total for all employers in that public retirement 
23system of 960 hours or other equivalent limit, in a calendar or 
24fiscal year, depending on the administrator of the system. The rate 
25of pay for the employment shall not be less than the minimum, 
26nor exceed the maximum, paid by the employer to other employees 
27performing comparable duties, divided by 173.333 to equal an 
28hourly rate. A retired person whose employment without 
29reinstatement is authorized by this section shall acquire no service 
30credit or retirement rights under this section with respect to the 
31employment unless he or she reinstates from retirement.
32(e) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (c),
				  any retired person shall 
33not be eligible to serve or be employed by a public employer if, 
34during the 12-month period prior to an appointment described in 
35this section, the retired person received any unemployment 
36insurance compensation arising out of prior employment subject 
37to this section with a public employer. A retiree shall certify in 
38writing to the employer upon accepting an offer of employment 
39that he or she is in compliance with this requirement.
P144  1(2) A retired person who accepts an appointment after receiving 
2unemployment insurance compensation as described in this 
3subdivision shall terminate that employment on the last day of the 
4current pay period and shall not be eligible for reappointment 
5subject to this section for a period of 12 months following the last 
6day of employment.
7(f) A retired person shall not be eligible to be employed pursuant 
8to this section for a
				  period of 180 days following the date of 
9retirement unless he or she meets one of the following conditions:
10(1) The employer certifies the nature of the employment and 
11that the appointment is necessary to fill a critically needed position 
12before 180 days have passed and the appointment has been 
13approved by the governing body of the employer in a public 
14meeting. The appointment may not be placed on a consent calendar.
15(2) The state employer certifies the nature of the employment 
16and that the appointment is necessary to fill a critically needed 
17state employment position before 180 days have passed and the 
18appointment has been approved by the Department of Human 
19Resources. The department may establish a process to delegate 
20appointing authority to individual state agencies, but shall audit 
21the process to determine if abuses of the system occur. If necessary, 
22the department may assume
				  an agency’s appointing authority for 
23retired workers and may charge the department an appropriate 
24amount for administering that authority.
25(3) The retiree is eligible to participate in the Faculty Early 
26Retirement Program pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement 
27with the California State University that existed prior to January 
281, 2013, or has been included in subsequent agreements.
29(4) The retiree is a public safety officer or firefighter.
30(g) A retired person who accepted a retirement incentive upon 
31retirement shall not be eligible to be employed pursuant to this 
32section for a period of 180 days following the date of retirement 
33and subdivision (f) shall not apply.
34(h) This section shall not apply to a person who is retired from 
35the State
				  Teachers’ Retirement System, and who is subject to 
36Section 24214, 24214.5, or 26812 of the Education Code.
37(i) This section shall not apply to (1) a subordinate judicial 
38officer whose position, upon retirement, is converted to a judgeship 
39pursuant to Section 69615, and he or she returns to work in the 
40converted position, and the employer is a trial court, or (2) a retiree 
P145  1who takes office as a judge of a court of record pursuant to Article 
2VI of the California Constitution or a retiree of the Judges’ 
3Retirement System I or the Judges’ Retirement System II who is 
4appointed to serve as a retired judge.
Section 7522.57 of the Government Code is amended 
6to read:
(a) This section shall apply to any retired person who 
8is receiving a pension benefit from a public retirement system and 
9is first appointed on or after January 1, 2013, to a salaried position 
10on a state board or commission. This section shall supersede any 
11other provision in conflict with this section.
12(b) A person who is retired from a public retirement system 
13may serve without reinstatement from retirement or loss or 
14interruption of benefits provided that appointment is to a part-time 
15state board or commission. A retired person whose employment 
16without reinstatement is authorized by this subdivision shall acquire 
17no benefits, service credit, or retirement rights with respect to the 
18employment. Unless otherwise defined in statute, for the purpose 
19of this
				  section, a part-time appointment shall mean an appointment 
20with a salary of no more than $60,000 annually, which shall be 
21increased in any fiscal year in which a general salary increase is 
22provided for state employees. The amount of the increase provided 
23by this section shall be comparable to, but shall not exceed, the 
24percentage of the general salary increases provided for state 
25employees during that fiscal year.
26(c) A person who is retired from the Public Employees’ 
27Retirement System shall not serve on a full-time basis on a state 
28board or commission without reinstatement unless that person 
29serves as a nonsalaried member of the board or commission and 
30receives only per diem authorized to all members of the board or 
31commission. A person who serves as a nonsalaried member of a 
32board or commission shall not earn any service credit or benefits 
33in the Public Employees’ Retirement System or make contributions 
34with respect to the service
				  performed.
35(d) A person retired from a public retirement system other than 
36the Public Employees’ Retirement System who is appointed on a 
37full-time basis to a state board or commission shall choose one of 
38the following options:
39(1) The person may serve as a nonsalaried member of the board 
40or commission and continue to receive his or her retirement 
P146  1allowance, in addition to any per diem authorized to all members 
2of the board or commission. The person shall not earn service 
3credit or benefits in the Public Employees’ Retirement System and 
4shall not make contributions with respect to the service performed.
5(2)  (A) The person may suspend his or her retirement allowance 
6or allowances and instate as a new member of the Public 
7Employees’ Retirement System for the service performed on the 
8board or
				  commission. The pensionable compensation earned 
9pursuant to this paragraph shall not be eligible for reciprocity with 
10any other retirement system or plan.
11(B) Upon retiring for service after serving on the board or 
12commission, the appointee shall be entitled to reinstatement of any 
13suspended benefits, including employer provided retiree health 
14benefits, that he or she was entitled to at the time of being 
15appointed to the board or commission.
16(e) Notwithstanding subdivisions (c) and (d), a person who 
17retires from a public employer may serve without reinstatement 
18from retirement or loss or interruption of benefits provided by the 
19retirement system upon appointment to a full-time state board 
20pursuant to Section 5075 of the Penal Code.
Section 7522.72 of the Government Code is amended 
22to read:
(a) This section shall apply to a public employee first 
24employed by a public employer or first elected or appointed to an 
25office before January 1, 2013, and, on and after that date, Section 
267522.70 shall not apply.
27(b) (1) If a public employee is convicted by a state or federal 
28trial court of any felony under state or federal law for conduct 
29arising out of or in the performance of his or her official duties, in 
30pursuit of the office or appointment, or in connection with 
31obtaining salary, disability retirement, service retirement, or other 
32benefits, he or she shall forfeit all accrued rights and benefits in 
33any public retirement system in which he or she is a member to 
34the extent provided in subdivision (c) and shall not accrue further
35
				  benefits in that public retirement system, effective on the date of 
36the conviction.
37(2) If a public employee who has contact with children as part 
38of his or her official duties is convicted of a felony that was 
39committed within the scope of his or her official duties against or 
40involving a child who he or she has contact with as part of his or 
P147  1her official duties, he or she shall forfeit all accrued rights and 
2benefits in any public retirement system in which he or she is a 
3member to the extent provided in subdivision (c) and shall not 
4accrue further benefits in that public retirement system, effective 
5on the date of the conviction.
6(c) (1) A public employee shall forfeit all the retirement benefits 
7earned or accrued from the earliest date of the commission of any 
8felony described in subdivision (b) to the forfeiture date, inclusive. 
9The retirement benefits
				  shall remain forfeited notwithstanding any 
10reduction in sentence or expungement of the conviction following 
11the date of the public employee’s conviction. Retirement benefits 
12attributable to service performed prior to the date of the first 
13commission of the felony for which the public employee was 
14convicted shall not be forfeited as a result of this section.
15(2) For purposes of this subdivision, “forfeiture date” means 
16the date of the conviction.
17(d) (1) Any contributions to the public retirement system made 
18by the public employee described in subdivision (b) on or after 
19the earliest date of the commission of any felony described in 
20subdivision (b) shall be returned, without interest, to the public 
21employee upon the occurrence of a distribution event unless 
22otherwise ordered by a court or determined by the pension 
23administrator.
24(2) Any funds returned to the public employee pursuant to 
25subdivision (d) shall be disbursed by electronic funds transfer to 
26an account of the public employee, in a manner conforming with 
27the requirements of the Internal Revenue Code, and the public 
28retirement system shall notify the court and the district attorney 
29at least three business days before that disbursement of funds.
30(3) For the purposes of this subdivision, a “distribution event” 
31means any of the following:
32(A) Separation from employment.
33(B) Death of the member.
34(C) Retirement of the member.
35(e) (1) Upon conviction, a public employee as
				  described in 
36subdivision (b) and the prosecuting agency shall notify the public 
37employer who employed the public employee at the time of the 
38commission of the felony within 60 days of the felony conviction 
39of all of the following information:
40(A) The date of conviction.
P148 1(B) The date of the first known commission of the felony.
2(2) The operation of this section is not dependent upon the 
3performance of the notification obligations specified in this 
4subdivision.
5(f) The public employer that employs or employed a public 
6employee described in subdivision (b) and that public employee 
7shall each notify the public retirement system in which the public 
8employee is a member of that public employee’s conviction within 
990 days of the conviction. The operation of
				  this section is not 
10dependent upon the performance of the notification obligations 
11specified in this subdivision.
12(g) A public retirement system may assess a public employer a 
13reasonable amount to reimburse the cost of audit, adjustment, or 
14correction, if it determines that the public employer failed to 
15comply with this section.
16(h) If a public employee’s conviction is reversed and that 
17decision is final, the employee shall be entitled to do either of the 
18following:
19(1) Recover the forfeited retirement benefits as adjusted for the 
20contributions received pursuant to subdivision (d).
21(2) Redeposit those contributions and interest, as determined 
22by the system actuary, and then recover the full amount of the 
23forfeited benefits.
24(i) A public employee first employed by a public employer or 
25first elected or appointed to an office on or after January 1, 2013, 
26shall be subject to Section 7522.74.
Section 8164.1 of the Government Code is amended 
28to read:
There is in state government a Capitol Area Committee 
30consisting of nine members who shall be appointed in the following 
31manner:
32(a) Four members of the committee shall be appointed by the 
33Governor of which at least one member shall be appointed from 
34a list of three candidates submitted by the City of Sacramento and 
35at least one member shall be appointed from a list of three 
36candidates submitted by the County of Sacramento. Two members 
37shall be appointed for a term expiring December 31, 1979, and 
38two for a term expiring December 31, 1981.
39(b) Two members shall be appointed by the Speaker of the 
40Assembly, one of whom may be a Member of the Assembly, and 
P149  1two members shall be appointed by the Senate Rules Committee, 
2one of
				  whom may be a Member of the Senate. Legislative members 
3of the committee shall meet and, except as otherwise provided by 
4the Constitution, advise the department to the extent that the 
5advisory participation is not incompatible with their respective 
6positions as Members of the Legislature. Of the four appointments 
7by the Legislature, two shall be appointed for a term expiring 
8December 31, 1979, and two for a term expiring December 31, 
91981.
10(c) One shall be appointed by and serve at the pleasure of the 
11director.
12Subsequent appointments pursuant to subdivisions (a) and (b) 
13shall be for terms of four years, ending on December 31 of the 
14fourth year after the end of the prior term, except that appointments 
15to fill vacancies occurring for any reason other than the expiration 
16of the term shall be for the unexpired portion of the term in which 
17they occur. The members of the board shall hold office until their
18
				  successors are appointed and qualify.
19The members of the committee shall not receive compensation 
20from the state for their services under this article but, when called 
21to attend a meeting of the committee, shall be reimbursed for their 
22actual and necessary expenses incurred in connection with the 
23meeting in accordance with the rules of the Department of Human 
24Resources.
25(d) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2018, 
26and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that 
27is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends that date.
The heading of Chapter 3.1 (commencing with 
29Section 8240) of Division 1 of Title 2 of the Government Code is 
30amended to read:
31
Section 11019 of the Government Code is amended 
36to read:
(a) Any department or authority specified in subdivision 
38(b) may, upon determining that an advance payment is essential 
39for the effective implementation of a program within the provisions 
40of this section, and to the extent funds are available, advance to a 
P150  1community-based private nonprofit agency with which it has 
2contracted, pursuant to federal law and related state law, for the 
3delivery of services, not to exceed 25 percent of the annual 
4allocation to be made pursuant to the contract and those laws during 
5the fiscal year to the private nonprofit agency. Advances in excess 
6of 25 percent may be made on contracts financed by a federal 
7program when the advances are not prohibited by federal 
8guidelines. Advance payments may be provided for services to be 
9performed under any contract with a total annual contract amount 
10of four
				  hundred thousand dollars ($400,000) or less. This amount 
11shall be increased by 5 percent, as determined by the Department 
12of Finance, for each year commencing with 1989. Advance 
13payments may also be made with respect to any contract that the 
14Department of Finance determines has been entered into with any 
15community-based private nonprofit agency with modest reserves 
16and potential cashflow problems. No advance payment shall be 
17granted if the total annual contract exceeds four hundred thousand 
18dollars ($400,000), without the prior approval of the Department 
19of Finance.
20The specific departments and authority mentioned in subdivision 
21(b) shall develop a plan to establish control procedures for advance 
22payments. Each plan shall include a procedure whereby the 
23department or authority determines whether or not an advance 
24payment is essential for the effective implementation of a particular 
25program being funded. Each plan shall be approved by the 
26Department of Finance.
27(b) Subdivision (a) shall apply to the Emergency Medical 
28Services Authority, the California Department of Aging, the State 
29Department of Developmental Services, the State Department of 
30Alcohol and Drug Programs, the Department of Corrections and 
31Rehabilitation, including the Division of Juvenile Justice, the 
32Department of Community Services and Development, the 
33Employment Development Department, the State Department of 
34Healthbegin insert Careend insert Services, the State Department of State Hospitals, the 
35Department of Rehabilitation, the State Department of Social 
36Services, the Department of Child Support Services, the State 
37Department of Education, the area boards on developmental 
38disabilities, the State Council on Developmental Disabilities, the 
39Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development, and the 
P151  1California Environmental Protection Agency, including
				  all boards 
2and departments contained therein.
3Subdivision (a) shall also apply to the California Health and 
4Human Services Agency, which may make advance payments, 
5pursuant to the requirements of that subdivision, to multipurpose 
6senior services projects as established in Chapter 8 (commencing 
7with Section 9560) of Division 8.5 of the Welfare and Institutions 
8Code.
9Subdivision (a) shall also apply to the Natural Resources Agency, 
10including all boards and departments contained in that agency, 
11which may make advance payments pursuant to the requirements 
12of that subdivision with respect to grants and contracts awarded 
13to certified local community conservation corps.
14(c) A county may, upon determining that an advance payment 
15is essential for the effective implementation of a program within 
16the provisions of this section, and to the extent funds are available, 
17and
				  not more frequently than once each fiscal year, advance to a 
18community-based private nonprofit agency with which it has 
19contracted, pursuant to any applicable federal or state law, for the 
20delivery of services, not to exceed 25 percent of the annual 
21allocation to be made pursuant to the contract and those laws, 
22during the fiscal year to the private nonprofit agency.
Section 11020 of the Government Code is amended 
24to read:
(a) Unless otherwise provided by law, all offices of 
26every state agency shall be kept open for the transaction of business 
27from 8 a.m. until 5 p.m. of each day from Monday to Friday, 
28inclusive, other than legal holidays. However, any state agency or 
29division, branch, or office thereof may be kept open for the 
30transaction of business on other hours and on other days than those 
31specified in this subdivision.
32(b) If this section is in conflict with a memorandum of 
33understanding reached pursuant to Chapter 12 (commencing with 
34Section 3560) of Division 4 of Title 1, the memorandum of 
35understanding shall be controlling without further legislative action, 
36except that if the memorandum of understanding requires the 
37expenditure of funds, the memorandum shall not become
				  effective 
38unless approved by the Legislature in the annual Budget Act.
P152  1(c) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to any fair or association 
2specified under Division 3 (commencing with Section 3001) of 
3the Food and Agricultural Code.
Section 11435.15 of the Government Code is amended 
5to read:
(a) The following state agencies shall provide 
7language assistance in adjudicative proceedings to the extent 
8provided in this article:
9(1) Agricultural Labor Relations Board.
10(2) State Department of Alcohol and Drug Programs.
11(3) State Athletic Commission.
12(4) California Unemployment Insurance Appeals Board.
13(5) Board of Parole Hearings.
14(6) State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology.
15(7) State Department of Developmental Services.
16(8) Public Employment Relations Board.
17(9) Franchise Tax Board.
18(10) State Department of Health Care Services.
19(11) Department of Housing and Community Development.
20(12) Department of Industrial Relations.
21(13) State Department of State Hospitals.
22(14) Department of Motor Vehicles.
23(15) Notary Public Section, Office of the Secretary of State.
24(16) Public Utilities Commission.
25(17) Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development.
26(18) State Department of Social Services.
27(19) Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board.
28(20) Division of Juvenile Justice.
29(21) Division of Juvenile Parole Operations.
30(22) Department of Insurance.
31(23) State Personnel Board.
32(24) California Board of Podiatric Medicine.
33(25) Board of Psychology.
34(b) Nothing in this section prevents an agency other than an 
35agency listed in subdivision (a) from electing to adopt any of the 
36procedures in this article, provided that any selection of an 
37interpreter is subject to Section 11435.30.
38(c) Nothing in this section prohibits an agency from providing 
39an interpreter during a proceeding to which this chapter does not 
P153  1apply, including an informal factfinding or informal investigatory 
2hearing.
3(d) This article applies to an agency listed in subdivision (a) 
4notwithstanding a general provision that this chapter does not apply 
5to some or all of an agency’s adjudicative proceedings.
Section 11552 of the Government Code is amended 
7to read:
(a) Effective January 1, 1988, an annual salary of 
9eighty-five thousand four hundred two dollars ($85,402) shall be 
10paid to each of the following:
11(1) Commissioner of Business Oversight.
12(2) Director of Transportation.
13(3) Real Estate Commissioner.
14(4) Director of Social Services.
15(5) Director of Water Resources.
16(6) Director of General Services.
17(7) Director of Motor Vehicles.
18(8) Executive Officer of the Franchise Tax Board.
19(9) Director of Employment Development.
20(10) Director of Alcoholic Beverage Control.
21(11) Director of Housing and Community Development.
22(12) Director of Alcohol and Drug Programs.
23(13) Director of Statewide Health Planning and Development.
24(14) Director of the Department of Human Resources.
25(15) Director of Health Care Services.
26(16) Director of State Hospitals.
27(17) Director of Developmental Services.
28(18) State Public Defender.
29(19) Director of the California State Lottery.
30(20) Director of Fish and Wildlife.
31(21) Director of Parks and Recreation.
32(22) Director of Rehabilitation.
33(23) Director of the Office of Administrative Law.
34(24) Director of Consumer Affairs.
35(25) Director of Forestry and Fire Protection.
36(26) The Inspector
				  General pursuant to Section 6125 of the 
37Penal Code.
38(27) Director of Child Support Services.
39(28) Director of Industrial Relations.
40(29) Director of Toxic Substances Control.
P154 1(30) Director of Pesticide Regulation.
2(31) Director of Managed Health Care.
3(32) Director of Environmental Health Hazard Assessment.
4(33) Director of Technology.
5(34) Director of California Bay-Delta Authority.
6(35) Director of California Conservation Corps.
7(b) The annual compensation provided by this section shall be 
8increased in any fiscal year in which a general salary increase is 
9provided for state employees. The amount of the increase provided 
10by this section shall be comparable to, but shall not exceed, the 
11percentage of the general salary increases provided for state 
12employees during that fiscal year.
Section 12460 of the Government Code is amended 
14to read:
The Controller shall submit an annual report to the 
16Governor containing a statement of the funds of the state, its 
17revenues, and the public expenditures during the preceding fiscal 
18year. The annual report shall be known as the budgetary-legal basis 
19annual report and prepared in a manner that will account for prior 
20year adjustments, fund balances, encumbrances, deferred payroll, 
21revenues, expenditures, and other components on the same basis 
22as that of the applicable Governor’s Budget and the applicable 
23Budget Act, as determined by the Director of Finance in 
24consultation with the Controller. If the Governor’s Budget or the 
25Budget Act does not provide the applicable information for this 
26purpose, funds shall be accounted for in the budgetary-legal basis 
27annual report in a manner prescribed by Section 13344. The 
28requirements of this section shall apply
				  beginning with the issuance 
29of the budgetary-legal basis annual report for the 2013-14 fiscal 
30year. The Controller shall confer with the Department of Finance 
31to propose and develop methods to facilitate these changes pursuant 
32to Section 13344, including methods to ensure that information 
33related to encumbrances and deferred payroll continue to be listed 
34in the state’s financial statements, as deemed appropriate by the 
35Controller.
36The Controller shall also issue a comprehensive annual financial 
37report prepared strictly in accordance with “Generally Accepted 
38Accounting Principles.”
P155  1The annual reports referenced in this section shall be compiled 
2and published by the Controller in the time, form, and manner 
3prescribed by him or her.
Section 12838.14 of the Government Code is amended 
5to read:
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, 
7money recovered by the Department of Corrections and 
8Rehabilitation from a union paid leave settlement agreement shall 
9be credited to the fiscal year in which the recovered money is 
10received. An amount not to exceed the amount of the money 
11received shall be available for expenditure to the Department of 
12Corrections and Rehabilitation for the fiscal year in which the 
13recovered money is received, upon approval of the Department of 
14Finance. If this statute is enacted on or after July 1, 2012, any 
15money received prior to July 1, 2012, for purposes of this section, 
16shall be available for expenditure for the 2012-13 fiscal year.
17(b) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall 
18identify and report the total
				  amount collected annually to the 
19Department of Finance.
20(c) This section shall become inoperative on June 30, 2021, and, 
21as of January 1, 2022, is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, 
22that becomes operative on or before January 1, 2022, deletes or 
23extends the dates on which it becomes inoperative and is repealed.
Section 12926 of the Government Code is amended 
25to read:
As used in this part in connection with unlawful 
27practices, unless a different meaning clearly appears from the 
28context:
29(a) “Affirmative relief” or “prospective relief” includes the 
30authority to order reinstatement of an employee, awards of backpay, 
31reimbursement of out-of-pocket expenses, hiring, transfers, 
32reassignments, grants of tenure, promotions, cease and desist 
33orders, posting of notices, training of personnel, testing, expunging 
34of records, reporting of records, and any other similar relief that 
35is intended to correct unlawful practices under this part.
36(b) “Age” refers to the chronological age of any individual who 
37has reached his or her 40th birthday.
38(c) “Employee” does not include any individual employed by 
39his or her parents, spouse, or child, or any individual employed 
P156  1under a special license in a nonprofit sheltered workshop or 
2rehabilitation facility.
3(d) “Employer” includes any person regularly employing five 
4or more persons, or any person acting as an agent of an employer, 
5directly or indirectly, the state or any political or civil subdivision 
6of the state, and cities, except as follows:
7“Employer” does not include a religious association or 
8corporation not organized for private profit.
9(e) “Employment agency” includes any person undertaking for 
10compensation to procure employees or opportunities to work.
11(f) “Essential functions” means the fundamental job duties of 
12the employment position the
				  individual with a disability holds or 
13desires. “Essential functions” does not include the marginal 
14functions of the position.
15(1) A job function may be considered essential for any of several 
16reasons, including, but not limited to, any one or more of the 
17following:
18(A) The function may be essential because the reason the 
19position exists is to perform that function.
20(B) The function may be essential because of the limited number 
21of employees available among whom the performance of that job 
22function can be distributed.
23(C) The function may be highly specialized, so that the 
24incumbent in the position is hired for his or her expertise or ability 
25to perform the particular function.
26(2) Evidence
				  of whether a particular function is essential 
27includes, but is not limited to, the following:
28(A) The employer’s judgment as to which functions are essential.
29(B) Written job descriptions prepared before advertising or 
30interviewing applicants for the job.
31(C) The amount of time spent on the job performing the function.
32(D) The consequences of not requiring the incumbent to perform 
33the function.
34(E) The terms of a collective bargaining agreement.
35(F) The work experiences of past incumbents in the job.
36(G) The current work experience of incumbents in similar jobs.
37(g) (1) “Genetic information” means, with respect to any 
38individual, information about any of the following:
39(A) The individual’s genetic tests.
40(B) The genetic tests of family members of the individual.
P157  1(C) The manifestation of a disease or disorder in family members 
2of the individual.
3(2) “Genetic information” includes any request for, or receipt 
4of, genetic services, or participation in clinical research that 
5includes genetic services, by an individual or any family member 
6of the individual.
7(3) “Genetic information” does not include information about 
8the sex or age of any individual.
9(h) “Labor organization” includes any organization that exists 
10and is constituted for the purpose, in whole or in part, of collective 
11bargaining or of dealing with employers concerning grievances, 
12terms or conditions of employment, or of other mutual aid or 
13protection.
14(i) “Medical condition” means either of the following:
15(1) Any health impairment related to or associated with a 
16diagnosis of cancer or a record or history of cancer.
17(2) Genetic characteristics. For purposes of this section, “genetic 
18characteristics” means either of the following:
19(A) Any scientifically or medically identifiable gene or 
20chromosome, or combination or alteration thereof, that is known 
21to be a cause of a disease
				  or disorder in a person or his or her 
22offspring, or that is determined to be associated with a statistically 
23increased risk of development of a disease or disorder, and that is 
24presently not associated with any symptoms of any disease or 
25disorder.
26(B) Inherited characteristics that may derive from the individual 
27or family member, that are known to be a cause of a disease or 
28disorder in a person or his or her offspring, or that are determined 
29to be associated with a statistically increased risk of development 
30of a disease or disorder, and that are presently not associated with 
31any symptoms of any disease or disorder.
32(j) “Mental disability” includes, but is not limited to, all of the 
33following:
34(1) Having any mental or psychological disorder or condition, 
35such as intellectual disability, organic brain syndrome,
				  emotional 
36or mental illness, or specific learning disabilities, that limits a 
37major life activity. For purposes of this section:
38(A) “Limits” shall be determined without regard to mitigating 
39measures, such as medications, assistive devices, or reasonable 
P158  1accommodations, unless the mitigating measure itself limits a 
2major life activity.
3(B) A mental or psychological disorder or condition limits a 
4major life activity if it makes the achievement of the major life 
5activity difficult.
6(C) “Major life activities” shall be broadly construed and shall 
7include physical, mental, and social activities and working.
8(2) Any other mental or psychological disorder or condition not 
9described in paragraph (1) that requires special education or related 
10services.
11(3) Having a record or history of a mental or psychological 
12disorder or condition described in paragraph (1) or (2), which is 
13known to the employer or other entity covered by this part.
14(4) Being regarded or treated by the employer or other entity 
15covered by this part as having, or having had, any mental condition 
16that makes achievement of a major life activity difficult.
17(5) Being regarded or treated by the employer or other entity 
18covered by this part as having, or having had, a mental or 
19psychological disorder or condition that has no present disabling 
20effect, but that may become a mental disability as described in 
21paragraph (1) or (2).
22“Mental disability” does not include sexual behavior disorders, 
23compulsive gambling, kleptomania, pyromania, or psychoactive 
24substance use
				  disorders resulting from the current unlawful use of 
25controlled substances or other drugs.
26(k) “On the bases enumerated in this part” means or refers to 
27discrimination on the basis of one or more of the following: race, 
28religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, 
29mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital 
30status, sex, age, or sexual orientation.
31(l) “Physical disability” includes, but is not limited to, all of the 
32following:
33(1) Having any physiological disease, disorder, condition, 
34cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss that does both of the 
35following:
36(A) Affects one or more of the following body systems: 
37neurological, immunological, musculoskeletal, special sense 
38organs, respiratory, including
				  speech organs, cardiovascular, 
39reproductive, digestive, genitourinary, hemic and lymphatic, skin, 
40and endocrine.
P159 1(B) Limits a major life activity. For purposes of this section:
2(i) “Limits” shall be determined without regard to mitigating 
3measures such as medications, assistive devices, prosthetics, or 
4reasonable accommodations, unless the mitigating measure itself 
5limits a major life activity.
6(ii) A physiological disease, disorder, condition, cosmetic 
7disfigurement, or anatomical loss limits a major life activity if it 
8makes the achievement of the major life activity difficult.
9(iii) “Major life activities” shall be broadly construed and 
10includes physical, mental, and social activities and working.
11(2) Any other health impairment not described in paragraph (1) 
12that requires special education or related services.
13(3) Having a record or history of a disease, disorder, condition, 
14cosmetic disfigurement, anatomical loss, or health impairment 
15described in paragraph (1) or (2), which is known to the employer 
16or other entity covered by this part.
17(4) Being regarded or treated by the employer or other entity 
18covered by this part as having, or having had, any physical 
19condition that makes achievement of a major life activity difficult.
20(5) Being regarded or treated by the employer or other entity 
21covered by this part as having, or having had, a disease, disorder, 
22condition, cosmetic disfigurement, anatomical loss, or health 
23impairment that has no present disabling effect but may become 
24a physical disability
				  as described in paragraph (1) or (2).
25(6) “Physical disability” does not include sexual behavior 
26disorders, compulsive gambling, kleptomania, pyromania, or 
27psychoactive substance use disorders resulting from the current 
28unlawful use of controlled substances or other drugs.
29(m) Notwithstanding subdivisions (j) and (l), if the definition 
30of “disability” used in the federal Americans with Disabilities Act 
31of 1990 (Public Law 101-336) would result in broader protection 
32of the civil rights of individuals with a mental disability or physical 
33disability, as defined in subdivision (j) or (l), or would include any 
34medical condition not included within those definitions, then that 
35broader protection or coverage shall be deemed incorporated by 
36reference into, and shall prevail over conflicting provisions of, the 
37definitions in subdivisions (j) and (l).
38(n) “Race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, 
39physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic 
40information, marital status, sex, age, or sexual orientation” includes 
P160  1a perception that the person has any of those characteristics or that 
2the person is associated with a person who has, or is perceived to 
3have, any of those characteristics.
4(o) “Reasonable accommodation” may include either of the 
5following:
6(1) Making existing facilities used by employees readily 
7accessible to, and usable by, individuals with disabilities.
8(2) Job restructuring, part-time or modified work schedules, 
9reassignment to a vacant position, acquisition or modification of 
10equipment or devices, adjustment or modifications of examinations, 
11training
				  materials or policies, the provision of qualified readers or 
12interpreters, and other similar accommodations for individuals 
13with disabilities.
14(p) “Religious creed,” “religion,” “religious observance,” 
15“religious belief,” and “creed” include all aspects of religious 
16belief, observance, and practice, including religious dress and 
17grooming practices. “Religious dress practice” shall be construed 
18broadly to include the wearing or carrying of religious clothing, 
19head or face coverings, jewelry, artifacts, and any other item that 
20is part of the observance by an individual of his or her religious 
21creed. “Religious grooming practice” shall be construed broadly 
22to include all forms of head, facial, and body hair that are part of 
23the observance by an individual of his or her religious creed.
24(q) (1) “Sex” includes, but is not limited to, the following:
25(A) Pregnancy or medical conditions related to pregnancy.
26(B) Childbirth or medical conditions related to childbirth.
27(C) Breastfeeding or medical conditions related to breastfeeding.
28(2) “Sex” also includes, but is not limited to, a person’s gender. 
29“Gender” means sex, and includes a person’s gender identity and 
30gender expression. “Gender expression” means a person’s 
31gender-related appearance and behavior whether or not 
32stereotypically associated with the person’s assigned sex at birth.
33(r) “Sexual orientation” means heterosexuality, homosexuality, 
34and bisexuality.
35(s) “Supervisor” means any individual having the authority, in
36
				  the interest of the employer, to hire, transfer, suspend, layoff, recall, 
37promote, discharge, assign, reward, or discipline other employees, 
38or the responsibility to direct them, or to adjust their grievances, 
39or effectively to recommend that action, if, in connection with the 
P161  1foregoing, the exercise of that authority is not of a merely routine 
2or clerical nature, but requires the use of independent judgment.
3(t) “Undue hardship” means an action requiring significant 
4difficulty or expense, when considered in light of the following 
5factors:
6(1) The nature and cost of the accommodation needed.
7(2) The overall financial resources of the facilities involved in 
8the provision of the reasonable accommodations, the number of 
9persons employed at the facility, and the effect on expenses and 
10resources or the impact otherwise of
				  these accommodations upon 
11the operation of the facility.
12(3) The overall financial resources of the covered entity, the 
13overall size of the business of a covered entity with respect to the 
14number of employees, and the number, type, and location of its 
15facilities.
16(4) The type of operations, including the composition, structure, 
17and functions of the workforce of the entity.
18(5) The geographic separateness, administrative, or fiscal 
19relationship of the facility or facilities.
Section 14837 of the Government Code is amended 
21to read:
As used in this chapter:
23(a) “Department” means the Department of General Services.
24(b) “Director” means the Director of General Services.
25(c) “Manufacturer” means a business that meets both of the 
26following requirements:
27(1) It is primarily engaged in the chemical or mechanical 
28transformation of raw materials or processed substances into new 
29products.
30(2) It is classified between Codes 31 to 33, inclusive, of the 
31North American Industry Classification System.
32(d) (1) “Small business” means an independently owned and 
33operated business that is not dominant in its field of operation, the 
34principal office of which is located in California, the officers of 
35which are domiciled in California, and which, together with 
36affiliates, has 100 or fewer employees, and average annual gross 
37receipts of ten million dollars ($10,000,000) or less over the 
38previous three years, or is a manufacturer, as defined in subdivision 
39(c), with 100 or fewer employees.
P162  1(2) “Microbusiness” is a small business which, together with 
2affiliates, has average annual gross receipts of two million five 
3hundred thousand dollars ($2,500,000) or less over the previous 
4three years, or is a manufacturer, as defined in subdivision (c), 
5with 25 or fewer employees.
6(3) The director shall conduct a biennial review of the average 
7annual gross receipt
				  levels specified in this subdivision and may 
8adjust that level to reflect changes in the California Consumer 
9Price Index for all items. To reflect unique variations or 
10characteristics of different industries, the director may establish, 
11to the extent necessary, either higher or lower qualifying standards 
12than those specified in this subdivision, or alternative standards 
13based on other applicable criteria.
14(4) Standards applied under this subdivision shall be established 
15by regulation, in accordance with Chapter 3.5 (commencing with 
16Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2, and shall preclude 
17the qualification of businesses that are dominant in their industry. 
18In addition, the standards shall provide that the certified small 
19business or microbusiness shall provide goods or services that 
20contribute to the fulfillment of the contract requirements by 
21performing a commercially useful function, as defined below:
22(A) A certified small business or microbusiness is deemed to 
23perform a commercially useful function if the business does all of 
24the following:
25(i) Is responsible for the execution of a distinct element of the
26 work of the contract.
27(ii) Carries out its obligation by actually performing, managing, 
28or supervising the work involved.
29(iii) Performs work that is normal for its business services and 
30functions.
31(iv) Is responsible, with respect to products, inventories, 
32materials, and supplies required for the contract, for negotiating 
33price, determining quality and quantity, ordering, installing, if 
34applicable, and making payment.
35(v) Is not further subcontracting a portion of the work that is 
36greater than that expected to be subcontracted by normal industry 
37practices.
38(B) A contractor, subcontractor, or supplier will not be 
39considered to perform a commercially useful function if the 
40contractor’s, subcontractor’s, or supplier’s role is limited to that 
P163  1of an extra participant in a transaction, contract, or project through 
2which funds are passed in order to obtain the appearance of small 
3business or microbusiness participation.
4(e) “Disabled veteran business enterprise” means an enterprise 
5that has been certified as meeting the qualifications established by 
6paragraph (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 999 of the Military and 
7Veterans Code.
The heading of Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 
915570) of Part 8.5 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code
10 is repealed.
Section 15606.5 of the Government Code, as added 
12by Chapter 1167 of the Statutes of 1967, is amended and 
13renumbered to read:
Training of assessors and their staffs under Sections 
1515606 and 15608 shall be provided by the board on a 
16nonreimbursable basis.
Section 15814.25 of the Government Code, as added 
18by Section 1 of Chapter 234 of the Statutes of 1997, is amended 
19and renumbered to read:
Notwithstanding subdivision (f) of Section 15814.11, 
21for the purposes of this chapter “state agency” also shall include 
22any local government as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 
235921.
Section 15819.30 of the Government Code, as added 
25by Section 8 of Chapter 585 of the Statutes of 1993, is amended 
26and renumbered to read:
(a) The necessary funding for the construction of 
28the Secure Substance Abuse Treatment Facility authorized by 
29Section 5 of Chapter 585 of the Statutes of 1993 may be obtained 
30through lease-purchase financing arrangements. Sections 15819.1 
31to 15819.13, inclusive, and Section 15819.15 shall apply for this 
32purpose provided that the following apply:
33(1) “Prison facility” as used in Section 15819.1 includes the 
34Secure Substance Abuse Treatment Facility.
35(2) Notwithstanding the limitation imposed by Section 15819.3 
36regarding the amount of bonds to be issued for construction, 
37acquisition, and financing of prison facilities, the State Public 
38Works Board may issue
				  additional bonds in order to pay the costs 
39of acquiring and constructing or refinancing the Secure Substance 
40Abuse Treatment Facility.
P164  1(b) Notwithstanding Section 13340, funds derived from the 
2lease-purchase financing methods for the Secure Substance Abuse 
3Treatment Facility deposited in the State Treasury, are hereby 
4continuously appropriated to the State Public Works Board on 
5behalf of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation for the 
6purpose of acquiring and constructing or refinancing the prison 
7facility so financed.
8The sum of ninety-three million five hundred thousand dollars 
9($93,500,000) shall be available for capital outlay for the Secure 
10Substance Abuse Treatment Facility from funds derived from 
11lease-purchase financing methods.
12Funds so appropriated shall be available as necessary for the 
13purposes of site acquisition, site studies and
				  suitability reports, 
14environmental studies, master planning, architectural programming, 
15schematics, preliminary plans, working drawings, construction, 
16and long lead and equipment items. A maximum of two million 
17dollars ($2,000,000) of the funds may be available for mitigation 
18costs of local government and school districts.
19(c) The State Public Works Board may authorize the 
20augmentation of the cost of construction of the project set forth in 
21this section pursuant to the board’s authority under Section 
2213332.11. In addition, the State Public Works Board may authorize 
23any additional amounts necessary to establish a reasonable 
24construction reserve and to pay the costs of financing, including 
25the payment of interest during acquisition or construction of the 
26project, the cost of financing a debt service reserve fund, and the 
27cost of issuance of permanent financing for the project. This 
28additional amount may include interest payable on any interim
29
				  loan for the facility from the General Fund or the Pooled Money 
30Investment Account pursuant to Section 16312.
Section 15820.922 of the Government Code is 
32amended to read:
(a) The board may issue up to five hundred million 
34dollars ($500,000,000) in revenue bonds, notes, or bond 
35anticipation notes, pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 
3615830) to finance the acquisition, design, and construction, 
37including, without limitation, renovation, and a reasonable 
38construction reserve, of approved adult local criminal justice 
39facilities described in Section 15820.92, and any additional amount 
40authorized under Section 15849.6 to pay for the cost of financing.
P165  1(b) Proceeds from the revenue bonds, notes, or bond anticipation 
2notes may be used to reimburse a participating county for the costs 
3of acquisition, design, and construction, including, without 
4limitation, renovation, for approved adult local criminal justice 
5facilities.
6(c) Notwithstanding Section 13340, funds derived pursuant to 
7this section and Section 15820.921 are continuously appropriated 
8for purposes of this chapter.
Section 19815 of the Government Code is amended 
10to read:
As used in this part:
12(a) “Department” means the Department of Human Resources.
13(b) “Director” means the Director of the Department of Human 
14Resources.
15(c) “Division” means the Division of Labor Relations.
16(d) “Employee” or “state employee,” except where otherwise 
17indicated, means employees subject to the Ralph C. Dills Act 
18(Chapter 10.3 (commencing with Section 3512), Division 4, Title 
191), supervisory employees as defined in subdivision (g) of Section 
203513, managerial employees as defined in subdivision (e) of 
21Section 3513, confidential employees as defined in subdivision 
22(f) of Section 3513,
				  employees of the Legislative Counsel Bureau, 
23employees of the Bureau of State Audits, employees of the office 
24of the Inspector General, employees of the Public Employment 
25Relations Board, conciliators employed by the California State 
26Mediation and Conciliation Service, employees of the Department 
27of Human Resources, professional employees of the Department 
28of Finance engaged in technical or analytical state budget 
29preparation other than audit staff, intermittent athletic inspectors 
30who are employees of the State Athletic Commission, professional 
31employees in the Personnel/Payroll Services Division of the 
32Controller’s office and all employees of the executive branch of 
33government who are not elected to office.
Section 20391 of the Government Code is amended 
35to read:
“State peace officer/firefighter member” means:
37(a) All persons in the Board of Parole Hearings, the Department 
38of Consumer Affairs, the Department of Developmental Services, 
39the Department of Health Care Services, the Department of Toxic 
40Substances Control, the California Horse Racing Board, the 
P166  1Department of Industrial Relations, the Department of Insurance, 
2the State Department of State Hospitals, the Department of Motor 
3Vehicles, the Department of Social Services employed with the 
4class title of Special Investigator (Class Code 8553), Senior Special 
5Investigator (Class Code 8550), and Investigator Assistant (Class 
6Code 8554) who have been designated as peace officers as defined 
7in Sections 830.2 and 830.3 of the Penal Code.
8(b) All persons in the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control 
9employed with the class title Investigator Trainee, Alcoholic 
10Beverage Control (Class Code 7553), Investigator I, Alcoholic 
11Beverage Control, Range A and B (Class Code 7554), and 
12Investigator II, Alcoholic Beverage Control (Class Code 7555) 
13who have been designated as peace officers as defined in Sections 
14830.2 and 830.3 of the Penal Code.
15(c) All persons within the Department of Justice who are state 
16employees as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 3513 and who 
17have been designated as peace officers and performing investigative 
18duties.
19(d) All persons in the Department of Parks and Recreation 
20employed with the class title of Park Ranger (Intermittent) (Class 
21Code 0984) who have been designated as peace officers as defined 
22in Sections 830.2 and 830.3 of the Penal Code.
23(e) All persons in the Franchise Tax Board who have been 
24designated as peace officers in subdivision (s) of Section 830.3 of 
25the Penal Code.
26(f) A member who is employed in a position that is reclassified 
27to state peace officer/firefighter pursuant to this section may make 
28an irrevocable election in writing to remain subject to the service 
29retirement benefit and the normal rate of contribution applicable 
30prior to reclassification by filing a notice of election with the board 
31within 90 days of notification by the board. A member who so 
32elects shall be subject to the reduced benefit factors specified in 
33Section 21353 or 21354.1, as applicable, only for service included 
34in the federal system.
Section 20410 of the Government Code is amended 
36to read:
“State safety member” also includes all persons in the 
38Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control, the Board of Parole 
39Hearings, the Department of Consumer Affairs, the Department 
40of Developmental Services, the Department of Health Care 
P167  1Services, the Department of Toxic Substances Control, the 
2California Horse Racing Board, the Department of Industrial 
3Relations, the Department of Insurance, the State Department of 
4State Hospitals, the Department of Motor Vehicles, and the 
5Department of Social Services employed with the class title of 
6Special Investigator (Class Code 8553), Senior Special Investigator 
7(Class Code 8550), Investigator Trainee (Class Code 8555) and 
8Investigator Assistant (Class Code 8554), Supervising Special 
9Investigator I (Class Code 8548), Special Investigator II (Class 
10Code 8547), and persons in the class of State Park Ranger
11
				  (Intermittent) (Class Code 0984) in the Department of Parks and 
12Recreation, who have been designated as peace officers as defined 
13in Sections 830.2 and 830.3 of the Penal Code.
Section 20516 of the Government Code is amended 
15to read:
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, 
17with or without a change in benefits, a contracting agency and its 
18employees may agree, in writing, to share the costs of the employer 
19contribution. The cost sharing pursuant to this section shall also 
20apply for related nonrepresented employees as approved in a 
21resolution passed by the contracting agency.
22(b) The collective bargaining agreement shall specify the exact 
23percentage of member compensation that shall be paid toward the 
24current service cost of the benefits by members. The member 
25contributions shall be contributions over and above normal 
26contributions otherwise required by this part and shall be treated 
27as normal contributions for all purposes of this part. The 
28contributions shall be uniform, except as
				  described in subdivision 
29(c), with respect to all members within each of the following 
30classifications: local miscellaneous members, local police officers, 
31local firefighters, county peace officers, and all local safety 
32members other than local police officers, local firefighters, and 
33county peace officers. The balance of any costs shall be paid by 
34the contracting agency and shall be credited to the employer’s 
35account. An employer shall not use impasse procedures to impose 
36member cost sharing on any contribution amount above that which 
37is authorized by law.
38(c) Member cost sharing may differ by classification for groups 
39of employees subject to different levels of benefits pursuant to 
40Sections 7522.20, 7522.25, and 20475, or by a recognized 
P168  1collective bargaining unit if agreed to in a memorandum of 
2understanding reached pursuant to the applicable collective 
3bargaining laws.
4(d) This section shall not apply to any contracting agency nor 
5to the employees of a contracting agency until the agency elects 
6to be subject to this section by contract or by amendment to its 
7contract made in the manner prescribed for approval of contracts. 
8Contributions provided by this section shall be withheld from 
9member compensation or otherwise collected when the contract 
10amendment becomes effective.
11(e) For the purposes of this section, all contributions, liabilities, 
12actuarial interest rates, and other valuation factors shall be 
13determined on the basis of actuarial assumptions and methods that, 
14in the aggregate, are reasonable and that, in combination, offer the 
15actuary’s best estimate of anticipated experience under this system.
16(f) Nothing in this section shall preclude a contracting agency 
17and its employees from independently agreeing in a memorandum 
18of
				  understanding to share the costs of any benefit, in a manner 
19inconsistent with this section. However, any agreement in a 
20memorandum of understanding that is inconsistent with this section 
21shall not be part of the contract between this system and the 
22contracting agency.
23(g) If, and to the extent that, the board determines that a 
24cost-sharing agreement under this section would conflict with Title 
2526 of the United States Code, the board may refuse to approve the 
26agreement.
27(h) Nothing in this section shall require a contracting agency to 
28enter into a memorandum of understanding or collective bargaining 
29agreement with a bargaining representative in order to increase 
30the amount of member contributions when such a member 
31contribution increase is authorized by other provisions under this 
32part.
Section 20677.7 of the Government Code is amended 
34to read:
(a) Notwithstanding Section 20677.4, effective with 
36the beginning of the September 2010 pay period, the normal rate 
37of contribution for state miscellaneous or state industrial members 
38who are represented by State Bargaining Unit 8, shall be:
P169  1(1) Eleven percent of the compensation in excess of three 
2hundred seventeen dollars ($317) per month paid to a member 
3whose service is not included in the federal system.
4(2) Ten percent of compensation in excess of five hundred 
5thirteen dollars ($513) per month paid to a member whose service 
6has been included in the federal system.
7(b) Notwithstanding Section 20677.4, effective with the 
8beginning
				  of the September 2010 pay period, the normal rate of 
9contribution for state miscellaneous or state industrial members 
10who are represented by State Bargaining Unit 5 shall be:
11(1) Eight percent of the compensation in excess of three hundred 
12seventeen dollars ($317) per month paid to a member whose service 
13is not included in the federal system.
14(2) Seven percent of compensation in excess of five hundred 
15thirteen dollars ($513) per month paid to a member whose service 
16has been included in the federal system.
17(c) If the provisions of this section are in conflict with the 
18provisions of a memorandum of understanding reached pursuant 
19to Section 3517.5, the memorandum of understanding shall be 
20controlling without further legislative action, except that if the 
21provisions of a memorandum of understanding require the
22
				  expenditure of funds, the provisions shall not become effective 
23unless and until approved by the Legislature in the annual Budget 
24Act.
25(d) Consistent with the normal rate of contribution for all 
26members identified in this subdivision, the Director of the 
27Department of Personnel Administration may exercise his or her 
28discretion to establish the normal rate of contribution for a related 
29state employee who is excepted from the definition of “state 
30employee” in subdivision (c) of Section 3513, and an officer or 
31employee of the executive branch of state government who is not 
32a member of the civil service.
Section 25060 of the Government Code is amended 
34to read:
Whenever a vacancy occurs in a board of supervisors, 
36the Governor shall fill the vacancy. The appointee shall hold office 
37until the election and qualification of his or her successor.
Section 25062 of the Government Code is amended 
39to read:
When a vacancy occurs from the failure of the person 
2elected to file his or her oath or bond as provided by law, and the 
3person elected is appointed to fill the vacancy, he or she shall hold 
4office for the unexpired term.
Section 65040.7 of the Government Code is amended 
6to read:
(a) For purposes of this section, the following terms 
8have the following meanings:
9(1) “Energy security and military mission goals” means federal 
10laws, regulations, or executive orders, related to alternative fuel 
11and vehicle technology, clean energy, energy efficiency, water 
12and waste conservation, greenhouse gas emissions reductions, and 
13related infrastructure, including, but not limited to, the federal 
14laws, regulations, and executive orders, and the goals set forth 
15therein, of the National Energy Conservation Policy Act (42 U.S.C. 
16Sec. 8201 et seq.), the Energy Independence and Security Act of 
172007 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 17001 et seq.), the Energy Policy Act of 
182005 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 15801 et seq.), and the Energy Policy Act 
19of 1992 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 13201 et seq.), and
				  the goals set forth in 
20Executive Order No. 13514, Executive Order No. 13423, and 
21Executive Order No. 13221.
22(2) “State energy and environmental policies” includes, but is 
23not limited to, policies involving alternative fuels and vehicle 
24technology and related fueling infrastructure, renewable electricity 
25generation and related transmission infrastructure, energy efficiency 
26and demand response, waste management, recycling, water 
27conservation, water quality, water supply, greenhouse gas 
28emissions reductions, and green chemistry.
29(b) A state agency that is identified by the Office of Planning 
30and Research pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) shall, 
31when developing and implementing state energy and environmental 
32policies, consider the direct impacts of those policies upon the 
33United States Department of Defense’s energy security and military 
34mission goals.
35(c) The Office of Planning and Research shall do both of the 
36following:
37(1) Identify state agencies that develop and implement state 
38energy and environmental policies that directly impact the United 
39States Department of Defense’s energy security and military 
40mission goals in the state.
P171  1(2) Serve as a liaison to coordinate effective inclusion of the 
2United States Department of Defense in the development and 
3implementation of state energy and environmental policy.
4(d) This section shall not do any of the following:
5(1) Interfere with the existing authority of, or prevent, an agency 
6or department from carrying out of its programs, projects, or 
7responsibilities.
8(2) Limit compliance with requirements imposed under any 
9other law.
10(3) Authorize or require the United States Department of 
11Defense to operate differently from any other self-generating 
12ratepayer, or alter an existing rate structure.
Section 65302.5 of the Government Code is amended 
14to read:
(a) At least 45 days prior to adoption or amendment 
16of the safety element, each county and city shall submit to the 
17California Geological Survey of the Department of Conservation 
18one copy of a draft of the safety element or amendment and any 
19technical studies used for developing the safety element. The 
20division may review drafts submitted to it to determine whether 
21they incorporate known seismic and other geologic hazard 
22information, and report its findings to the planning agency within 
2330 days of receipt of the draft of the safety element or amendment 
24pursuant to this subdivision. The legislative body shall consider 
25the division’s findings prior to final adoption of the safety element 
26or amendment unless the division’s findings are not available 
27within the above prescribed time limits or unless the division has 
28indicated to
				  the city or county that the division will not review the 
29safety element. If the division’s findings are not available within 
30those prescribed time limits, the legislative body may take the 
31division’s findings into consideration at the time it considers future 
32amendments to the safety element. Each county and city shall 
33provide the division with a copy of its adopted safety element or 
34amendments. The division may review adopted safety elements 
35or amendments and report its findings. All findings made by the 
36division shall be advisory to the planning agency and legislative 
37body.
38(b) (1) The draft element of or draft amendment to the safety 
39element of a county or a city’s general plan shall be submitted to 
40the State Board of Forestry and Fire Protection and to every local 
P172  1agency that provides fire protection to territory in the city or county 
2at least 90 days prior to either of the following:
3(A) The adoption or amendment to the safety element of its 
4general plan for each county that contains state responsibility areas.
5(B) The adoption or amendment to the safety element of its 
6general plan for each city or county that contains a very high fire 
7hazard severity zone as defined pursuant to subdivision (i) of 
8Section 51177.
9(2) A county that contains state responsibility areas and a city 
10or county that contains a very high fire hazard severity zone as 
11defined pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 51177 shall submit 
12for review the safety element of its general plan to the State Board 
13of Forestry and Fire Protection and every local agency that provides 
14fire protection to territory in the city or county in accordance with 
15the following dates, as specified, unless the local government 
16submitted the element within
				  five years prior to that date:
17(A) Local governments within the regional jurisdiction of the 
18San Diego Association of Governments: December 31, 2010.
19(B) Local governments within the regional jurisdiction of the 
20Southern California Association of Governments: December 31, 
212011.
22(C) Local governments within the regional jurisdiction of the 
23Association of Bay Area Governments: December 31, 2012.
24(D) Local governments within the regional jurisdiction of the 
25Council of Fresno County Governments, the Kern County Council 
26of Governments, and the Sacramento Area Council of 
27Governments: June 30, 2013.
28(E) Local governments within the regional jurisdiction of the 
29Association of Monterey Bay Area
				  Governments: December 31, 
302014.
31(F) All other local governments: December 31, 2015.
32(3) The State Board of Forestry and Fire Protection shall, and 
33a local agency may, review the draft or an existing safety element 
34and recommend changes to the planning agency within 60 days 
35of its receipt regarding both of the following:
36(A) Uses of land and policies in state responsibility areas and 
37very high fire hazard severity zones that will protect life, property, 
38and natural resources from unreasonable risks associated with wild 
39land fires.
P173  1(B) Methods and strategies for wild land fire risk reduction and 
2prevention within state responsibility areas and very high fire 
3hazard severity zones.
4(4) Prior
				  to the adoption of its draft element or draft amendment, 
5the board of supervisors of the county or the city council of a city 
6shall consider the recommendations, if any, made by the State 
7Board of Forestry and Fire Protection and any local agency that 
8provides fire protection to territory in the city or county. If the 
9board of supervisors or city council determines not to accept all 
10or some of the recommendations, if any, made by the State Board 
11of Forestry and Fire Protection or local agency, the board of 
12supervisors or city council shall communicate in writing to the 
13State Board of Forestry and Fire Protection or the local agency, 
14its reasons for not accepting the recommendations.
15(5) If the State Board of Forestry and Fire Protection’s or local 
16agency’s recommendations are not available within the time limits 
17required by this section, the board of supervisors or city council 
18may act without those recommendations. The board of supervisors 
19or
				  city council shall take the recommendations into consideration 
20the next time it considers amendments to the safety element.
Section 65915 of the Government Code, as amended 
22by Section 53 of Chapter 181 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended 
23to read:
(a) When an applicant seeks a density bonus for a 
25housing development within, or for the donation of land for housing 
26within, the jurisdiction of a city, county, or city and county, that 
27local government shall provide the applicant with incentives or 
28concessions for the production of housing units and child care 
29facilities as prescribed in this section. All cities, counties, or cities 
30and counties shall adopt an ordinance that specifies how 
31compliance with this section will be implemented. Failure to adopt 
32an ordinance shall not relieve a city, county, or city and county 
33from complying with this section.
34(b) (1) A city, county, or city and county shall grant one density 
35bonus, the amount of which shall be as specified in subdivision 
36(f), and
				  incentives or concessions, as described in subdivision (d), 
37when an applicant for a housing development seeks and agrees to 
38construct a housing development, excluding any units permitted 
39by the density bonus awarded pursuant to this section, that will 
40contain at least any one of the following:
P174  1(A) Ten percent of the total units of a housing development for 
2lower income households, as defined in Section 50079.5 of the 
3Health and Safety Code.
4(B) Five percent of the total units of a housing development for 
5very low income households, as defined in Section 50105 of the 
6Health and Safety Code.
7(C) A senior citizen housing development, as defined in Sections 
851.3 and 51.12 of the Civil Code, or mobilehome park that limits 
9residency based on age requirements for housing for older persons 
10pursuant to Section 798.76 or 799.5
				  of the Civil Code.
11(D) Ten percent of the total dwelling units in a common interest 
12development as defined in Section 4100 of the Civil Code for 
13persons and families of moderate income, as defined in Section 
1450093 of the Health and Safety Code, provided that all units in the 
15development are offered to the public for purchase.
16(2) For purposes of calculating the amount of the density bonus 
17pursuant to subdivision (f), the applicant who requests a density 
18bonus pursuant to this subdivision shall elect whether the bonus 
19shall be awarded on the basis of subparagraph (A), (B), (C), or (D) 
20of paragraph (1).
21(3) For the purposes of this section, “total units” or “total 
22dwelling units” does not include units added by a density bonus 
23awarded pursuant to this section or any local law granting a greater 
24density bonus.
25(c) (1) An applicant shall agree to, and the city, county, or city 
26and county shall ensure, continued affordability of all low- and 
27very low income units that qualified the applicant for the award 
28of the density bonus for 30 years or a longer period of time if 
29required by the construction or mortgage financing assistance 
30program, mortgage insurance program, or rental subsidy program. 
31Rents for the lower income density bonus units shall be set at an 
32affordable rent as defined in Section 50053 of the Health and Safety 
33Code. Owner-occupied units shall be available at an affordable 
34housing cost as defined in Section 50052.5 of the Health and Safety 
35Code.
36(2) An applicant shall agree to, and the city, county, or city and 
37county shall ensure that, the initial occupant of the 
38moderate-income units that are directly related to the receipt of 
39the density bonus in the
				  common interest development, as defined 
40in Section 4100 of the Civil Code, are persons and families of 
P175  1moderate income, as defined in Section 50093 of the Health and 
2Safety Code, and that the units are offered at an affordable housing 
3cost, as that cost is defined in Section 50052.5 of the Health and 
4Safety Code. The local government shall enforce an equity sharing 
5agreement, unless it is in conflict with the requirements of another 
6public funding source or law. The following apply to the equity 
7sharing agreement:
8(A) Upon resale, the seller of the unit shall retain the value of 
9any improvements, the downpayment, and the seller’s proportionate 
10share of appreciation. The local government shall recapture any 
11initial subsidy, as defined in subparagraph (B), and its proportionate 
12share of appreciation, as defined in subparagraph (C), which 
13amount shall be used within five years for any of the purposes 
14described in subdivision (e) of Section 33334.2
				  of the Health and 
15Safety Code that promote home ownership.
16(B) For purposes of this subdivision, the local government’s 
17initial subsidy shall be equal to the fair market value of the home 
18at the time of initial sale minus the initial sale price to the 
19moderate-income household, plus the amount of any downpayment 
20assistance or mortgage assistance. If upon resale the market value 
21is lower than the initial market value, then the value at the time of 
22the resale shall be used as the initial market value.
23(C) For purposes of this subdivision, the local government’s 
24proportionate share of appreciation shall be equal to the ratio of 
25the local government’s initial subsidy to the fair market value of 
26the home at the time of initial sale.
27(d) (1) An applicant for a density bonus pursuant to subdivision 
28(b)
				  may submit to a city, county, or city and county a proposal for 
29the specific incentives or concessions that the applicant requests 
30pursuant to this section, and may request a meeting with the city, 
31county, or city and county. The city, county, or city and county 
32shall grant the concession or incentive requested by the applicant 
33unless the city, county, or city and county makes a written finding, 
34based upon substantial evidence, of any of the following:
35(A) The concession or incentive is not required in order to 
36provide for affordable housing costs, as defined in Section 50052.5 
37of the Health and Safety Code, or for rents for the targeted units 
38to be set as specified in subdivision (c).
39(B) The concession or incentive would have a specific adverse 
40impact, as defined in paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 
P176  165589.5, upon public health and safety or the physical environment 
2or
				  on any real property that is listed in the California Register of 
3Historical Resources and for which there is no feasible method to 
4satisfactorily mitigate or avoid the specific adverse impact without 
5rendering the development unaffordable to low- and 
6moderate-income households.
7(C) The concession or incentive would be contrary to state or 
8federal law.
9(2) The applicant shall receive the following number of 
10incentives or concessions:
11(A) One incentive or concession for projects that include at least 
1210 percent of the total units for lower income households, at least 
135 percent for very low income households, or at least 10 percent 
14for persons and families of moderate income in a common interest 
15development.
16(B) Two incentives or concessions for projects
				  that include at 
17least 20 percent of the total units for lower income households, at 
18least 10 percent for very low income households, or at least 20 
19percent for persons and families of moderate income in a common 
20interest development.
21(C) Three incentives or concessions for projects that include at 
22least 30 percent of the total units for lower income households, at 
23least 15 percent for very low income households, or at least 30 
24percent for persons and families of moderate income in a common 
25interest development.
26(3) The applicant may initiate judicial proceedings if the city, 
27county, or city and county refuses to grant a requested density 
28bonus, incentive, or concession. If a court finds that the refusal to 
29grant a requested density bonus, incentive, or concession is in 
30violation of this section, the court shall award the plaintiff 
31reasonable attorney’s fees and costs of suit.
				  Nothing in this 
32subdivision shall be interpreted to require a local government to 
33grant an incentive or concession that has a specific, adverse impact, 
34as defined in paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 65589.5, 
35upon health, safety, or the physical environment, and for which 
36there is no feasible method to satisfactorily mitigate or avoid the 
37specific adverse impact. Nothing in this subdivision shall be 
38interpreted to require a local government to grant an incentive or 
39concession that would have an adverse impact on any real property 
40that is listed in the California Register of Historical Resources. 
P177  1The city, county, or city and county shall establish procedures for 
2carrying out this section, that shall include legislative body 
3approval of the means of compliance with this section.
4(e) (1) In no case may a city, county, or city and county apply 
5any development standard that will have the effect of physically
6
				  precluding the construction of a development meeting the criteria 
7of subdivision (b) at the densities or with the concessions or 
8incentives permitted by this section. An applicant may submit to 
9a city, county, or city and county a proposal for the waiver or 
10reduction of development standards that will have the effect of 
11physically precluding the construction of a development meeting 
12the criteria of subdivision (b) at the densities or with the 
13concessions or incentives permitted under this section, and may 
14request a meeting with the city, county, or city and county. If a 
15court finds that the refusal to grant a waiver or reduction of 
16development standards is in violation of this section, the court 
17shall award the plaintiff reasonable attorney’s fees and costs of 
18suit. Nothing in this subdivision shall be interpreted to require a 
19local government to waive or reduce development standards if the 
20waiver or reduction would have a specific, adverse impact, as 
21defined in paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section
				  65589.5, 
22upon health, safety, or the physical environment, and for which 
23there is no feasible method to satisfactorily mitigate or avoid the 
24specific adverse impact. Nothing in this subdivision shall be 
25interpreted to require a local government to waive or reduce 
26development standards that would have an adverse impact on any 
27real property that is listed in the California Register of Historical 
28Resources, or to grant any waiver or reduction that would be 
29contrary to state or federal law.
30(2) A proposal for the waiver or reduction of development 
31standards pursuant to this subdivision shall neither reduce nor 
32increase the number of incentives or concessions to which the 
33applicant is entitled pursuant to subdivision (d).
34(f) For the purposes of this chapter, “density bonus” means a 
35density increase over the otherwise maximum allowable residential 
36density as of the date of application
				  by the applicant to the city, 
37county, or city and county. The applicant may elect to accept a 
38lesser percentage of density bonus. The amount of density bonus 
39to which the applicant is entitled shall vary according to the amount 
P178  1by which the percentage of affordable housing units exceeds the 
2percentage established in subdivision (b).
3(1) For housing developments meeting the criteria of 
4subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), the density 
5bonus shall be calculated as follows: 
| Percentage Low-Income Units | Percentage Density Bonus | 
| 10 | 20 | 
| 11 | 21.5 | 
| 12 | 23 | 
| 13 | 24.5 | 
| 14 | 26 | 
| 15 | 27.5 | 
| 17 | 30.5 | 
| 18 | 32 | 
| 19 | 33.5 | 
| 20 | 35 | 
20(2) For housing developments meeting the criteria of 
21subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), the density
22 bonus shall be calculated as follows: 
| Percentage Very Low Income Units | Percentage Density Bonus | 
| 5 | 20 | 
| 6 | 22.5 | 
| 7 | 25 | 
| 8 | 27.5 | 
| 9 | 30 | 
| 10 | 32.5 | 
| 11 | 35 | 
33(3) For housing
				  developments meeting the criteria of 
34subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), the density 
35bonus shall be 20 percent of the number of senior housing units.
36(4) For housing developments meeting the criteria of 
37subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), the density 
38bonus shall be calculated as follows: 
| Percentage Moderate-Income Units | Percentage Density Bonus | 
| 10 | 5 | 
| 11 | 6 | 
| 12 | 7 | 
| 13 | 8 | 
| 14 | 9 | 
| 15 | 10 | 
| 16 | 11 | 
| 17 | 12 | 
| 18 | 13 | 
| 19 | 14 | 
| 20 | 15 | 
| 21 | 16 | 
| 22 | 17 | 
| 23 | 18 | 
| 24 | 19 | 
| 25 | 20 | 
| 26 | 21 | 
| 27 | 22 | 
| 28 | 23 | 
| 29 | 24 | 
| 30 | 25 | 
| 31 | 26 | 
| 32 | 27 | 
| 33 | 28 | 
| 34 | 29 | 
| 35 | 30 | 
| 36 | 31 | 
| 37 | 32 | 
| 38 | 33 | 
| 39 | 34 | 
| 40 | 35 | 
33(5) All density calculations resulting in fractional units shall be 
34rounded up to the next whole number. The granting of a density 
35bonus shall not be interpreted, in and of itself, to require a general 
36plan amendment, local coastal plan amendment, zoning change, 
37or other discretionary approval.
38(g) (1) When an applicant for a tentative subdivision map, 
39parcel map, or other residential development approval donates 
40land to a city, county, or city and county in accordance with this 
P180  1subdivision, the applicant shall be entitled to a 15-percent increase 
2above the otherwise maximum allowable residential density for 
3the entire development, as follows: 
| Percentage Very Low Income | Percentage Density Bonus | 
| 10 | 15 | 
| 11 | 16 | 
| 12 | 17 | 
| 13 | 18 | 
| 14 | 19 | 
| 15 | 20 | 
| 16 | 21 | 
| 17 | 22 | 
| 18 | 23 | 
| 19 | 24 | 
| 20 | 25 | 
| 21 | 26 | 
| 22 | 27 | 
| 23 | 28 | 
| 24 | 29 | 
| 25 | 30 | 
| 26 | 31 | 
| 27 | 32 | 
| 28 | 33 | 
| 29 | 34 | 
| 30 | 35 | 
28(2) This increase shall be in addition to any increase in density 
29mandated by subdivision (b), up to a maximum combined mandated 
30density increase of 35 percent if an applicant seeks an increase 
31pursuant to both this subdivision and subdivision (b). All density 
32calculations resulting in fractional units shall be rounded up to the 
33next whole number. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed 
34to enlarge or diminish the authority of a city, county, or city and 
35county to require a developer to donate land as a condition of 
36development. An applicant shall be eligible for the increased 
37density bonus described in this subdivision if all of the following 
38conditions are met:
P181  1(A) The applicant donates and transfers the land no later than 
2the date of approval of the final subdivision map, parcel map, or 
3residential development application.
4(B) The developable acreage and zoning classification of the 
5land being transferred are sufficient to permit construction of units 
6affordable to very low income households in an amount not less 
7than 10 percent of the number of residential units of the proposed 
8development.
9(C) The transferred land is at least one acre in size or of 
10sufficient size to permit development of at least 40 units, has the 
11appropriate general plan designation, is appropriately zoned with 
12appropriate development standards for development at the density 
13described in paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) of Section 65583.2, 
14and is or will be served by adequate public facilities and 
15infrastructure.
16(D) The transferred land shall have all of the permits and 
17approvals, other than building permits, necessary for the 
18development of the very low income housing units on the 
19transferred land, not later than
				  the date of approval of the final 
20subdivision map, parcel map, or residential development 
21application, except that the local government may subject the 
22proposed development to subsequent design review to the extent 
23authorized by subdivision (i) of Section 65583.2 if the design is 
24not reviewed by the local government prior to the time of transfer.
25(E) The transferred land and the affordable units shall be subject 
26to a deed restriction ensuring continued affordability of the units 
27consistent with paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision (c), which 
28shall be recorded on the property at the time of the transfer.
29(F) The land is transferred to the local agency or to a housing 
30developer approved by the local agency. The local agency may 
31require the applicant to identify and transfer the land to the 
32developer.
33(G) The
				  transferred land shall be within the boundary of the 
34proposed development or, if the local agency agrees, within 
35one-quarter mile of the boundary of the proposed development.
36(H) A proposed source of funding for the very low income units 
37shall be identified not later than the date of approval of the final 
38subdivision map, parcel map, or residential development 
39application.
P182  1(h) (1) When an applicant proposes to construct a housing 
2development that conforms to the requirements of subdivision (b) 
3and includes a child care facility that will be located on the 
4premises of, as part of, or adjacent to, the project, the city, county, 
5or city and county shall grant either of the following:
6(A) An additional density bonus that is an amount of square 
7feet of residential space that is equal to or greater
				  than the amount 
8of square feet in the child care facility.
9(B) An additional concession or incentive that contributes 
10significantly to the economic feasibility of the construction of the 
11child care facility.
12(2) The city, county, or city and county shall require, as a 
13condition of approving the housing development, that the following 
14occur:
15(A) The child care facility shall remain in operation for a period 
16of time that is as long as or longer than the period of time during 
17which the density bonus units are required to remain affordable 
18pursuant to subdivision (c).
19(B) Of the children who attend the child care facility, the 
20children of very low income households, lower income households, 
21or families of moderate income shall equal a percentage that is
22
				  equal to or greater than the percentage of dwelling units that are 
23required for very low income households, lower income 
24households, or families of moderate income pursuant to subdivision 
25(b).
26(3) Notwithstanding any requirement of this subdivision, a city, 
27county, or city and county shall not be required to provide a density 
28bonus or concession for a child care facility if it finds, based upon 
29substantial evidence, that the community has adequate child care 
30facilities.
31(4) “Child care facility,” as used in this section, means a child 
32day care facility other than a family day care home, including, but 
33not limited to, infant centers, preschools, extended day care 
34facilities, and schoolage child care centers.
35(i) “Housing development,” as used in this section, means a 
36development project for five or more residential
				  units. For the 
37purposes of this section, “housing development” also includes a 
38subdivision or common interest development, as defined in Section 
394100 of the Civil Code, approved by a city, county, or city and 
40county and consists of residential units or unimproved residential 
P183  1lots and either a project to substantially rehabilitate and convert 
2an existing commercial building to residential use or the substantial 
3rehabilitation of an existing multifamily dwelling, as defined in 
4subdivision (d) of Section 65863.4, where the result of the 
5rehabilitation would be a net increase in available residential units. 
6For the purpose of calculating a density bonus, the residential units 
7shall be on contiguous sites that are the subject of one development 
8application, but do not have to be based upon individual 
9subdivision maps or parcels. The density bonus shall be permitted 
10in geographic areas of the housing development other than the 
11areas where the units for the lower income households are located.
12(j) The granting of a concession or incentive shall not be 
13interpreted, in and of itself, to require a general plan amendment, 
14local coastal plan amendment, zoning change, or other discretionary 
15approval. This provision is declaratory of existing law.
16(k) For the purposes of this chapter, concession or incentive 
17means any of the following:
18(1) A reduction in site development standards or a modification 
19of zoning code requirements or architectural design requirements 
20that exceed the minimum building standards approved by the 
21California Building Standards Commission as provided in Part 2.5 
22(commencing with Section 18901) of Division 13 of the Health 
23and Safety Code, including, but not limited to, a reduction in 
24setback and square footage requirements and in the ratio of 
25vehicular parking spaces that would otherwise be
				  required that 
26results in identifiable, financially sufficient, and actual cost 
27reductions.
28(2) Approval of mixed-use zoning in conjunction with the 
29housing project if commercial, office, industrial, or other land uses 
30will reduce the cost of the housing development and if the 
31commercial, office, industrial, or other land uses are compatible 
32with the housing project and the existing or planned development 
33in the area where the proposed housing project will be located.
34(3) Other regulatory incentives or concessions proposed by the 
35developer or the city, county, or city and county that result in 
36identifiable, financially sufficient, and actual cost reductions.
37(l) Subdivision (k) does not limit or require the provision of 
38direct financial incentives for the housing development, including 
39the provision of publicly owned
				  land, by the city, county, or city 
40and county, or the waiver of fees or dedication requirements.
P184  1(m)  This section shall not be construed to supersede or in any 
2way alter or lessen the effect or application of the California 
3Coastal Act of 1976 (Division 20 (commencing with Section 
430000) of the Public Resources Code).
5(n) If permitted by local ordinance, nothing in this section shall 
6be construed to prohibit a city, county, or city and county from 
7granting a density bonus greater than what is described in this 
8section for a development that meets the requirements of this 
9section or from granting a proportionately lower density bonus 
10than what is required by this section for developments that do not 
11meet the requirements of this section.
12(o) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall 
13apply:
14(1) “Development standard” includes a site or construction 
15condition, including, but not limited to, a height limitation, a 
16setback requirement, a floor area ratio, an onsite open-space 
17requirement, or a parking ratio that applies to a residential 
18development pursuant to any ordinance, general plan element, 
19specific plan, charter, or other local condition, law, policy, 
20resolution, or regulation.
21(2) “Maximum allowable residential density” means the density 
22allowed under the zoning ordinance and land use element of the 
23general plan, or if a range of density is permitted, means the 
24maximum allowable density for the specific zoning range and land 
25use element of the general plan applicable to the project. Where 
26the density allowed under the zoning ordinance is inconsistent 
27with the density allowed under the land use element of the general 
28plan, the general plan density shall prevail.
29(p) (1) Upon the request of the developer, no city, county, or 
30city and county shall require a vehicular parking ratio, inclusive 
31of handicapped and guest parking, of a development meeting the 
32criteria of subdivision (b), that exceeds the following ratios:
33(A) Zero to one bedroom: one onsite parking space.
34(B) Two to three bedrooms: two onsite parking spaces.
35(C) Four and more bedrooms: two and one-half parking spaces.
36(2) If the total number of parking spaces required for a 
37development is other than a whole number, the number shall be 
38rounded up to the next whole number. For purposes of this 
39subdivision, a development may provide “onsite parking” through 
P185  1tandem parking
				  or uncovered parking, but not through onstreet 
2parking.
3(3) This subdivision shall apply to a development that meets 
4the requirements of subdivision (b) but only at the request of the 
5applicant. An applicant may request parking incentives or 
6concessions beyond those provided in this subdivision pursuant 
7to subdivision (d).
The heading of Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 
980) of Division 1 of the Harbors and Navigation Code, as added 
10by Section 2 of Chapter 136 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended 
11to read:
12
Section 80.2 of the Harbors and Navigation Code, 
16as added by Section 2 of Chapter 136 of the Statutes of 2012, is 
17amended to read:
The commission shall be composed of seven members 
19appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the 
20Senate. The members shall have experience and background 
21consistent with the functions of the commission. In making 
22appointments to the commission, the Governor shall give primary 
23consideration to geographical location of the residence of members 
24as related to boating activities and harbors. In addition to the 
25geographical considerations, the members of the commission shall 
26be appointed with regard to their special interests in recreational 
27boating. At least one of the members shall be a member of a 
28recognized statewide organization representing recreational boaters. 
29One member of the commission shall be a private small craft harbor 
30owner and operator. One member of the commission shall be an 
31officer or employee of a law enforcement agency
				  responsible for 
32enforcing boating laws.
33The Governor shall appoint the first seven members of the 
34commission for the following terms to expire on January 15: one 
35member for one year, two members for two years, two members 
36for three years, and two members for four years. Thereafter, 
37appointments shall be for a four-year term. Vacancies occurring 
38prior to the expiration of the term shall be filled by appointment 
39for the unexpired term.
Section 82 of the Harbors and Navigation Code, as 
2added by Section 2 of Chapter 136 of the Statutes of 2012, is 
3amended to read:
The division, consistent with Section 82.3, and in 
5furtherance of the public interest and in accordance therewith, shall 
6have only the following duties with respect to the commission:
7(a) To submit any proposed changes in regulations pertaining 
8to boating functions and responsibilities of the division to the 
9commission for its advice and comment prior to enactment of 
10changes.
11(b) To submit proposals for transfers pursuant to Section 70, 
12loans pursuant to Section 71.4 or 76.3, and grants pursuant to 
13Section 72.5 to the commission for its advice and comment.
14(c) To submit any proposed project it is considering approving 
15to the commission if that project could have
				  a potentially significant 
16impact on either public health or safety, public access, or the 
17environment for the commission’s advice and comment prior to 
18approval by the division.
19(d) To annually submit a report on its budget and expenditures 
20to the commission for its advice and comment.
21(e) To cause studies and surveys to be made of the need for 
22small craft harbors and connecting waterways throughout the state 
23and the most suitable sites therefor, and submit those studies and 
24surveys to the commission for advice and comment.
Section 1339.40 of the Health and Safety Code is 
26amended to read:
For purposes of this article, the following definitions 
28apply:
29(a) “Bereavement services” has the same meaning as defined 
30in subdivision (a) of Section 1746.
31(b) “Hospice care” means a specialized form of interdisciplinary 
32health care that is designed to provide palliative care, alleviate the 
33physical, emotional, social, and spiritual discomforts of an 
34individual who is experiencing the last phases of life due to the 
35existence of a terminal disease, and provide supportive care to the 
36primary caregiver and the family of the hospice patient, and that 
37meets all of the following criteria:
38(1) Considers the patient and the patient’s family, in addition 
39to the
				  patient, as the unit of care.
P187  1(2) Utilizes an interdisciplinary team to assess the physical, 
2medical, psychological, social, and spiritual needs of the patient 
3and the patient’s family.
4(3) Requires the interdisciplinary team to develop an overall 
5plan of care and to provide coordinated care that emphasizes 
6supportive services, including, but not limited to, home care, pain 
7control, and limited inpatient services. Limited inpatient services 
8are intended to ensure both continuity of care and appropriateness 
9of services for those patients who cannot be managed at home 
10because of acute complications or the temporary absence of a 
11capable primary caregiver.
12(4) Provides for the palliative medical treatment of pain and 
13other symptoms associated with a terminal disease, but does not 
14provide for efforts to cure the
				  disease.
15(5) Provides for bereavement services following death to assist 
16the family in coping with social and emotional needs associated 
17with the death of the patient.
18(6) Actively utilizes volunteers in the delivery of hospice 
19services.
20(7) To the extent appropriate, based on the medical needs of the 
21patient, provides services in the patient’s home or primary place 
22of residence.
23(c) “Hospice facility” means a health facility as defined in 
24subdivision (n) of Section 1250.
25(d) “Inpatient hospice care” means hospice care that is provided 
26to patients in a hospice facility, including routine, continuous, and 
27inpatient care directly as specified in Section 418.110 of Title 42 
28of the Code of
				  Federal Regulations, and may include short-term 
29inpatient respite care as specified in Section 418.108 of Title 42 
30of the Code of Federal Regulations.
31(e) “Interdisciplinary team” has the same meaning as defined 
32in subdivision (g) of Section 1746.
33(f) “Medical direction” has the same meaning as defined in 
34subdivision (h) of Section 1746.
35(g) “Palliative care” has the same meaning as defined in 
36subdivision (j) of Section 1746.
37(h) “Plan of care” has the same meaning as defined in 
38subdivision (l) of Section 1746.
39(i) “Skilled nursing services” has the same meaning as defined 
40in subdivision (n) of Section 1746.
P188  1(j) “Social
				  services/counseling services” has the same meaning 
2as defined in subdivision (o) of Section 1746.
3(k) “Terminal disease” or “terminal illness” has the same 
4meaning as defined in subdivision (p) of Section 1746.
5(l) “Volunteer services” has the same meaning as defined in 
6subdivision (q) of Section 1746.
Section 1339.41 of the Health and Safety Code is 
8amended to read:
(a) A person, governmental agency, or political 
10subdivision of the state shall not be licensed as a hospice facility 
11under this chapter unless the person or entity is a provider of 
12hospice services licensed pursuant to Section 1751 and is certified 
13as a hospice facility under Part 418 of Title 42 of the Code of 
14Federal Regulations.
15(b) A hospice provider that intends to provide inpatient hospice 
16care in the hospice provider’s own facility shall submit an 
17application and fee for licensure as a hospice facility under this 
18chapter. Notwithstanding the maximum period for a provisional 
19license under subdivision (b) of Section 1268.5, the department 
20may issue a provisional license to a hospice facility for a period 
21of up to one year.
22(c) A verified application for a new license completed on forms 
23furnished by the department shall be submitted to the department 
24upon the occurrence of either of the following:
25(1) Establishment of a hospice facility.
26(2) Change of ownership.
27(d) The licensee shall submit to the department a verified 
28application for a corrected license completed on forms furnished 
29by the department upon the occurrence of any of the following:
30(1) Construction of new or replacement hospice facility.
31(2) Increase in licensed bed capacity.
32(3) Change of name of facility.
33(4) Change of licensed category.
34(5) Change of location of facility.
35(6) Change in bed classification.
36(e) (1) A hospice facility that participates in the Medicare and 
37Medicaid programs may obtain initial certification from a federal 
38Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) approved 
39accreditation organization.
P189  1(2) If the CMS-approved accreditation organization conducts 
2certification inspections, the hospice facility shall transmit to the 
3department, within 30 days of receipt, a copy of the final 
4accreditation report of the accreditation organization.
5(f) A hospice facility shall be separately
				  licensed, irrespective 
6of the location of the facility.
7(g) (1) The licensee shall notify the department in writing of 
8any changes in the information provided pursuant to subdivision 
9(d) within 10 days of these changes. This notice shall include 
10information and documentation regarding the changes.
11(2) Each licensee shall notify the department within 10 days in 
12writing of any change of the mailing address of the licensee. This 
13notice shall include the new mailing address of the licensee.
14(3) When a change in the principal officer of a corporate 
15licensee, including the chairman, president, or general manager 
16occurs, the licensee shall notify the department of this change 
17within 10 days in writing. This notice shall include the name and 
18business address of the officer.
19(4) Any decrease in licensed bed capacity of the facility shall 
20require notification by letter to the department and shall result in 
21the issuance of a corrected license.
Section 1367.65 of the Health and Safety Code is 
23amended to read:
(a) On or after January 1, 2000, each health care 
25service plan contract, except a specialized health care service plan 
26contract, that is issued, amended, delivered, or renewed shall be 
27deemed to provide coverage for mammography for screening or 
28diagnostic purposes upon referral by a participating nurse 
29practitioner, participating certified nurse-midwife, participating 
30physician assistant, or participating physician, providing care to 
31the patient and operating within the scope of practice provided 
32under existing law.
33(b) This section does not prevent application of copayment or 
34deductible provisions in a plan, nor shall this section be construed 
35to require that a plan be extended to cover any other procedures 
36under an individual or a group health care service plan
				  contract. 
37This section does not authorize a plan enrollee to receive the 
38services required to be covered by this section if those services 
39are furnished by a nonparticipating provider, unless the plan 
P190  1enrollee is referred to that provider by a participating physician, 
2nurse practitioner, or certified nurse-midwife providing care.
Section 1531.15 of the Health and Safety Code is 
4amended to read:
(a) A licensee of an adult residential facility or group 
6home for no more than 15 residents, that is eligible for and serving 
7clients eligible for federal Medicaid funding and utilizing delayed 
8egress devices pursuant to Section 1531.1, may install and utilize 
9secured perimeters in accordance with the provisions of this 
10section.
11(b) As used in this section, “secured perimeters” means fences 
12that meet the requirements prescribed by this section.
13(c) Only individuals meeting all of the following conditions 
14may be admitted to or reside in a facility described in subdivision 
15(a) utilizing secured perimeters:
16(1) The person shall have a
				  developmental disability as defined 
17in Section 4512 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
18(2) The person shall be receiving services and case management 
19from a regional center under the Lanterman Developmental 
20Disabilities Services Act (Division 4.5 (commencing with Section 
214500) of the Welfare and Institutions Code).
22(3) (A) The person shall be 14 years of age or older, except as 
23specified in subparagraph (B).
24(B) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A), a child who is at least 
2510 years of age and less than 14 years of age may be placed in a 
26licensed group home described in subdivision (a) using secured 
27perimeters only if both of the following occur:
28(i) A comprehensive assessment is conducted and an individual 
29program plan meeting is
				  convened to determine the services and 
30supports needed for the child to receive services in a less restrictive, 
31unlocked residential setting in California, and the regional center 
32requests assistance from the State Department of Developmental 
33Services’ statewide specialized resource service to identify options 
34to serve the child in a less restrictive, unlocked residential setting 
35in California.
36(ii) The regional center requests placement of the child in a 
37licensed group home described in subdivision (a) using secured 
38perimeters on the basis that the placement is necessary to prevent 
39out-of-state placement or placement in a more restrictive, locked 
P191  1residential setting and the State Department of Developmental 
2Services approves the request.
3(4) The person is not a foster child under the jurisdiction of the 
4juvenile court pursuant to Section 300, 450, 601, or 602 of the 
5Welfare and
				  Institutions Code.
6(5) An interdisciplinary team, through the individual program 
7plan (IPP) process pursuant to Section 4646.5 of the Welfare and 
8Institutions Code, shall have determined the person lacks hazard 
9awareness or impulse control and, for his or her safety and security, 
10requires the level of supervision afforded by a facility equipped 
11with secured perimeters, and, but for this placement, the person 
12would be at risk of admission to, or would have no option but to 
13remain in, a more restrictive placement. The individual program 
14planning team shall determine the continued appropriateness of 
15the placement at least annually.
16(d) The licensee shall be subject to all applicable fire and 
17building codes, regulations, and standards, and shall receive 
18approval by the county or city fire department, the local fire 
19prevention district, or the State Fire Marshal for the installed
20
				  secured perimeters.
21(e) The licensee shall provide staff training regarding the use 
22and operation of the secured perimeters, protection of residents’ 
23personal rights, lack of hazard awareness and impulse control 
24behavior, and emergency evacuation procedures.
25(f) The licensee shall revise its facility plan of operation. These 
26revisions shall first be approved by the State Department of 
27Developmental Services. The plan of operation shall not be 
28approved by the State Department of Social Services unless the 
29licensee provides certification that the plan was approved by the 
30State Department of Developmental Services. The plan shall 
31include, but not be limited to, all of the following:
32(1) A description of how the facility is to be equipped with 
33secured perimeters that are consistent with regulations adopted by 
34the State
				  Fire Marshal pursuant to Section 13143.6.
35(2) A description of how the facility will provide training for 
36staff.
37(3) A description of how the facility will ensure the protection 
38of the residents’ personal rights consistent with Sections 4502, 
394503, and 4504 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and any 
P192  1applicable personal rights provided in Title 22 of the California 
2Code of Regulations.
3(4) A description of how the facility will manage residents’ lack 
4of hazard awareness and impulse control behavior.
5(5) A description of the facility’s emergency evacuation 
6procedures.
7(g) Secured perimeters shall not substitute for adequate staff.
8(h) Emergency fire and earthquake drills shall be conducted on 
9each shift in accordance with existing licensing requirements, and 
10shall include all facility staff providing resident care and 
11supervision on each shift.
12(i) Interior and exterior space shall be available on the facility 
13premises to permit clients to move freely and safely.
14(j) For the purpose of using secured perimeters, the licensee 
15shall not be required to obtain a waiver or exception to a regulation 
16that would otherwise prohibit the locking of a perimeter fence or 
17gate.
18(k) This section shall become operative only upon the 
19publication in Title 17 of the California Code of Regulations of 
20emergency regulations filed by the State Department of 
21Developmental Services. These regulations shall be developed 
22with stakeholders, including the
				  State Department of Social 
23Services, consumer advocates, and regional centers. The regulations 
24shall establish program standards for homes that include secured 
25perimeters, including requirements and timelines for the completion 
26and updating of a comprehensive assessment of each consumer’s 
27needs, including the identification through the individual program 
28plan process of the services and supports needed to transition the 
29consumer to a less restrictive living arrangement, and a timeline 
30for identifying or developing those services and supports. The 
31regulations shall establish a statewide limit on the total number of 
32beds in homes with secured perimeters. The adoption of these 
33regulations shall be deemed to be an emergency and necessary for 
34the immediate preservation of the public peace, health and safety, 
35or general welfare.
Section 11378 of the Health and Safety Code is 
37amended to read:
Except as otherwise provided in Article 7 (commencing 
39with Section 4110) of Chapter 9 of Division 2 of the Business and 
40Professions Code, a person who possesses for sale a controlled 
P193  1substance that meets any of the following criteria shall be punished 
2by imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170 of 
3the Penal Code:
4 (1) The substance is classified in Schedule III, IV, or V and is 
5not a narcotic drug, except the substance specified in subdivision 
6(g) of Section 11056.
7 (2) The substance is specified in subdivision (d) of Section 
811054, except paragraphs (13), (14), (15), (20), (21), (22), and 
9(23) of subdivision (d).
10 (3) The substance is
				  specified in paragraph (11) of subdivision 
11(c) of Section 11056.
12 (4) The substance is specified in paragraph (2) or (3) of 
13subdivision (f) of Section 11054.
14 (5) The substance is specified in subdivision (d), (e), or (f), 
15except paragraph (3) of subdivision (e) and subparagraphs (A) and 
16(B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (f), of Section 11055.
Section 11755 of the Health and Safety Code is 
18amended to read:
The department shall do all of the following:
20(a) Adopt regulations pursuant to Section 11152 of the 
21Government Code.
22(b) Employ administrative, technical, and other personnel as 
23may be necessary for the performance of its powers and duties.
24(c) Do or perform any of the acts that may be necessary, 
25desirable, or proper to carry out the purpose of this division.
26(d) Provide funds to counties for the planning and 
27implementation of local programs to alleviate problems related to 
28alcohol and other drug use.
29(e) Review and execute
				  contracts for drug and alcohol services 
30submitted for funds allocated or administered by the department.
31(f) Provide for technical assistance and training to local alcohol 
32and other drug programs to assist in the planning and 
33implementation of quality services.
34(g) Review research in, and serve as a resource to provide 
35information relating to, alcohol and other drug programs.
36(h) In cooperation with the Department of Human Resources, 
37encourage training in other state agencies to assist the agencies to 
38recognize employee problems relating to alcohol and other drug 
39use that affects job performance and encourage the employees to 
40seek appropriate services.
P194  1(i) Assist and cooperate with the Office of Statewide Health 
2Planning and Development in the drafting
				  and adoption of the state 
3health plan to ensure inclusion of appropriate provisions relating 
4to alcohol and other drug problems.
5(j) In the same manner and subject to the same conditions as 
6other state agencies, develop and submit annually to the 
7Department of Finance a program budget for the alcohol and other 
8drug programs, which budget shall include expenditures proposed 
9to be made under this division, and may include expenditures 
10proposed to be made by any other state agency relating to alcohol 
11and other drug problems, pursuant to an interagency agreement 
12with the department.
13(k)  Review and certify alcohol and other drug programs meeting 
14state standards pursuant to Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 
1511830) and Chapter 13 (commencing with Section 11847) of Part 
162.
17(l) Develop standards for ensuring minimal
				  statewide levels of 
18service quality provided by alcohol and other drug programs.
19(m) Review and license narcotic treatment programs.
20(n) Develop and implement, in partnership with the counties, 
21alcohol and other drug prevention strategies especially designed 
22for youth.
23(o) Develop and maintain a centralized alcohol and drug abuse 
24indicator data collection system that shall gather and obtain 
25information on the status of the alcohol and other drug abuse 
26problems in the state. This information shall include, but not be 
27limited to, all of the following:
28(1) The number and characteristics of persons receiving recovery 
29or treatment services from alcohol and other drug programs 
30providing publicly funded services or services licensed by the 
31state.
32(2) The location and types of services offered by these programs.
33(3) The number of admissions to hospitals on both an emergency 
34room and inpatient basis for treatment related to alcohol and other 
35drugs.
36(4) The number of arrests for alcohol and other drug violations.
37(5) The number of Department of Corrections and 
38Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Facilities, commitments for 
39drug violations.
P195  1(6) The number of Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation 
2commitments for drug violations.
3(7) The number or percentage of persons having alcohol or other 
4drug problems as determined by survey information.
5(8) The amounts of illicit drugs confiscated by law enforcement 
6in the state.
7(9) The statewide alcohol and other drug program distribution 
8and the fiscal impact of alcohol and other drug problems upon the 
9state.
10Providers of publicly funded services or services licensed by the 
11department to clients-participants shall report data in a manner, in 
12a format, and under a schedule prescribed by the department.
13(p) Issue an annual report that portrays the drugs abused, 
14populations affected, user characteristics, crime-related costs, 
15socioeconomic costs, and other related information deemed 
16necessary in providing a problem profile of alcohol and other drug 
17abuse in the state.
18(q) (1) Require any
				  individual, public or private organization, 
19or government agency, receiving federal grant funds, to comply 
20with all federal statutes, regulations, guidelines, and terms and 
21conditions of the grants. The failure of the individual, public or 
22private organization, or government agency, to comply with the 
23statutes, regulations, guidelines, and terms and conditions of grants 
24received may result in the department’s disallowing noncompliant 
25costs, or the suspension or termination of the contract or grant 
26award allocating the grant funds.
27(2) Adopt regulations implementing this subdivision in 
28accordance with Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) 
29of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code. For the 
30purposes of the Administrative Procedure Act, the adoption of the 
31regulations shall be deemed necessary for the preservation of the 
32public peace, health and safety, or general welfare. Subsequent 
33amendments to the adoption of emergency
				  regulations shall be 
34deemed an emergency only if those amendments are adopted in 
35direct response to a change in federal statutes, regulations, 
36guidelines, or the terms and conditions of federal grants. Nothing 
37in this paragraph shall be interpreted as prohibiting the department 
38from adopting subsequent amendments on a nonemergency basis 
39or as emergency regulations in accordance with the standards set 
40forth in Section 11346.1 of the Government Code.
Section 25110.11 of the Health and Safety Code is 
2amended to read:
(a) “Contained gaseous material,” for purposes of 
4subdivision (a) of Section 25124 or any other provision of this 
5chapter, means any gas that is contained in an enclosed cylinder 
6or other enclosed container.
7(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), “contained gaseous 
8material” does not include any exhaust or flue gas, or other vapor 
9stream, or any air or exhaust gas stream that is filtered or otherwise 
10processed to remove particulates, dusts, or other air pollutants, 
11regardless of the source.
Section 34177 of the Health and Safety Code is 
13amended to read:
Successor agencies are required to do all of the 
15following:
16(a) Continue to make payments due for enforceable obligations.
17(1) On and after February 1, 2012, and until a Recognized 
18Obligation Payment Schedule becomes operative, only payments 
19required pursuant to an enforceable obligations payment schedule 
20shall be made. The initial enforceable obligation payment schedule 
21shall be the last schedule adopted by the redevelopment agency 
22under Section 34169. However, payments associated with 
23obligations excluded from the definition of enforceable obligations 
24by paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 34171 shall be 
25excluded from the enforceable obligations payment schedule and 
26be removed from the last schedule adopted by the
				  redevelopment 
27agency under Section 34169 prior to the successor agency adopting 
28it as its enforceable obligations payment schedule pursuant to this 
29subdivision. The enforceable obligation payment schedule may 
30be amended by the successor agency at any public meeting and 
31shall be subject to the approval of the oversight board as soon as 
32the board has sufficient members to form a quorum. In recognition 
33of the fact that the timing of the California Supreme Court’s ruling 
34in the case California Redevelopment Association v. Matosantos 
35(2011) 53 Cal.4th 231 delayed the preparation by successor 
36agencies and the approval by oversight boards of the January 1, 
372012, through June 30, 2012, Recognized Obligation Payment 
38Schedule, a successor agency may amend the Enforceable 
39Obligation Payment Schedule to authorize the continued payment 
40of enforceable obligations until the time that the January 1, 2012, 
P197  1through June 30, 2012, Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule 
2has been approved by the oversight board and by the
				  Department 
3of Finance.
4(2) The Department of Finance and the Controller shall each 
5have the authority to require any documents associated with the 
6enforceable obligations to be provided to them in a manner of their 
7choosing. Any taxing entity, the department, and the Controller 
8shall each have standing to file a judicial action to prevent a 
9violation under this part and to obtain injunctive or other 
10appropriate relief.
11(3) Commencing on the date the Recognized Obligation Payment 
12Schedule is valid pursuant to subdivision (l), only those payments 
13listed in the Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule may be 
14made by the successor agency from the funds specified in the 
15Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule. In addition, after it 
16becomes valid, the Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule shall 
17supersede the Statement of Indebtedness, which shall no longer 
18be prepared nor have any effect
				  under the Community 
19Redevelopment Law (Part 1 (commencing with Section 33000)).
20(4) Nothing in the act adding this part is to be construed as 
21preventing a successor agency, with the prior approval of the 
22oversight board, as described in Section 34179, from making 
23payments for enforceable obligations from sources other than those 
24listed in the Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule.
25(5) From February 1, 2012, to July 1, 2012, a successor agency 
26shall have no authority and is hereby prohibited from accelerating 
27payment or making any lump-sum payments that are intended to 
28prepay loans unless such accelerated repayments were required 
29prior to the effective date of this part.
30(b) Maintain reserves in the amount required by indentures, 
31trust indentures, or similar documents governing the issuance of 
32outstanding
				  redevelopment agency bonds.
33(c) Perform obligations required pursuant to any enforceable 
34obligation.
35(d) Remit unencumbered balances of redevelopment agency 
36funds to the county auditor-controller for distribution to the taxing 
37entities, including, but not limited to, the unencumbered balance 
38of the Low and Moderate Income Housing Fund of a former 
39redevelopment agency. In making the distribution, the county 
40auditor-controller shall utilize the same methodology for allocation 
P198  1and distribution of property tax revenues provided in Section 
234188.
3(e) Dispose of assets and properties of the former redevelopment 
4agency as directed by the oversight board; provided, however, that 
5the oversight board may instead direct the successor agency to 
6transfer ownership of certain assets pursuant to subdivision (a) of 
7Section 34181.
				  The disposal is to be done expeditiously and in a 
8manner aimed at maximizing value. Proceeds from asset sales and 
9related funds that are no longer needed for approved development 
10projects or to otherwise wind down the affairs of the agency, each 
11as determined by the oversight board, shall be transferred to the 
12county auditor-controller for distribution as property tax proceeds 
13under Section 34188. The requirements of this subdivision shall 
14not apply to a successor agency that has been issued a finding of 
15completion by the Department of Finance pursuant to Section 
1634179.7.
17(f) Enforce all former redevelopment agency rights for the 
18benefit of the taxing entities, including, but not limited to, 
19continuing to collect loans, rents, and other revenues that were due 
20to the redevelopment agency.
21(g) Effectuate transfer of housing functions and assets to the 
22appropriate entity designated
				  pursuant to Section 34176.
23(h) Expeditiously wind down the affairs of the redevelopment 
24agency pursuant to the provisions of this part and in accordance 
25with the direction of the oversight board.
26(i) Continue to oversee development of properties until the 
27contracted work has been completed or the contractual obligations 
28of the former redevelopment agency can be transferred to other 
29parties. Bond proceeds shall be used for the purposes for which 
30bonds were sold unless the purposes can no longer be achieved, 
31in which case, the proceeds may be used to defease the bonds.
32(j) Prepare a proposed administrative budget and submit it to 
33the oversight board for its approval. The proposed administrative 
34budget shall include all of the following:
35(1) Estimated
				  amounts for successor agency administrative costs 
36for the upcoming six-month fiscal period.
37(2) Proposed sources of payment for the costs identified in 
38paragraph (1).
39(3) Proposals for arrangements for administrative and operations 
40services provided by a city, county, city and county, or other entity.
P199  1(k) Provide administrative cost estimates, from its approved 
2administrative budget that are to be paid from property tax revenues 
3deposited in the Redevelopment Property Tax Trust Fund, to the 
4county auditor-controller for each six-month fiscal period.
5(l) (1) Before each six-month fiscal period, prepare a 
6Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule in accordance with the 
7requirements of this paragraph. For each recognized obligation, 
8the
				  Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule shall identify one 
9or more of the following sources of payment:
10(A) Low and Moderate Income Housing Fund.
11(B) Bond proceeds.
12(C) Reserve balances.
13(D) Administrative cost allowance.
14(E) The Redevelopment Property Tax Trust Fund, but only to 
15the extent no other funding source is available or when payment 
16from property tax revenues is required by an enforceable obligation 
17or by this part.
18(F) Other revenue sources, including rents, concessions, asset 
19sale proceeds, interest earnings, and any other revenues derived 
20from the former redevelopment agency, as approved by the 
21oversight board in
				  accordance with this part.
22(2) A Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule shall not be 
23deemed valid unless all of the following conditions have been met:
24(A) A Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule is prepared 
25by the successor agency for the enforceable obligations of the 
26former redevelopment agency. The initial schedule shall project 
27the dates and amounts of scheduled payments for each enforceable 
28obligation for the remainder of the time period during which the 
29redevelopment agency would have been authorized to obligate 
30property tax increment had the redevelopment agency not been 
31dissolved.
32(B) The Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule is submitted 
33to and duly approved by the oversight board. The successor agency 
34shall submit a copy of the Recognized Obligation Payment 
35Schedule to the county administrative officer,
				  the county 
36auditor-controller, and the Department of Finance at the same time 
37that the successor agency submits the Recognized Obligation 
38Payment Schedule to the oversight board for approval.
39(C) A copy of the approved Recognized Obligation Payment 
40Schedule is submitted to the county auditor-controller and both 
P200  1the Controller’s office and the Department of Finance and be posted 
2on the successor agency’s Internet Web site.
3(3) The Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule shall be 
4forward looking to the next six months. The first Recognized 
5Obligation Payment Schedule shall be submitted to the Controller’s 
6office and the Department of Finance by April 15, 2012, for the 
7period of January 1, 2012, to June 30, 2012, inclusive. This 
8Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule shall include all 
9payments made by the former redevelopment agency between 
10January 1, 2012, through January 31, 2012,
				  and shall include all 
11payments proposed to be made by the successor agency from 
12February 1, 2012, through June 30, 2012. Former redevelopment 
13agency enforceable obligation payments due, and reasonable or 
14necessary administrative costs due or incurred, prior to January 1, 
152012, shall be made from property tax revenues received in the 
16spring of 2011 property tax distribution, and from other revenues 
17and balances transferred to the successor agency.
18(m) The Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule for the period 
19of January 1, 2013, to June 30, 2013, shall be submitted by the 
20successor agency, after approval by the oversight board, no later 
21than September 1, 2012. Commencing with the Recognized 
22Obligation Payment Schedule covering the period July 1, 2013, 
23through December 31, 2013, successor agencies shall submit an 
24oversight board-approved Recognized Obligation Payment 
25Schedule to the Department of Finance and to the county 
26auditor-controller no
				  fewer than 90 days before the date of property 
27tax distribution. The Department of Finance shall make its 
28determination of the enforceable obligations and the amounts and 
29funding sources of the enforceable obligations no later than 45 
30days after the Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule is 
31submitted. Within five business days of the department’s 
32determination, a successor agency may request additional review 
33by the department and an opportunity to meet and confer on 
34disputed items. The meet and confer period may vary; an untimely 
35submittal of a Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule may result 
36in a meet and confer period of less than 30 days. The department 
37shall notify the successor agency and the county auditor-controllers 
38as to the outcome of its review at least 15 days before the date of 
39property tax distribution.
P201  1(1) The successor agency shall submit a copy of the Recognized 
2Obligation Payment Schedule to the Department of Finance
3
				  electronically, and the successor agency shall complete the 
4Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule in the manner provided
5 for by the department. A successor agency shall be in 
6noncompliance with this paragraph if it only submits to the 
7department an electronic message or a letter stating that the 
8oversight board has approved a Recognized Obligation Payment 
9Schedule.
10(2) If a successor agency does not submit a Recognized 
11Obligation Payment Schedule by the deadlines provided in this 
12subdivision, the city, county, or city and county that created the 
13redevelopment agency shall be subject to a civil penalty equal to 
14ten thousand dollars ($10,000) per day for every day the schedule 
15is not submitted to the department. The civil penalty shall be paid 
16to the county auditor-controller for allocation to the taxing entities 
17under Section 34183. If a successor agency fails to submit a 
18Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule by the deadline, any 
19creditor of
				  the successor agency or the Department of Finance or 
20any affected taxing entity shall have standing to and may request 
21a writ of mandate to require the successor agency to immediately 
22perform this duty. Those actions may be filed only in the County 
23of Sacramento and shall have priority over other civil matters. 
24Additionally, if an agency does not submit a Recognized Obligation 
25Payment Schedule within 10 days of the deadline, the maximum 
26administrative cost allowance for that period shall be reduced by 
2725 percent.
28(3) If a successor agency fails to submit to the department an 
29oversight board-approved Recognized Obligation Payment 
30Schedule that complies with all requirements of this subdivision 
31within five business days of the date upon which the Recognized 
32Obligation Payment Schedule is to be used to determine the amount 
33of property tax allocations, the department may determine if any 
34amount should be withheld by the county auditor-controller
				  for 
35payments for enforceable obligations from distribution to taxing 
36entities, pending approval of a Recognized Obligation Payment 
37Schedule. The county auditor-controller shall distribute the portion 
38of any of the sums withheld pursuant to this paragraph to the 
39affected taxing entities in accordance with paragraph (4) of 
40subdivision (a) of Section 34183 upon notice by the department 
P202  1that a portion of the withheld balances are in excess of the amount 
2of enforceable obligations. The county auditor-controller shall 
3distribute withheld funds to the successor agency only in 
4accordance with a Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule 
5approved by the department. County auditor-controllers shall lack 
6the authority to withhold any other amounts from the allocations 
7provided for under Section 34183 or 34188, unless required by a 
8court order.
9(n) Cause a postaudit of the financial transactions and records 
10of the successor agency to be made at least annually
				  by a certified 
11public accountant.
Section 34183.5 of the Health and Safety Code is 
13amended to read:
(a) The Legislature hereby finds and declares that 
15due to the delayed implementation of this part due to the California 
16Supreme Court’s ruling in the case California Redevelopment 
17Association v. Matosantos (2011) 53 Cal.4th 231, some disruption 
18to the intended application of this part and other law with respect 
19to passthrough payments may have occurred.
20(1) If a redevelopment agency or successor agency did not pay 
21any portion of an amount owed for the 2011-12 fiscal year to an 
22affected taxing entity pursuant to Section 33401, 33492.140, 33607, 
2333607.5, 33607.7, or 33676, or pursuant to any passthrough 
24agreement entered into before January 1, 1994, between a 
25redevelopment agency and an affected taxing entity, and to the 
26extent the county auditor-controller did not
				  remit the amounts 
27owed for passthrough payments during the 2011-12 fiscal year, 
28the county auditor-controller shall make the required payments to 
29the taxing entities owed passthrough payments and shall reduce 
30the amounts to which the successor agency would otherwise be 
31entitled pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 
3234183 at the next allocation of property tax under this part, subject 
33to subdivision (b) of Section 34183. If the amount of available 
34property tax allocation to the successor agency is not sufficient to 
35make the required payment, the county auditor-controller shall 
36continue to reduce allocations to the successor agency under 
37paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 34183 until the time 
38that the owed amount is fully paid. Alternatively, the county 
39auditor-controller may accept payment from the successor agency’s 
P203  1reserve funds for payments of passthrough payments owed as 
2defined in this subdivision.
3(2) If a
				  redevelopment agency did not pay any portion of the 
4amount owed for the 2011-12 fiscal year to an affected taxing 
5entity pursuant to Section 33401, 33492.140, 33607, 33607.5, 
633607.7, or 33676, or pursuant to any passthrough agreement 
7entered into before January 1, 1994, between a redevelopment 
8agency and an affected taxing entity, but the county 
9auditor-controller did pay the difference that was owing, the county 
10auditor-controller shall deduct from the next allocation of property 
11tax to the successor agency under paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) 
12of Section 34183, the amount of the payment made on behalf of 
13the successor agency by the county auditor-controller, not to exceed 
14one-half the amount of passthrough payments owed for the 
152011-12 fiscal year. If the amount of available property tax 
16allocation to the successor agency is not sufficient to make the 
17required deduction, the county auditor-controller shall continue to 
18reduce allocations to the successor agency under paragraph (2) of 
19subdivision (a) of
				  Section 34183 until the time that the amount is 
20fully deducted. Alternatively, the auditor-controller may accept 
21payment from the successor agency’s reserve funds for deductions 
22of passthrough payments owed as defined in this subdivision. 
23Amounts reduced from successor agency payments under this 
24paragraph are available for the purposes of paragraphs (2) to (4), 
25inclusive, of subdivision (a) of Section 34183 for the six-month 
26period for which the property tax revenues are being allocated.
27(b) In recognition of the fact that county auditor-controllers 
28were unable to make the payments required by paragraph (4) of 
29subdivision (a) of Section 34183 for the period January 1, 2012, 
30through June 30, 2012, on January 16, 2012, due to the California 
31Supreme Court’s ruling in the case of California Redevelopment 
32Association v. Matosantos (2011) 53 Cal.4th 231, in addition to 
33taking the actions specified in Section 34183 with respect to the 
34June 1 property
				  tax allocations, county auditor-controllers should 
35have made allocations as provided in paragraph (1).
36(1) From the allocations made on June 1, 2012, for the 
37Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule covering the period 
38July 1, 2012, through December 31, 2012, deduct from the amount 
39that otherwise would be deposited in the Redevelopment Property 
40Tax Trust Fund on behalf of the successor agency an amount 
P204  1equivalent to the amount that each affected taxing entity was 
2entitled to pursuant to paragraph (4) of subdivision (a) of Section 
334183 for the period January 1, 2012, through June 30, 2012. The 
4amount to be retained by taxing entities pursuant to paragraph (4) 
5of subdivision (a) of Section 34183 for the January 1, 2012, through 
6June 30, 2012, period is determined based on the Recognized 
7Obligation Payment Schedule approved by the Department of 
8Finance pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 34179 and any 
9amount determined to be owed pursuant to
				  this subdivision. Any 
10amounts so computed shall not be offset by any shortages in 
11funding for recognized obligations for the period covering July 1, 
122012, through December 31, 2012.
13(2) (A) If an affected taxing entity has not received the full 
14amount to which it was entitled pursuant to paragraph (4) of 
15subdivision (a) of Section 34183 of the property tax distributed 
16for the period January 1, 2012, through June 30, 2012, and 
17paragraph (1), no later than July 9, 2012, the county 
18auditor-controller shall determine the amount, if any, that is owed 
19by each successor agency to taxing entities and send a demand for 
20payment from the funds of the successor agency for the amount 
21owed to taxing entities if it has distributed the June 1, 2012, 
22allocation to the successor agencies. No later than July 12, 2012, 
23successor agencies shall make payment of the amounts demanded 
24to the county auditor-controller for deposit into the
				  Redevelopment 
25Property Tax Trust Fund and subsequent distribution to taxing 
26entities. No later than July 16, 2012, the county auditor-controller 
27shall make allocations of all money received by that date from 
28successor agencies in amounts owed to taxing entities under this 
29paragraph to taxing entities in accordance with Section 34183. The 
30county auditor-controller shall make allocations of any money 
31received after that date under this paragraph within five business 
32days of receipt. These duties are not discretionary and shall be 
33carried out with due diligence.
34(B) If a county auditor-controller fails to determine the amounts 
35owed to taxing entities and present a demand for payment by July 
369, 2012, to the successor agencies, the Department of Finance or 
37any affected taxing entity may request a writ of mandate to require 
38the county auditor-controller to immediately perform this duty. 
39Such actions may be filed only in the County of Sacramento and
40
				  shall have priority over other civil matters. Any county in which 
P205  1the county auditor-controller fails to perform the duties under this 
2paragraph shall be subject to a civil penalty of 10 percent of the 
3amount owed to taxing entities plus 1.5 percent of the amount 
4owed to taxing entities for each month that the duties are not 
5performed. The civil penalties shall be payable to the taxing entities 
6under Section 34183. Additionally, any county in which the county 
7auditor-controller fails to make the required determinations and 
8demands for payment under this paragraph by July 9, 2012, or fails 
9to distribute the full amount of funds received from successor 
10agencies as required by this paragraph shall not receive the 
11distribution of sales and use tax scheduled for July 18, 2012, or 
12any subsequent payment, up to the amount owed to taxing entities, 
13until the county auditor-controller performs the duties required by 
14this paragraph.
15(C) If a successor
				  agency fails to make the payment demanded 
16under subparagraph (A) by July 12, 2012, the Department of 
17Finance or any affected taxing entity may file for a writ of mandate 
18to require the successor agency to immediately make this payment. 
19Such actions may be filed only in the County of Sacramento and 
20shall have priority over other civil matters. Any successor agency 
21that fails to make payment by July 12, 2012, under this paragraph 
22shall be subject to a civil penalty of 10 percent of the amount owed 
23to taxing entities plus one and one-half percent of the amount owed 
24to taxing entities for each month that the payments are not made. 
25Additionally, the city or county or city and county that created the 
26redevelopment agency shall also be subject to a civil penalty of 
2710 percent of the amount owed to taxing entities plus 1.5 percent 
28of the amount owed to taxing entities for each month the payment 
29is late. The civil penalties shall be payable to the taxing entities 
30under Section 34183. If the Department of Finance
				  finds that the 
31imposition of penalties will jeopardize the payment of enforceable 
32obligations it may request the court to waive some or all of the 
33penalties. A successor agency that does not pay the amount 
34required under this subparagraph by July 12, 2012, shall not pay 
35any obligations other than bond debt service until full payment is 
36made to the county auditor-controller. Additionally, any city, 
37county or city and county that created the redevelopment agency 
38that fails to make the required payment under this paragraph by 
39July 12, 2012, shall not receive the distribution of sales and use 
40tax scheduled for July 18, 2012, or any subsequent payment, up 
P206  1to the amount owed to taxing entities, until the payment required 
2by this paragraph is made.
3(D) The Legislature hereby finds and declares that time is of 
4the essence. Funds that should have been received and were 
5expected and spent in anticipation of receipt by community 
6colleges, schools,
				  counties, cities, and special districts have not 
7been received resulting in significant fiscal impact to the state and 
8taxing entities. Continued delay and uncertainty whether funds 
9will be received warrants the availability of extraordinary relief 
10as authorized herein.
11(3) If an affected taxing entity has not received the full amount 
12to which it was entitled pursuant to paragraph (4) of subdivision 
13(a) of Section 34183 for the period January 1, 2012, through June 
1430, 2012, and paragraph (1), the county auditor-controller shall 
15reapply paragraph (1) to each subsequent property tax allocation 
16until such time as the affected taxing entity has received the full 
17amount to which it was entitled pursuant to paragraph (4) of 
18subdivision (a) of Section 34183 for the period January 1, 2012, 
19through June 30, 2012.
Section 39053 of the Health and Safety Code is 
21amended to read:
“State board” means the State Air Resources Board.
Section 39510 of the Health and Safety Code is 
24amended to read:
(a) The State Air Resources Board is continued in 
26existence in the California Environmental Protection Agency. The 
27state board shall consist of 12 members.
28(b) The members shall be appointed by the Governor, with the 
29consent of the Senate, on the basis of their demonstrated interest 
30and proven ability in the field of air pollution control and their 
31understanding of the needs of the general public in connection 
32with air pollution problems.
33(c) Six members shall have the following qualifications:
34(1) One member shall have training and experience in 
35automotive engineering or closely related fields.
36(2) One member shall have training and experience in chemistry, 
37meteorology, or related scientific fields, including agriculture or 
38law.
39(3) One member shall be a physician and surgeon or an authority 
40on health effects of air pollution.
P207 1(4) Two members shall be public members.
2(5) One member shall have the qualifications specified in 
3paragraph (1), (2), or (3) or shall have experience in the field of 
4air pollution control.
5(d) Six members shall be board members from districts who 
6shall reflect the qualitative requirements of subdivision (c) to the 
7extent practicable. Of these members:
8(1) One shall be a board member from the south coast district.
9(2) One shall be a board member from the bay district.
10(3) One shall be a board member from the San Joaquin Valley 
11Unified Air Pollution Control District.
12(4) One shall be a board member from the San Diego County 
13Air Pollution Control District.
14(5) One shall be a board member from the Sacramento district, 
15the Placer County Air Pollution Control District, the Yolo-Solano 
16Air Quality Management District, the Feather River Air Quality 
17Management District, or the El Dorado County Air Pollution 
18Control District.
19(6) One shall be a board member of any other district.
20(e) Any vacancy shall be filled by the Governor
				  within 30 days 
21of the date on which it occurs. If the Governor fails to make an 
22appointment for any vacancy within the 30-day period, the Senate 
23Committee on Rules may make the appointment to fill the vacancy 
24in accordance with this section.
25(f) While serving on the state board, all members shall exercise 
26their independent judgment as officers of the state on behalf of the 
27interests of the entire state in furthering the purposes of this 
28division. A member of the state board shall not be precluded from 
29voting or otherwise acting upon any matter solely because that 
30member has voted or acted upon the matter in his or her capacity 
31as a member of a district board, except that a member of the state 
32board who is also a member of a district board shall not participate 
33in any action regarding his or her district taken by the state board 
34pursuant to Sections 41503 to 41505, inclusive.
Section 39710 of the Health and Safety Code is 
36amended to read:
For purposes of this chapter, “fund” means the 
38Greenhouse Gas Reduction Fund, created pursuant to Section 
3916428.8 of the Government Code.
Section 39712 of the Health and Safety Code is 
2amended to read:
(a) (1) It is the intent of the Legislature that moneys 
4shall be appropriated from the fund only in a manner consistent 
5with the requirements of this chapter and Article 9.7 (commencing 
6with Section 16428.8) of Chapter 2 of Part 2 of Division 4 of Title 
72 of the Government Code.
8(2) The state shall not approve allocations for a measure or 
9program using moneys appropriated from the fund except after 
10determining, based on the available evidence, that the use of those 
11moneys furthers the regulatory purposes of Division 25.5 
12(commencing with Section 38500) and is consistent with law. If 
13any expenditure of moneys from the fund for any measure or 
14project is determined by a court to be inconsistent with law, the 
15allocations for the remaining measures
				  or projects shall be 
16severable and shall not be affected.
17(b) Moneys shall be used to facilitate the achievement of 
18reductions of greenhouse gas emissions in this state consistent 
19with Division 25.5 (commencing with Section 38500) and, where 
20applicable and to the extent feasible:
21(1) Maximize economic, environmental, and public health 
22benefits to the state.
23(2) Foster job creation by promoting in-state greenhouse gas 
24emissions reduction projects carried out by California workers and 
25businesses.
26(3) Complement efforts to improve air quality.
27(4) Direct investment toward the most disadvantaged 
28communities and households in the state.
29(5) Provide opportunities for businesses, public agencies, 
30nonprofits, and other community institutions to participate in and 
31benefit from statewide efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
32(6) Lessen the impacts and effects of climate change on the 
33state’s communities, economy, and environment.
34(c) Moneys appropriated from the fund may be allocated, 
35consistent with subdivision (a), for the purpose of reducing 
36greenhouse gas emissions in this state through investments that 
37may include, but are not limited to, any of the following:
38(1) Funding to reduce greenhouse gas emissions through energy 
39efficiency, clean and renewable energy generation, distributed 
40renewable energy generation, transmission and storage, and other 
P209  1related actions, including, but not limited to, at public universities, 
2state and
				  local public buildings, and industrial and manufacturing 
3facilities.
4(2) Funding to reduce greenhouse gas emissions through the 
5development of state-of-the-art systems to move goods and freight, 
6advanced technology vehicles and vehicle infrastructure, advanced 
7biofuels, and low-carbon and efficient public transportation.
8(3) Funding to reduce greenhouse gas emissions associated with 
9water use and supply, land and natural resource conservation and 
10management, forestry, and sustainable agriculture.
11(4) Funding to reduce greenhouse gas emissions through 
12strategic planning and development of sustainable infrastructure 
13projects, including, but not limited to, transportation and housing.
14(5) Funding to reduce greenhouse gas emissions through 
15increased
				  in-state diversion of municipal solid waste from disposal 
16through waste reduction, diversion, and reuse.
17(6) Funding to reduce greenhouse gas emissions through 
18investments in programs implemented by local and regional 
19agencies, local and regional collaboratives, and nonprofit 
20organizations coordinating with local governments.
21(7) Funding research, development, and deployment of 
22innovative technologies, measures, and practices related to 
23programs and projects funded pursuant to this chapter.
Section 39716 of the Health and Safety Code is 
25amended to read:
(a) The Department of Finance, on behalf of the 
27Governor, and in consultation with the state board and any other 
28relevant state entity, shall develop and submit to the Legislature 
29at the time of the department’s adjustments to the proposed 
302013-14 fiscal year budget pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 
3113308 of the Government Code a three-year investment plan. 
32Commencing with the 2016-17 fiscal year budget and every three 
33years thereafter, with the release of the Governor’s budget proposal, 
34the Department of Finance shall include updates to the investment 
35plan following the public process described in subdivisions (b) 
36and (c). The investment plan, consistent with the requirements of 
37Section 39712, shall do all of the following:
38(1) Identify the state’s near-term
				  and long-term greenhouse gas 
39emissions reduction goals and targets by sector.
P210  1(2) Analyze gaps, where applicable, in current state strategies 
2to meeting the state’s greenhouse gas emissions reduction goals 
3and targets by sector.
4(3) Identify priority programmatic investments of moneys that 
5will facilitate the achievement of feasible and cost-effective 
6greenhouse gas emissions reductions toward achievement of 
7greenhouse gas reduction goals and targets by sector, consistent 
8with subdivision (c) of Section 39712.
9(b) (1) The state board shall hold at least two public workshops 
10in different regions of the state and one public hearing prior to the 
11Department of Finance submitting the investment plan.
12(2) The state board shall, prior to
				  the submission of each 
13investment plan, consult with the Public Utilities Commission to 
14ensure the investment plan is coordinated with, and does not 
15conflict with or unduly overlap with, activities under the oversight 
16or administration of the Public Utilities Commission undertaken 
17pursuant to Part 5 (commencing with Section 38570) of Division 
1825.5 or other activities under the oversight or administration of 
19the Public Utilities Commission that facilitate greenhouse gas 
20emissions reductions consistent with this division. The investment 
21plan shall include a description of the use of any moneys generated 
22by the sale of allowances received at no cost by the investor-owned 
23utilities pursuant to a market-based compliance mechanism.
24(c) The Climate Action Team, established under Executive 
25Order S-3-05, shall provide information to the Department of 
26Finance and the state board to assist in the development of each 
27investment plan. The Climate Action
				  Team shall participate in 
28each public workshop held on an investment plan and provide 
29testimony to the state board on each investment plan. For purposes 
30of this section, the Secretary of Labor and Workforce Development 
31shall assist the Climate Action Team in its efforts.
Section 39718 of the Health and Safety Code is 
33amended to read:
(a) Moneys in the fund shall be appropriated through 
35the annual Budget Act consistent with the investment plan 
36developed and submitted pursuant to Section 39716.
37(b) Upon appropriation, moneys in the fund shall be available 
38to the state board and to administering agencies for administrative 
39purposes in carrying out this chapter.
P211  1(c) Any repayment of loans, including interest payments and 
2all interest earnings on or accruing to any moneys, resulting from 
3implementation of this chapter shall be deposited in the fund for 
4purposes of this chapter.
Section 106985 of the Health and Safety Code is 
6amended to read:
(a) (1) Notwithstanding Section 2052 of the Business 
8and Professions Code or any other law, a radiologic technologist 
9certified pursuant to the Radiologic Technology Act (Section 27) 
10may, under the direct supervision of a licensed physician and 
11surgeon, and in accordance with the facility’s protocol that meets, 
12at a minimum, the requirements described in paragraph (2), perform 
13venipuncture in an upper extremity to administer contrast materials, 
14manually or by utilizing a mechanical injector, if the radiologic 
15technologist has been deemed competent to perform that 
16venipuncture, in accordance with paragraph (3), and issued a 
17certificate, as described in subdivision (b).
18(2) (A) In administering contrast materials, a
				  radiologic 
19technologist may, to ensure the security and integrity of the 
20needle’s placement or of an existing intravenous cannula, use a 
21saline-based solution that conforms with the facility’s protocol 
22and that has been approved by a licensed physician and surgeon. 
23The protocol shall specify that only contrast materials or 
24pharmaceuticals approved by the United States Food and Drug 
25Administration may be used and shall also specify that the use 
26shall be in accordance with the labeling.
27(B) A person who is currently certified as meeting the standards 
28of competence in nuclear medicine technology pursuant to Article 
296 (commencing with Section 107150) and who is authorized to 
30perform a computerized tomography scanner only on a dual-mode 
31machine, as described in Section 106976, may perform the conduct 
32described in this subdivision.
33(3) Prior to performing venipuncture pursuant to
				  paragraph (1), 
34a radiologic technologist shall have performed at least 10 
35venipunctures on live humans under the personal supervision of 
36a licensed physician and surgeon, a registered nurse, or a person 
37the physician or nurse has previously deemed qualified to provide 
38personal supervision to the technologist for purposes of performing 
39venipuncture pursuant to this paragraph. Only after completion of 
40a minimum of 10 venipunctures may the supervising individual 
P212  1evaluate whether the technologist is competent to perform 
2venipuncture under direct supervision. The number of 
3venipunctures required in this paragraph are in addition to those 
4performed for meeting the requirements of paragraph (2) of 
5subdivision (d). The facility shall document compliance with this 
6subdivision.
7(b) The radiologic technologist shall be issued a certificate as 
8specified in subdivision (e) or by an instructor indicating 
9satisfactory completion of the training and education
				  described in 
10subdivision (d). This certificate documents completion of the 
11required education and training and may not, by itself, be construed 
12to authorize a person to perform venipuncture or to administer 
13contrast materials.
14(c) (1) “Direct supervision,” for purposes of this section, means 
15the direction of procedures authorized by this section by a licensed 
16physician and surgeon who shall be physically present within the 
17facility and available within the facility where the procedures are 
18performed, in order to provide immediate medical intervention to 
19prevent or mitigate injury to the patient in the event of adverse 
20reaction.
21(2) “Personal supervision,” for purposes of this section, means 
22the oversight of the procedures authorized by this section by a 
23supervising individual identified in paragraph (3) of subdivision 
24(a) who is physically present to observe,
				  and correct, as needed, 
25the performance of the individual who is performing the procedure.
26(d) The radiologic technologist shall have completed both of 
27the following:
28(1) Received a total of 10 hours of instruction, including all of 
29the following:
30(A) Anatomy and physiology of venipuncture sites.
31(B) Venipuncture instruments, intravenous solutions, and related 
32equipment.
33(C) Puncture techniques.
34(D) Techniques of intravenous line establishment.
35(E) Hazards and complications of venipuncture.
36(F) Postpuncture care.
37(G) Composition and purpose of antianaphylaxis tray.
38(H) First aid and basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
39(2) Performed 10 venipunctures on a human or training 
40mannequin upper extremity (for example, an infusion arm or a 
P213  1mannequin arm) under personal supervision. If performance is on 
2a human, only an upper extremity may be used.
3(e)  Schools for radiologic technologists shall include the 
4training and education specified in subdivision (d). Upon 
5satisfactory completion of the training and education, the school 
6shall issue to the student a completion document. This document 
7may not be construed to authorize a person to perform venipuncture 
8or to administer contrast materials.
9(f)  Nothing in this section shall be construed to authorize a 
10radiologic technologist to perform arterial puncture, any central 
11venous access procedures including repositioning of previously 
12placed central venous catheter except as specified in paragraph (1) 
13of subdivision (a), or cutdowns, or establish an intravenous line.
14(g) This section shall not be construed to apply to a person who 
15is currently certified as meeting the standards of competence in 
16nuclear medicine technology pursuant to Article 6 (commencing 
17with Section 107150), except as provided in subparagraph (B) of 
18paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).
19(h) Radiologic technologists who met the training and education 
20requirements of subdivision (d) prior to January 1, 2013, need not 
21repeat those requirements, or perform the venipunctures specified 
22in paragraph (3) of
				  subdivision (a), provided the facility documents 
23that the radiologic technologist is competent to perform the tasks 
24specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a).
Section 114365.5 of the Health and Safety Code is 
26amended to read:
(a) The department shall adopt and post on its 
28Internet Web site a list of nonpotentially hazardous foods and their 
29ethnic variations that are approved for sale by a cottage food 
30operation. A cottage food product shall not be potentially hazardous 
31food, as defined in Section 113871.
32(b) This list of nonpotentially hazardous foods shall include, 
33but not be limited to, all of the following:
34(1) Baked goods without cream, custard, or meat fillings, such 
35as breads, biscuits, churros, cookies, pastries, and tortillas.
36(2) Candy, such as brittle and toffee.
37(3) Chocolate-covered nonperishable foods, such as nuts and 
38dried fruit.
39(4) Dried fruit.
40(5) Dried pasta.
P214 1(6) Dry baking mixes.
2(7) Fruit pies, fruit empanadas, and fruit tamales.
3(8) Granola, cereals, and trail mixes.
4(9) Herb blends and dried mole paste.
5(10) Honey and sweet sorghum syrup.
6(11) Jams, jellies, preserves, and fruit butter that comply with 
7the standard described in Part 150 of Title 21 of the Code of 
8Federal Regulations.
9(12) Nut mixes and nut butters.
10(13) Popcorn.
11(14) Vinegar and mustard.
12(15) Roasted coffee and dried tea.
13(16) Waffle cones and pizelles.
14(c) (1) The State Public Health Officer may add or delete food 
15products to or from the list described in subdivision (b), which 
16shall be known as the approved food products list. Notice of any 
17change to the approved food products list shall be posted on the 
18department’s cottage food program Internet Web site, to also be 
19known as the program Internet Web site for purposes of this 
20chapter. Any change to the approved food products list shall 
21become effective 30 days after the
				  notice is posted. The notice 
22shall state the reason for the change, the authority for the change, 
23and the nature of the change. The notice will provide an opportunity 
24for written comment by indicating the address to which to submit 
25the comment and the deadline by which the comment is required 
26to be received by the department. The address to which the 
27comment is to be submitted may be an electronic site. The notice 
28shall allow at least 20 calendar days for comments to be submitted. 
29The department shall consider all comments submitted before the 
30due date. The department may withdraw the proposed change at 
31any time by notification on the program Internet Web site or 
32through notification by other electronic means. The approved food 
33products list described in subdivision (b), and any updates to the 
34list, shall not be subject to the administrative rulemaking 
35requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of 
36Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
37(2) The State Public Health Officer shall not remove any items 
38from the approved food products list unless the State Public Health 
39Officer also posts information on the program Internet Web site 
P215  1explaining the basis upon which the removed food item has been 
2determined to be potentially hazardous.
Section 114380 of the Health and Safety Code is 
4amended to read:
(a) A person proposing to build or remodel a food 
6facility shall submit complete, easily readable plans drawn to scale, 
7and specifications to the enforcement agency for review, and shall 
8receive plan approval before starting any new construction or 
9remodeling of a facility for use as a retail food facility.
10(b) Plans and specifications may also be required by the 
11enforcement agency if the agency determines that they are 
12necessary to ensure compliance with the requirements of this part, 
13including, but not limited to, a menu change or change in the 
14facility’s method of operation.
15(c) (1) All new school food facilities or school food facilities 
16that undergo modernization or
				  remodeling shall comply with all 
17structural requirements of this part. Upon submission of plans by 
18a public school authority, the Division of the State Architect and 
19the local enforcement agency shall review and approve all new 
20and remodeled school facilities for compliance with all applicable 
21requirements.
22(2) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the Office of Statewide 
23Health Planning and Development (OSHPD) shall maintain its 
24primary jurisdiction over licensed skilled nursing facilities, and 
25when new construction, modernization, or remodeling must be 
26undertaken to repair existing systems or to keep up the course of 
27normal or routine maintenance, the facility shall complete a 
28building application and plan check process as required by OSHPD. 
29Approval of the plans by OSHPD shall be deemed compliance 
30with the plan approval process required by the local county 
31enforcement agency described in this section.
32(3) Except when a determination is made by the enforcement 
33agency that the nonconforming structural conditions pose a public 
34health hazard, existing public and private school cafeterias and 
35licensed health care facilities shall be deemed to be in compliance 
36with this part pending replacement or renovation.
37(d) Except when a determination is made by the enforcement 
38agency that the nonconforming structural conditions pose a public 
39health hazard, existing food facilities that were in compliance with 
40the law in effect on June 30, 2007, shall be deemed to be in 
P216  1compliance with the law pending replacement or renovation. If a 
2determination is made by the enforcement agency that a structural 
3condition poses a public health hazard, the food facility shall 
4remedy the deficiency to the satisfaction of the enforcement 
5agency.
6(e) The
				  plans shall be approved or rejected within 20 working 
7days after receipt by the enforcement agency and the applicant 
8shall be notified of the decision. Unless the plans are approved or 
9rejected within 20 working days, they shall be deemed approved. 
10The building department shall not issue a building permit for a 
11food facility until after it has received plan approval by the 
12enforcement agency. Nothing in this section shall require that plans 
13or specifications be prepared by someone other than the applicant.
Section 116565 of the Health and Safety Code is 
15amended to read:
(a) Each public water system serving 1,000 or more 
17service connections, and any public water system that treats water 
18on behalf of one or more public water systems for the purpose of 
19rendering it safe for human consumption, shall reimburse the 
20department for the actual cost incurred by the department for 
21conducting those activities mandated by this chapter relating to 
22the issuance of domestic water supply permits, inspections, 
23monitoring, surveillance, and water quality evaluation that relate 
24to that specific public water system. The amount of reimbursement 
25shall be sufficient to pay, but in no event shall exceed, the 
26department’s actual cost in conducting these activities.
27(b) Each public water system serving fewer than 1,000 service 
28connections shall pay an
				  annual drinking water operating fee to 
29the department as set forth in this subdivision for costs incurred 
30by the department for conducting those activities mandated by this 
31chapter relating to inspections, monitoring, surveillance, and water 
32quality evaluation relating to public water systems. The total 
33amount of fees shall be sufficient to pay, but in no event shall 
34exceed, the department’s actual cost in conducting these activities. 
35Notwithstanding adjustment of actual fees collected pursuant to 
36Section 100425 as authorized pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 
37116590, the amount that shall be paid annually by a public water 
38system pursuant to this section shall be as follows:
39(1) Community water systems, six dollars ($6) per service 
40connection, but not less than two hundred fifty dollars ($250) per 
P217  1water system, which may be increased by the department, as 
2provided for in subdivision (f), to ten dollars ($10) per service 
3connection, but not
				  less than two hundred fifty dollars ($250) per 
4water system.
5(2) Nontransient noncommunity water systems pursuant to 
6subdivision (k) of Section 116275, two dollars ($2) per person 
7served, but not less than four hundred fifty-six dollars ($456) per 
8water system, which may be increased by the department, as 
9provided for in subdivision (f), to three dollars ($3) per person 
10served, but not less than four hundred fifty-six dollars ($456) per 
11water system.
12(3) Transient noncommunity water systems pursuant to 
13subdivision (o) of Section 116275, eight hundred dollars ($800) 
14per water system, which may be increased by the department, as 
15provided for in subdivision (f), to one thousand three hundred 
16thirty-five dollars ($1,335) per water system.
17(4) Noncommunity water systems in possession of a current 
18exemption pursuant to
				  former Section 116282 on January 1, 2012, 
19one hundred two dollars ($102) per water system.
20(c) For purposes of determining the fees provided for in 
21subdivision (a), the department shall maintain a record of its actual 
22costs for pursuing the activities specified in subdivision (a) relative 
23to each system required to pay the fees. The fee charged each 
24system shall reflect the department’s actual cost, or in the case of 
25a local primacy agency the local primacy agency’s actual cost, of 
26conducting the specified activities.
27(d) The department shall submit an invoice for cost 
28reimbursement for the activities specified in subdivision (a) to the 
29public water systems no more than twice a year.
30(1) The department shall submit one estimated cost invoice to 
31public water systems serving 1,000 or more service connections 
32and any
				  public water system that treats water on behalf of one or 
33more public water systems for the purpose of rendering it safe for 
34human consumption. This invoice shall include the actual hours 
35expended during the first six months of the fiscal year. The hourly 
36cost rate used to determine the amount of the estimated cost invoice 
37shall be the rate for the previous fiscal year.
38(2) The department shall submit a final invoice to the public 
39water system before October 1 following the fiscal year that the 
40costs were incurred. The invoice shall indicate the total hours 
P218  1expended during the fiscal year, the reasons for the expenditure, 
2the hourly cost rate of the department for the fiscal year, the 
3estimated cost invoice, and payments received. The amount of the 
4final invoice shall be determined using the total hours expended 
5during the fiscal year and the actual hourly cost rate of the 
6department for the fiscal year. The payment of the estimated 
7invoice,
				  exclusive of late penalty, if any, shall be credited toward 
8the final invoice amount.
9(3) Payment of the invoice issued pursuant to paragraphs (1) 
10and (2) shall be made within 90 days of the date of the invoice. 
11Failure to pay the amount of the invoice within 90 days shall result 
12in a 10-percent late penalty that shall be paid in addition to the 
13invoiced amount.
14(e) Any public water system under the jurisdiction of a local 
15primacy agency shall pay the fees specified in this section to the 
16local primacy agency in lieu of the department. This section shall 
17not preclude a local health officer from imposing additional fees 
18pursuant to Section 101325.
19(f) The department may increase the fees established in 
20subdivision (b) as follows:
21(1) By February 1 of the
				  fiscal year prior to the fiscal year for 
22which fees are proposed to be increased, the department shall 
23publish a list of fees for the following fiscal year and a report 
24showing the calculation of the amount of the fees.
25(2) The department shall make the report and the list of fees 
26available to the public by submitting them to the Legislature and 
27posting them on the department’s Internet Web site.
28(3) The department shall establish the amount of fee increases 
29subject to the approval and appropriation by the Legislature.
Section 120365 of the Health and Safety Code is 
31amended to read:
(a) Immunization of a person shall not be required 
33for admission to a school or other institution listed in Section 
34120335 if the parent or guardian or adult who has assumed 
35responsibility for his or her care and custody in the case of a minor, 
36or the person seeking admission if an emancipated minor, files 
37with the governing authority a letter or affidavit that documents 
38which immunizations required by Section 120355 have been given 
39and which immunizations have not been given on the basis that 
40they are contrary to his or her beliefs.
P219  1(b) On and after January 1, 2014, a form prescribed by the State 
2Department of Public Health shall accompany the letter or affidavit 
3filed pursuant to subdivision (a). The form shall include both of 
4the following:
5(1) A signed attestation from the health care practitioner that 
6indicates that the health care practitioner provided the parent or 
7guardian of the person who is subject to the immunization 
8requirements of this chapter, the adult who has assumed 
9responsibility for the care and custody of the person, or the person 
10if an emancipated minor, with information regarding the benefits 
11and risks of the immunization and the health risks of the 
12communicable diseases listed in Section 120335 to the person and 
13to the community. This attestation shall be signed not more than 
14six months before the date when the person first becomes subject 
15to the immunization requirement for which exemption is being 
16sought.
17(2) A written statement signed by the parent or guardian of the 
18person who is subject to the immunization requirements of this 
19chapter, the adult who has assumed responsibility for the care and
20
				  custody of the person, or the person if an emancipated minor, that 
21indicates that the signer has received the information provided by 
22the health care practitioner pursuant to paragraph (1). This 
23statement shall be signed not more than six months before the date 
24when the person first becomes subject to the immunization 
25requirements as a condition of admittance to a school or institution 
26pursuant to Section 120335.
27(c) The following shall be accepted in lieu of the original form:
28(1) A photocopy of the signed form.
29(2) A letter signed by a health care practitioner that includes all 
30information and attestations included on the form.
31(d) Issuance and revision of the form shall be exempt from the 
32rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act
33
				  (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of 
34Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).
35(e) When there is good cause to believe that the person has been 
36exposed to one of the communicable diseases listed in subdivision 
37(a) of Section 120325, that person may be temporarily excluded 
38from the school or institution until the local health officer is 
39satisfied that the person is no longer at risk of developing the 
40disease.
P220  1(f) For purposes of this section, “health care practitioner” means 
2any of the following:
3(1) A physician and surgeon, licensed pursuant to Section 2050 
4of the Business and Professions Code.
5(2) A nurse practitioner who is authorized to furnish drugs 
6pursuant to Section 2836.1 of the Business and Professions Code.
7(3) A physician assistant who is authorized to administer or 
8provide medication pursuant to Section 3502.1 of the Business 
9and Professions Code.
10(4) An osteopathic physician and surgeon, as defined in the 
11Osteopathic Initiative Act.
12(5) A naturopathic doctor who is authorized to furnish or order 
13drugs under a physician and surgeon’s supervision pursuant to 
14Section 3640.5 of the Business and Professions Code.
15(6) A credentialed school nurse, as described in Section 49426 
16of the Education Code.
Section 123327 of the Health and Safety Code is 
18amended to read:
(a) The department shall provide written notice to a 
20retail food vendor if the department determines that the vendor 
21has committed an initial violation for which a pattern of the 
22violation must be established to impose a sanction. Notice shall 
23be provided no later than 30 days after the department determines 
24the first investigation that identified the violation is complete.
25(b) The written notice shall be delivered to the vendor 30 days 
26before the department conducts a second investigation for purposes 
27of establishing a pattern of the violation to the vendor’s most recent 
28business ownership address on file with the department or to the 
29vendor location upon identification of a violation during vendor 
30monitoring, as defined by Section 40743 of Title 22 of the
31
				  California Code of Regulations.
32(c) The written notice shall include a description of the initial 
33violation and may include information to assist the vendor to take 
34corrective action, including, but not limited to, a 60-day window 
35that includes the date of the violation.
36(d) For purposes of this section, “violation” means a violation 
37set forth in Section 246.2 of Title 7 of the Code of Federal 
38Regulations.
39(e) It is the intent of the Legislature in enacting this section to 
40clarify existing law.
Section 123940 of the Health and Safety Code is 
2amended to read:
(a) (1) Annually, the board of supervisors shall 
4appropriate a sum of money for services for handicapped children 
5of the county, including diagnosis, treatment, and therapy services 
6for physically handicapped children in public schools, equal to 25 
7percent of the actual expenditures for the county program under 
8this article for the 1990-91 fiscal year, except as specified in 
9paragraph (2).
10(2) If the state certifies that a smaller amount is needed in order 
11for the county to pay 25 percent of costs of the county’s program 
12from this source. The smaller amount certified by the state shall 
13be the amount that the county shall appropriate.
14(b) In addition to the amount required by
				  subdivision (a), the 
15county shall allocate an amount equal to the amount determined 
16pursuant to subdivision (a) for purposes of this article from 
17revenues allocated to the county pursuant to Chapter 6 
18(commencing with Section 17600) of Division 9 of the Welfare 
19and Institutions Code.
20(c) (1) The state shall match county expenditures for this article 
21from funding provided pursuant to subdivisions (a) and (b).
22(2) County expenditures shall be waived for payment of services 
23for children who are eligible pursuant to paragraph (2) of 
24subdivision (a) of Section 123870.
25(d) The county may appropriate and expend moneys in addition 
26to those set forth in subdivisions (a) and (b) and the state shall 
27match the expenditures, on a dollar-for-dollar basis, to the extent 
28that state funds are available for this
				  article.
29(e) County appropriations under subdivisions (a) and (b) shall 
30include county financial participation in the nonfederal share of 
31expenditures for services for children who are enrolled in the 
32Medi-Cal program pursuant to Section 14005.26 of the Welfare 
33and Institutions Code, and who are eligible for services under this 
34article pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 
35123870, to the extent that federal financial participation is available 
36at the enhanced federal reimbursement rate under Title XXI of the 
37federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1397aa et seq.) and 
38funds are appropriated for the California Children’s Services 
39Program in the State Budget.
P222  1(f) Nothing in this section shall require the county to expend 
2more than the amount set forth in subdivision (a) plus the amount 
3set forth in subdivision (b) nor shall it require the state to expend 
4more
				  than the amount of the match set forth in subdivision (c).
5(g) Notwithstanding Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 
611340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, 
7the department, without taking further regulatory action, shall 
8implement this section by means of California Children’s Services 
9numbered letters.
Section 123955 of the Health and Safety Code is 
11amended to read:
(a) The state and the counties shall share in the cost 
13of administration of the California Children’s Services Program 
14at the local level.
15(b) (1) The director shall adopt regulations establishing 
16minimum standards for the administration, staffing, and local 
17implementation of this article subject to reimbursement by the 
18state.
19(2) The standards shall allow necessary flexibility in the 
20administration of county programs, taking into account the 
21variability of county needs and resources, and shall be developed 
22and revised jointly with state and county representatives.
23(c) The director shall establish minimum standards
				  for 
24administration, staffing, and local operation of the program subject 
25to reimbursement by the state.
26(d) Until July 1, 1992, reimbursable administrative costs, to be 
27paid by the state to counties, shall not exceed 4.1 percent of the 
28gross total expenditures for diagnosis, treatment, and therapy by 
29counties as specified in Section 123940.
30(e) Beginning July 1, 1992, this subdivision shall apply with 
31respect to all of the following:
32(1) Counties shall be reimbursed by the state for 50 percent of 
33the amount required to meet state administrative standards for that 
34portion of the county caseload under this article that is ineligible 
35for Medi-Cal to the extent funds are available in the State Budget 
36for the California Children’s Services Program.
37(2) Counties shall be reimbursed by the state for 50 percent of 
38the nonfederal share of the amount required to meet state 
39administrative standards for that portion of the county caseload 
40under this article that is enrolled in the Medi-Cal program pursuant 
P223  1to Section 14005.26 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and who 
2are eligible for services under this article pursuant to subdivision 
3(a) of Section 123870, to the extent that federal financial 
4participation is available at the enhanced federal reimbursement 
5rate under Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 
6Sec. 1397aa et seq.) and funds are appropriated for the California 
7Children’s Services Program in the State Budget.
8(3) On or before September 15 of each year, each county 
9program implementing this article shall submit an application for 
10the subsequent fiscal year that provides information as required 
11by the state to determine if the county administrative staff
				  and 
12budget meet state standards.
13(4) The state shall determine the maximum amount of state 
14funds available for each county from state funds appropriated for 
15CCS county administration. If the amount appropriated for any 
16fiscal year in the Budget Act for county administration under this 
17article differs from the amounts approved by the department, each 
18county shall submit a revised application in a form and at the time 
19specified by the department.
20(f) The department and counties shall maximize the use of 
21federal funds for administration of the programs implemented 
22pursuant to this article, including using state and county funds to 
23match funds claimable under Title XIX or Title XXI of the federal 
24Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396 et seq.; 42 U.S.C. Sec. 
251397aa et seq.).
Section 125286.20 of the Health and Safety Code
27 is amended to read:
Unless the context otherwise requires, the following 
29definitions shall apply for purposes of this article:
30(a) “Assay” means the amount of a particular constituent of a 
31mixture or of the biological or pharmacological potency of a drug.
32(b) “Ancillary infusion equipment and supplies” means the 
33equipment and supplies required to infuse a blood clotting product 
34into a human vein, including, but not limited to, syringes, needles, 
35sterile gauze, field pads, gloves, alcohol swabs, numbing creams, 
36tourniquets, medical tape, sharps or equivalent biohazard waste 
37containers, and cold compression packs.
38(c) “Bleeding disorder” means a medical condition characterized
39
				  by a deficiency or absence of one or more essential blood clotting 
40proteins in the human blood, often called “factors,” including all 
P224  1forms of hemophilia and other bleeding disorders that, without 
2treatment, result in uncontrollable bleeding or abnormal blood 
3clotting.
4(d) “Blood clotting product” means an intravenously 
5administered medicine manufactured from human plasma or 
6recombinant biotechnology techniques, approved for distribution 
7by the federal Food and Drug Administration, that is used for the 
8treatment and prevention of symptoms associated with bleeding 
9disorders. Blood clotting products include, but are not limited to, 
10factor VII, factor VIIa, factor VIII, and factor IX products, von 
11Willebrand factor products, bypass products for patients with 
12inhibitors, and activated prothrombin complex concentrates.
13(e) “Emergency” means care as defined in Section 1317.1.
14(f) “Hemophilia” means a human bleeding disorder caused by 
15a hereditary deficiency of the factor I, II, V, VIII, IX, XI, XII, or 
16XIII blood clotting protein in human blood.
17(g) “Hemophilia treatment center” means a facility for the 
18treatment of bleeding disorders, including, but not limited to, 
19hemophilia, that receives funding specifically for the treatment of 
20patients with bleeding disorders from federal government sources, 
21including, but not limited to, the federal Centers for Disease 
22Control and Prevention and the federal Health Resources and 
23Services Administration (HRSA) of the United States Department 
24of Health and Human Services.
25(h) “Home use” means infusion or other use of a blood clotting 
26product in a place other than a state-recognized hemophilia 
27treatment center or other clinical setting. Places where home
				  use 
28occurs include, without limitation, a home or other nonclinical 
29setting.
30(i) “Patient” means a person needing a blood clotting product 
31for home use.
32(j) (1) “Provider of blood clotting products for home use” means 
33all the following pharmacies, except as described in Section 
34125286.35, that dispense blood clotting factors for home use:
35(A) Hospital pharmacies.
36(B) Health system pharmacies.
37(C) Pharmacies affiliated with hemophilia treatment centers.
38(D) Specialty home care pharmacies.
39(E) Retail pharmacies.
P225  1(2) The providers described in this subdivision shall include a 
2health care service plan and all its affiliated providers if the health 
3care service plan exclusively contracts with a single medical group 
4in a specified geographic area to provide professional services to 
5its enrollees.
Section 128570 of the Health and Safety Code is 
7amended to read:
(a) Persons participating in the program shall be 
9persons who agree in writing prior to completing an accredited 
10medical or osteopathic school based in the United States to serve 
11in an eligible practice setting, pursuant to subdivision (g) of Section 
12128565, for at least three years. The program shall be used only 
13for the purpose of promoting the education of medical doctors and 
14doctors of osteopathy and related administrative costs.
15(b) A program participant shall commit to three years of 
16full-time professional practice once the participant has achieved 
17full licensure pursuant to Article 4 (commencing with Section 
182080) of Chapter 5 of Division 2 of, or Section 2099.5 of, the 
19Business and Professions Code and after completing an accredited 
20residency program. The
				  obligated professional service shall be in 
21direct patient care in an eligible practice setting pursuant to 
22subdivision (g) of Section 128565.
23(1) Leaves of absence either during medical school or service 
24obligation shall be permitted for serious illness, pregnancy, or 
25other natural causes. The selection committee shall develop the 
26process for determining the maximum permissible length of an 
27absence, the maximum permissible leaves of absences, and the 
28process for reinstatement. Awarding of scholarship funds shall be 
29deferred until the participant is back to full-time status.
30(2) Full-time status shall be defined by the selection committee. 
31The selection committee may establish exemptions from this 
32requirement on a case-by-case basis.
33(c) The maximum allowable amount per total scholarship shall 
34be one hundred five
				  thousand dollars ($105,000). These moneys 
35shall be distributed over the course of a standard medical school 
36curriculum. The distribution of funds shall increase over the course 
37of medical school, increasing to ensure that at least 45 percent of 
38the total scholarship award is distributed upon matriculation in the 
39final year of school.
P226  1(d) In the event the program participant does not complete 
2medical school and the minimum three years of professional service 
3pursuant to the contractual agreement between the foundation and 
4the participant, the office shall recover the funds awarded plus the 
5maximum allowable interest for failure to begin or complete the 
6service obligation.
Section 129725 of the Health and Safety Code is 
8amended to read:
(a)  (1)  “Hospital building” includes any building 
10not specified in subdivision (b) that is used, or designed to be used, 
11for a health facility of a type required to be licensed pursuant to 
12Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of Division 2.
13(2)  Except as provided in paragraph (7) of subdivision (b), 
14hospital building includes a correctional treatment center, as 
15defined in subdivision (j) of Section 1250, the construction of 
16which was completed on or after March 7, 1973.
17(b) “Hospital building” does not include any of the following:
18(1)  Any building where outpatient clinical services of a health 
19facility
				  licensed pursuant to Section 1250 are provided that is 
20separated from a building in which hospital services are provided. 
21If any one or more outpatient clinical services in the building 
22provides services to inpatients, the building shall not be included 
23as a “hospital building” if those services provided to inpatients 
24represent no more than 25 percent of the total outpatient services 
25provided at the building. Hospitals shall maintain on an ongoing 
26basis, data on the patients receiving services in these buildings, 
27including the number of patients seen, categorized by their inpatient 
28or outpatient status. Hospitals shall submit this data annually to 
29the State Department of Public Health.
30(2)  A building used, or designed to be used, for a skilled nursing 
31facility or intermediate care facility if the building is of 
32single-story, wood-framebegin insert,end insert
				  or light steel frame construction.
33(3)  A building of single-story, wood-framebegin insert,end insert or light steel frame 
34construction where only skilled nursing or intermediate care 
35services are provided if the building is separated from a building 
36housing other patients of the health facility receiving higher levels 
37of care.
38(4)  A freestanding structure of a chemical dependency recovery 
39hospital exempted under subdivision (c) of Section 1275.2.
P227  1(5)  A building licensed to be used as an intermediate care 
2facility/developmentally disabled habilitative with six beds or less 
3and an intermediate care facility/developmentally disabled 
4habilitative of 7 to 15 beds that is a single-story, wood-framebegin insert,end insert
				  or 
5light steel frame building.
6(6)  A building subject to licensure as a correctional treatment 
7center, as defined in subdivision (j) of Section 1250, the 
8construction of which was completed before March 7, 1973.
9(7)  (A)  A building that meets the definition of a correctional 
10treatment center, pursuant to subdivision (j) of Section 1250, for 
11which the final design documents were completed or the 
12construction of which was initiated before January 1, 1994, 
13operated by or to be operated by the Department of Corrections 
14and Rehabilitation, or by a law enforcement agency of a city, 
15county, or a city and county.
16(B)  In the case of reconstruction, alteration, or addition to, the 
17facilities identified in this paragraph, and paragraph (6) or any 
18other building subject to licensure as a
				  general acute care hospital, 
19acute psychiatric hospital, correctional treatment center, or nursing 
20facility, as defined in subdivisions (a), (b), (j), and (k) of Section 
211250, operated or to be operated by the Department of Corrections 
22and Rehabilitation, or by a law enforcement agency of a city, 
23county, or city and county, only the reconstruction, alteration, or 
24addition, itself, and not the building as a whole, nor any other 
25aspect thereof, shall be required to comply with this chapter or the 
26regulations adopted pursuant thereto.
27(8) A freestanding building used, or designed to be used, as a 
28congregate living health facility, as defined in subdivision (i) of 
29Section 1250.
30(9) A freestanding building used, or designed to be used, as a 
31hospice facility, as defined in subdivision (n) of Section 1250.
Section 136000 of the Health and Safety Code is 
33amended to read:
(a) (1) Effective July 1, 2012, there is hereby 
35transferred from the Department of Managed Health Care the 
36Office of Patient Advocate to be established within the California 
37Health and Human Services Agency, to provide assistance to, and 
38advocate on behalf of, individuals served by health care service 
39plans regulated by the Department of Managed Health Care, 
40insureds covered by health insurers regulated by the Department 
P228  1of Insurance, and individuals who receive or are eligible for other 
2health care coverage in California, including coverage available 
3through the Medi-Cal program, the California Health Benefit 
4Exchange, the Healthy Families Program, or any other county or 
5state health care program. The goal of the office shall be to help 
6those individuals secure the health care services to which they are
7
				  entitled or for which they are eligible under the law. 
8Notwithstanding any provision of this division, each regulator and 
9health coverage program shall retain its respective authority, 
10including its authority to resolve complaints, grievances, and 
11appeals.
12(2) The office shall be headed by a patient advocate appointed 
13by the Governor. The patient advocate shall serve at the pleasure 
14of the Governor.
15(3) The provisions of this division affecting insureds covered 
16by health insurers regulated by the Department of Insurance and 
17individuals who receive or are eligible for coverage available 
18through the Medi-Cal program, the California Health Benefit 
19Exchange, the Healthy Families Program, or any other county or 
20state health care program shall commence on January 1, 2013, 
21except that for the period July 1, 2012, to January 1, 2013, the 
22office shall continue with any duties,
				  responsibilities, or activities 
23of the office authorized as of July 1, 2011, which shall continue 
24to be authorized.
25(b) (1) The duties of the office shall include, but not be limited 
26to, all of the following:
27(A) Developing, in consultation with the Managed Risk Medical 
28Insurance Board, the State Department of Health Care Services, 
29the California Health Benefit Exchange, the Department of 
30Managed Health Care, and the Department of Insurance, 
31educational and informational guides for consumers describing 
32their rights and responsibilities, and informing them on effective 
33ways to exercise their rights to secure health care coverage. The 
34guides shall be easy to read and understand and shall be made 
35available in English and other threshold languages, using an 
36appropriate literacy level, and in a culturally competent manner. 
37The informational guides shall be made
				  available to the public by 
38the office, including being made accessible on the office’s Internet 
39Web site and through public outreach and educational programs.
P229  1(B) Compiling an annual publication, to be made available on 
2the office’s Internet Web site, of a quality of care report card, 
3including, but not limited to, health care service plans.
4(C) Rendering assistance to consumers regarding procedures, 
5rights, and responsibilities related to the filing of complaints, 
6grievances, and appeals, including appeals of coverage denials and 
7information about any external appeal process.
8(D) Making referrals to the appropriate state agency regarding 
9studies, investigations, audits, or enforcement that may be 
10appropriate to protect the interests of consumers.
11(E) Coordinating and working with other government and 
12nongovernment patient assistance programs and health care 
13ombudsperson programs.
14(2) The office shall employ necessary staff. The office may 
15employ or contract with experts when necessary to carry out the 
16functions of the office. The patient advocate shall make an annual 
17budget request for the office which shall be identified in the annual 
18Budget Act.
19(3) Until January 1, 2013, the office shall have access to records 
20of the Department of Managed Health Care, including, but not 
21limited to, information related to health care service plan or health 
22insurer audits, surveys, and enrollee or insured grievances.
23(4) The patient advocate shall annually issue a public report on 
24the activities of the office, and shall appear before the appropriate 
25policy and
				  fiscal committees of the Senate and Assembly, if 
26requested, to report and make recommendations on the activities 
27of the office.
28(5) The office shall adopt standards for the organizations with 
29which it contracts pursuant to this section to ensure compliance 
30with the privacy and confidentiality laws of this state, including, 
31but not limited to, the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 
321(commencing with Section 1798) of Division 3 of the Civil Code). 
33The office shall conduct privacy trainings as necessary, and 
34regularly verify that the organizations have measures in place to 
35ensure compliance with this provision.
36(c) In enacting this act, the Legislature recognizes that, because 
37of the enactment of federal health care reform on March 23, 2010, 
38and the implementation of various provisions by January 1, 2014, 
39it is appropriate to transfer the Office of Patient Advocate and to
40
				  confer new responsibilities on the Office of Patient Advocate, 
P230  1including assisting consumers in obtaining health care coverage 
2and obtaining health care through health coverage that is regulated 
3by multiple regulators, both state and federal. The new 
4responsibilities include assisting consumers in navigating both 
5public and private health care coverage and assisting consumers 
6in determining which regulator regulates the health care coverage 
7of a particular consumer. In order to assist in implementing federal 
8health care reform in California, commencing January 1, 2013, 
9the office, in addition to the duties set forth in subdivision (b), 
10shall also do all of the following:
11(1) Receive and respond to all inquiries, complaints, and requests 
12for assistance from individuals concerning health care coverage 
13available in California.
14(2) Provide, and assist in the provision of, outreach and
15
				  education about health care coverage options as set forth in 
16subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), including, 
17but not limited to:
18(A) Information regarding applying for coverage; the cost of 
19coverage; and renewal in, and transitions between, health coverage 
20programs.
21(B) Information and assistance regarding public programs, such 
22as Medi-Cal, the Healthy Families Program, federal veterans health 
23benefits, and Medicare; and private coverage, including 
24employer-sponsored coverage, Exchange coverage; and other 
25sources of care if the consumer is not eligible for coverage, such 
26as county services, community clinics, discounted hospital care, 
27or charity care.
28(3) Coordinate with other state and federal agencies engaged in 
29outreach and education regarding the implementation of federal 
30health care reform.
31(4) Render assistance to, and advocate on behalf of, consumers 
32with problems related to health care services, including care and 
33service problems and claims or payment problems.
34(5) Refer consumers to the appropriate regulator of their health 
35coverage programs for filing complaints, grievances, or claims, or 
36for payment problems.
37(d) (1) Commencing January 1, 2013, the office shall track and 
38analyze data on problems and complaints by, and questions from, 
39consumers about health care coverage for the purpose of providing 
40public information about problems faced and information needed 
P231  1by consumers in obtaining coverage and care. The data collected 
2shall include demographic data, source of coverage, regulator, and 
3resolution of complaints, including timeliness of resolution.
4(2) The Department of Managed Health Care, the State 
5Department of Health Care Services, the Department of Insurance, 
6the Managed Risk Medical Insurance Board, the California Health 
7Benefit Exchange, and other public coverage programs shall 
8provide to the office data in the aggregate concerning consumer 
9complaints and grievances. For the purpose of publicly reporting 
10information about the problems faced by consumers in obtaining 
11care and coverage, the office shall analyze data on consumer 
12complaints and grievances resolved by these agencies, including 
13demographic data, source of coverage, insurer or plan, resolution 
14of complaints and other information intended to improve health 
15care and coverage for consumers. The office shall develop and 
16provide comprehensive and timely data and analysis based on the 
17information provided by other agencies.
18(3) The office shall collect and report
				  data to the United States 
19Secretary of Health and Human Services on complaints and 
20consumer assistance as required to comply with requirements of 
21the federal Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public 
22Law 111-148).
23(e) Commencing January 1, 2013, in order to assist consumers 
24in understanding the impact of federal health care reform as well 
25as navigating and resolving questions and problems with health 
26care coverage and programs, the office shall ensure that either the 
27office or a state agency contracting with the office shall do the 
28following:
29(1) Operate a toll-free telephone hotline number that can route 
30callers to the proper regulating body or public program for their 
31question, their health plan, or the consumer assistance program in 
32their area.
33(2) Operate an Internet Web site, other social media, and
34
				  up-to-date communication systems to give information regarding 
35the consumer assistance programs.
36(f) (1) The office may contract with community-based consumer 
37assistance organizations to assist in any or all of the duties of 
38subdivision (c) in accordance with Section 19130 of the 
39Government Code or provide grants to community-based consumer 
40assistance organizations for portions of these purposes.
P232  1(2) Commencing January 1, 2013, any local community-based 
2nonprofit consumer assistance program with which the office 
3contracts shall include in its mission the assistance of, and duty 
4to, health care consumers. Contracting consumer assistance 
5programs shall have experience in the following areas:
6(A) Assisting consumers in navigating the local health care 
7system.
8(B) Advising consumers regarding their health care coverage 
9options and helping consumers enroll in and retain health care 
10coverage.
11(C) Assisting consumers with problems in accessing health care 
12services.
13(D) Serving consumers with special needs, including, but not 
14limited to, consumers with limited-English language proficiency, 
15consumers requiring culturally competent services, low-income 
16consumers, consumers with disabilities, consumers with low 
17literacy rates, and consumers with multiple health conditions, 
18including behavioral health.
19(E) Collecting and reporting data, including demographic data, 
20source of coverage, regulator, and resolution of complaints, 
21including timeliness of resolution.
22(3) Commencing January 1, 2013, the office shall develop 
23protocols, procedures, and training modules for organizations with 
24which it contracts.
25(4) Commencing January 1, 2013, the office shall adopt 
26standards for organizations with which it contracts regarding 
27confidentiality and conduct.
28(5) Commencing January 1, 2013, the office may contract with 
29consumer assistance programs to develop a series of appropriate 
30literacy level and culturally and linguistically appropriate 
31educational materials in all threshold languages for consumers 
32regarding health care coverage options and how to resolve 
33problems.
34(g) Commencing January 1, 2013, the office shall develop 
35protocols and procedures for assisting in the resolution of consumer 
36complaints, including both of the following:
37(1) A procedure for referral of complaints and grievances to the 
38appropriate regulator or health coverage program for resolution 
39by the relevant regulator or public program.
P233  1(2) A protocol or procedure for reporting to the appropriate 
2regulator and health coverage program regarding complaints and 
3grievances relevant to that agency that the office received and was 
4able to resolve without further action or referral.
5(h) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
6(1) “Consumer” or “individual” includes the individual or his 
7or her parent, guardian, conservator, or authorized representative.
8(2) “Exchange” means the California Health Benefit Exchange 
9established pursuant to
				  Title 22 (commencing with Section 100500) 
10of the Government Code.
11(3) “Health care” includes behavioral health, including both 
12mental health and substance abuse treatment.
13(4) “Health care service plan” has the same meaning as that set 
14forth in subdivision (f) of Section 1345. Health care service plan 
15includes “specialized health care service plans,” including 
16behavioral health plans.
17(5) “Health coverage program” includes the Medi-Cal program, 
18Healthy Families Program, tax subsidies and premium credits 
19under the Exchange, the Basic Health Program, if enacted, county 
20health coverage programs, and the Access for Infants and Mothers 
21Program.
22(6) “Health insurance” has the same meaning as set forth in 
23Section 106 of the Insurance Code.
24(7) “Health insurer” means an insurer that issues policies of 
25health insurance.
26(8) “Office” means the Office of Patient Advocate.
27(9) “Threshold languages” shall have the same meaning as for 
28Medi-Cal managed care.
Section 395 of the Insurance Code is amended to 
30read:
After a covered loss, an insurer shall provide, free of 
32charge, a complete copy of the insured’s current insurance policy 
33or certificate within 30 calendar days of receipt of a request from 
34the insured. The time period for providing the insurance policy or 
35certificate may be extended by the commissioner. An insured who 
36does not experience a covered loss shall, upon request, be entitled 
37to one free copy of his or her current insurance policy or certificate 
38annually. The insurance policy or certificate provided to the insured 
39shall include, where applicable, the policy declarations page. This 
40section shall not apply to commercial policies issued pursuant to 
P234  1Sections 675.5 and 676.6, and policies of workers’ compensation 
2insurance, as defined in Section 109.
Section 676.75 of the Insurance Code is amended 
4to read:
(a) No admitted insurer, licensed to issue and issuing 
6homeowner’s or tenant’s policies, as described in Section 122, 
7shall (1) fail or refuse to accept an application for that insurance 
8or to issue that insurance to an applicant or (2) cancel that 
9insurance, solely on the basis that the applicant or policyholder is 
10engaged in foster home activities in a certified family home, as 
11defined in Section 1506 of the Health and Safety Code.
12(b) Coverage under policies described in subdivision (a) with 
13respect to a foster child shall be the same as that provided for a 
14natural child. However, unless specifically provided in the policy, 
15there shall be no coverage expressly provided in the policy for any 
16bodily injury arising out of the operation or use of any motor 
17vehicle,
				  aircraft, or watercraft owned or operated by, or rented or 
18loaned to, any foster parent.
19(c) It is against public policy for a policy of homeowner’s or 
20tenant’s insurance subject to this section to provide liability 
21coverage for any of the following losses:
22(1) An insurer shall not be liable, under a policy of insurance 
23subject to this section, to any governmental agency for damage 
24arising from occurrences peculiar to the foster care relationship 
25and the provision of foster care services.
26(2) Alienation of affection of a foster child.
27(3) Any loss arising out of licentious, immoral, or sexual 
28behavior on the part of a foster parent intended to lead to, or 
29culminating in, any sexual act.
30(4) Any loss arising out of a dishonest, fraudulent, criminal, or 
31intentional act.
32(d) There shall be no penalty for violations of this section prior 
33to January 1, 2013.
34(e) Insurers may provide a special endorsement to a 
35homeowner’s or tenant’s policy covering claims related to foster 
36care that are not excluded by subdivision (c).
37(f) Insurers may provide by a separate policy for some or all of 
38the claims related to foster care that are excluded by subdivision 
39(c).
Section 922.41 of the Insurance Code is amended 
2to read:
(a) Credit shall be allowed a domestic insurer when 
4the reinsurance is ceded to an assuming insurer that has been 
5certified by the commissioner as a reinsurer in this state and secures 
6its obligations in accordance with the requirements of this section. 
7Credit shall be allowed at all times for which statutory financial 
8statement credit for reinsurance is claimed under this section. The 
9credit allowed shall be based upon the security held by or on behalf 
10of the ceding insurer in accordance with a rating assigned to the 
11certified reinsurer by the commissioner. The security shall be in 
12a form consistent with this section, any regulations promulgated 
13by the commissioner, and Section 922.5.
14(b) In order to be eligible for certification, the assuming insurer 
15shall meet
				  the following requirements:
16(1) The assuming insurer shall be domiciled and licensed to 
17transact insurance or reinsurance in a qualified jurisdiction, as 
18determined by the commissioner pursuant to subdivisions (f) and 
19(g).
20(2) The assuming insurer shall maintain minimum capital and 
21surplus, or its equivalent, in an amount to be determined by the 
22commissioner, but no less than two hundred fifty million dollars 
23($250,000,000) calculated in accordance with paragraph (4) of 
24subdivision (f) of this section or Section 922.5. This requirement 
25may also be satisfied by an association including incorporated and 
26individual unincorporated underwriters having minimum capital 
27and surplus equivalents (net of liabilities) of at least two hundred 
28fifty million dollars ($250,000,000) and a central fund containing 
29a balance of at least two hundred fifty million dollars 
30($250,000,000).
31(3) The assuming insurer shall maintain financial strength ratings 
32from two or more rating agencies deemed acceptable by the 
33commissioner. These ratings shall be based on interactive 
34communication between the rating agency and the assuming insurer 
35and shall not be based solely on publicly available information. 
36These financial strength ratings will be one factor used by the 
37commissioner in determining the rating that is assigned to the 
38assuming insurer. Acceptable rating agencies include the following:
39(A) Standard & Poor’s.
40(B) Moody’s Investors Service.
P236 1(C) Fitch Ratings.
2(D) A.M. Best Company.
3(E) Any other nationally
				  recognized statistical rating 
4organization.
5(4) The assuming insurer shall agree to submit to the jurisdiction 
6of this state, appoint the commissioner or a designated attorney in 
7this state as its agent for service of process in this state, and agree 
8to provide security for 100 percent of the assuming insurer’s 
9liabilities attributable to reinsurance ceded by United States ceding 
10insurers if it resists enforcement of a final United States judgment.
11(5) The assuming insurer shall agree to meet applicable 
12information filing requirements as determined by the commissioner, 
13both with respect to an initial application for certification and on 
14an ongoing basis.
15(6) The certified reinsurer shall comply with any other 
16requirements deemed relevant by the commissioner.
17(c) (1) If an applicant for certification has been certified as a 
18reinsurer in a National Association of Insurance Commissioners 
19(NAIC) accredited jurisdiction, the commissioner may defer to 
20that jurisdiction’s certification, and has the discretion to defer to 
21the rating assigned by that jurisdiction if the assuming insurer 
22submits a properly executed Form CR-1 (as published on the 
23department’s Internet Web site), and such additional information 
24as the commissioner requires. The commissioner, however, may 
25perform an independent review and determination of any applicant. 
26The assuming insurer shall then be considered to be a certified 
27reinsurer in this state.
28(2) If the commissioner defers to a certification determination 
29by another state, any change in the certified reinsurer’s status or 
30rating in the other jurisdiction shall apply automatically in this 
31state as of the date it takes effect in the other
				  jurisdiction unless 
32the commissioner otherwise determines. The certified reinsurer 
33shall notify the commissioner of any change in its status or rating 
34within 10 days after receiving notice of the change.
35(3) The commissioner may withdraw recognition of the other 
36jurisdiction’s rating at any time and assign a new rating in 
37accordance with subdivision (h).
38(4) The commissioner may withdraw recognition of the other 
39jurisdiction’s certification at any time, with written notice to the 
40certified reinsurer. Unless the commissioner suspends or revokes 
P237  1the certified reinsurer’s certification in accordance with this section 
2and Section 922.42, the certified reinsurer’s certification shall 
3remain in good standing in this state for a period of three months, 
4which shall be extended if additional time is necessary to consider 
5the assuming insurer’s application for certification in this
				  state.
6(d) An association, including incorporated and individual 
7unincorporated underwriters, may be a certified reinsurer. In order 
8to be eligible for certification, in addition to satisfying requirements 
9of subdivision (b), the reinsurer shall meet all of the following 
10requirements:
11(1) The association shall satisfy its minimum capital and surplus 
12requirements through the capital and surplus equivalents (net of 
13liabilities) of the association and its members, which shall include 
14a joint central fund that may be applied to any unsatisfied 
15obligation of the association or any of its members, in an amount 
16determined by the commissioner to provide adequate protection.
17(2) The incorporated members of the association shall not be 
18engaged in any business other than underwriting as a member of 
19the association and shall be
				  subject to the same level of regulation 
20and solvency control by the association’s domiciliary regulator as 
21are the unincorporated members.
22(3) Within 90 days after its financial statements are due to be 
23filed with the association’s domiciliary regulator, the association 
24shall provide to the commissioner an annual certification by the 
25association’s domiciliary regulator of the solvency of each 
26underwriter member or, if a certification is unavailable, financial 
27statements, prepared by independent public accountants, of each 
28underwriter member of the association.
29(e) (1) The commissioner shall post notice on the department’s 
30Internet Web site promptly upon receipt of any application for 
31certification, including instructions on how members of the public 
32may respond to the application. The commissioner shall not take 
33final action on the application until at least
				  90 days after posting 
34the notice required by this subdivision.
35(2) The commissioner shall issue written notice to an assuming 
36insurer that has made application and has been approved as a 
37certified reinsurer. Included in that notice shall be the rating 
38assigned the certified reinsurer in accordance with subdivision (h). 
39The commissioner shall publish a list of all certified reinsurers and 
40their ratings.
P238  1(f) The certified reinsurer shall agree to meet applicable 
2information filing requirements as determined by the commissioner, 
3both with respect to an initial application for certification and on 
4an ongoing basis. All information submitted by certified reinsurers 
5that is not otherwise public information subject to disclosure shall 
6be exempted from disclosure under Chapter 3.5 (commencing with 
7Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, 
8and shall be withheld from
				  public disclosure. The applicable 
9information filing requirements are as follows:
10(1) Notification within 10 days of any regulatory actions taken 
11against the certified reinsurer, any change in the provisions of its 
12domiciliary license or any change in rating by an approved rating 
13agency, including a statement describing those changes and the 
14reasons for those changes.
15(2) Annually, Form CR-F or CR-S, as applicable pursuant to 
16the instructions published on the department’s Internet Web site.
17(3) Annually, the report of the independent auditor on the 
18financial statements of the insurance enterprise, on the basis 
19described in paragraph (4).
20(4) Annually, audited financial statements, (audited United 
21States Generally Accepted Accounting Principles basis, if
				  available, 
22audited International Financial Reporting Standards basis 
23statements are allowed, but must include an audited footnote 
24reconciling equity and net income to a United States Generally 
25Accepted Accounting Principles basis, or, with the written 
26permission of the commissioner, audited International Financial 
27Reporting Standards statements with reconciliation to United States 
28Generally Accepted Accounting Principles certified by an officer 
29of the company), regulatory filings, and actuarial opinion (as filed 
30with the certified reinsurer’s supervisor). Upon the initial 
31certification, audited financial statements for the last three years 
32filed with the certified reinsurer’s supervisor.
33(5) At least annually, an updated list of all disputed and overdue 
34reinsurance claims regarding reinsurance assumed from United 
35States domestic ceding insurers.
36(6) A certification from the
				  certified reinsurer’s domestic 
37regulator that the certified reinsurer is in good standing and 
38maintains capital in excess of the jurisdiction’s highest regulatory 
39action level.
P239  1(7) Any other information that the commissioner may reasonably 
2require.
3(g) If the commissioner certifies a non-United States domiciled 
4insurer, the commissioner shall create and publish a list of qualified 
5jurisdictions, under which an assuming insurer licensed and 
6domiciled in that jurisdiction is eligible to be considered for 
7certification by the commissioner as a certified reinsurer.
8(1) In order to determine whether the domiciliary jurisdiction 
9of a non-United States assuming insurer is eligible to be recognized 
10as a qualified jurisdiction, the commissioner shall evaluate the 
11appropriateness and effectiveness of the reinsurance
				  supervisory 
12system of the jurisdiction, both initially and on an ongoing basis, 
13and consider the rights, benefits, and the extent of reciprocal 
14recognition afforded by the non-United States jurisdiction to 
15reinsurers licensed and domiciled in the United States. The 
16commissioner shall determine the appropriate process for 
17evaluating the qualifications of those jurisdictions. Prior to its 
18listing, a qualified jurisdiction shall agree in writing to share 
19information and cooperate with the commissioner with respect to 
20all certified reinsurers domiciled within that jurisdiction. A 
21jurisdiction may not be recognized as a qualified jurisdiction if the 
22commissioner has determined that the jurisdiction does not 
23adequately and promptly enforce final United States judgments 
24and arbitration awards. Additional factors may be considered in 
25the discretion of the commissioner, including, but not limited to, 
26the following:
27(A) The framework under which the
				  assuming insurer is 
28regulated.
29(B) The structure and authority of the domiciliary regulator with 
30regard to solvency regulation requirements and financial 
31surveillance.
32(C) The substance of financial and operating standards for 
33assuming insurers in the domiciliary jurisdiction.
34(D) The form and substance of financial reports required to be 
35filed or made publicly available by reinsurers in the domiciliary 
36jurisdiction and the accounting principles used.
37(E) The domiciliary regulator’s willingness to cooperate with 
38United States regulators in general and the commissioner in 
39particular.
P240  1(F) The history of performance by assuming insurers in the 
2domiciliary jurisdiction.
3(G) Any documented evidence of substantial problems with the 
4enforcement of final United States judgments in the domiciliary 
5jurisdiction.
6(H) Any relevant international standards or guidance with 
7respect to mutual recognition of reinsurance supervision adopted 
8by the International Association of Insurance Supervisors or a 
9successor organization.
10(I) Any other matters deemed relevant by the commissioner.
11(2) The commissioner shall consider the list of qualified 
12jurisdictions published through the NAIC committee process in 
13determining qualified jurisdictions. The commissioner may include 
14on the list published pursuant to this section, any jurisdiction on 
15the NAIC list of qualified jurisdictions, or on any equivalent list 
16of the United States Treasury.
17(3) If the commissioner approves a jurisdiction as qualified that 
18does not appear on either the NAIC list of qualified jurisdictions, 
19or the United States Treasury list, the commissioner shall provide 
20thoroughly documented justification in accordance with criteria 
21to be developed under this section.
22(4) United States jurisdictions that meet the requirements for 
23accreditation under the NAIC financial standards and accreditation 
24program shall be recognized as qualified jurisdictions.
25(5) If a certified reinsurer’s domiciliary jurisdiction ceases to 
26be a qualified jurisdiction, the commissioner has the discretion to 
27suspend the reinsurer’s certification indefinitely, in lieu of 
28revocation.
29(h) The commissioner shall assign a rating to each certified
30
				  reinsurer, giving due consideration to the financial strength ratings 
31that have been assigned by rating agencies deemed acceptable to 
32the commissioner pursuant to this section. The commissioner shall 
33publish a list of all certified reinsurers and their ratings.
34(1) Each certified reinsurer shall be rated on a legal entity basis, 
35with due consideration being given to the group rating where 
36appropriate, except that an association including incorporated and 
37individual unincorporated underwriters that has been approved to 
38do business as a single certified reinsurer may be evaluated on the 
39basis of its group rating. Factors that may be considered as part of 
40the evaluation process include, but are not limited to, the following:
P241  1(A) The certified reinsurer’s financial strength rating from an 
2acceptable rating agency. The maximum rating that a certified 
3reinsurer may be assigned shall
				  correspond to its financial strength 
4rating as set forth in clauses (i) to (vi), inclusive. The commissioner 
5shall use the lowest financial strength rating received from an 
6approved rating agency in establishing the maximum rating of a 
7certified reinsurer. A failure to obtain or maintain at least two 
8financial strength ratings from acceptable rating agencies shall 
9result in loss of eligibility for certification.
10(i) Ratings category “Secure - 1” corresponds to A.M. Best 
11Company rating A++; Standard & Poor’s rating AAA; Moody’s 
12Investors Service rating Aaa; and Fitch Ratings rating AAA.
13(ii) Ratings category “Secure - 2” corresponds to A.M. Best 
14Company rating A+; Standard & Poor’s rating AA+, AA, or AA-; 
15Moody’s Investors Service rating Aa1, Aa2, or Aa3; and Fitch 
16Ratings rating AA+, AA, or AA-.
17(iii) Ratings
				  category “Secure - 3” corresponds to A.M. Best 
18Company rating A; Standard & Poor’s rating A+ or A; Moody’s 
19Investors Service rating A1 or A2; and Fitch Ratings rating A+ or 
20A.
21(iv) Ratings category “Secure - 4” corresponds to A.M. Best 
22Company rating A-; Standard & Poor’s rating A-; Moody’s 
23Investors Service rating A3; and Fitch Ratings rating A-.
24(v) Ratings category “Secure - 5” corresponds to A.M. Best 
25Company rating B++ or B+; Standard & Poor’s rating BBB+, 
26BBB, or BBB-; Moody’s Investors Service rating Baa1, Baa2, or 
27Baa3; and Fitch Ratings rating BBB+, BBB, or BBB-.
28(vi) Ratings category “Vulnerable - 6” corresponds to A.M. 
29Best Company rating B, B-, C++, C+, C, C-, D, E, or F; Standard 
30& Poor’s rating BB+, BB, BB-, B+, B, B-, CCC, CC, C, D, or R; 
31Moody’s Investors Service rating Ba1, Ba2, Ba3,
				  B1, B2, B3, Caa, 
32Ca, or C; and Fitch Ratings rating BB+, BB, BB-, B+, B, B-, 
33CCC+, CC, CCC-, or DD.
34(B) The business practices of the certified reinsurer in dealing 
35with its ceding insurers, including its record of compliance with 
36reinsurance contractual terms and obligations.
37(C) For certified reinsurers domiciled in the United States, a 
38review of the most recent applicable NAIC Annual Statement 
39Blank, either Schedule F (for property/casualty reinsurers) or 
40Schedule S (for life and health reinsurers).
P242  1(D) For certified reinsurers not domiciled in the United States, 
2a review annually of Form CR-F (for property/casualty reinsurers) 
3or Form CR-S (for life and health reinsurers) (as published on the 
4department’s Internet Web site).
5(E) The reputation of
				  the certified reinsurer for prompt payment 
6of claims under reinsurance agreements, based on an analysis of 
7ceding insurers’ Schedule F reporting of overdue reinsurance 
8recoverables, including the proportion of obligations that are more 
9than 90 days past due or are in dispute, with specific attention 
10given to obligations payable to companies that are in administrative 
11supervision or receivership.
12(F) Regulatory actions against the certified reinsurer.
13(G) The report of the independent auditor on the financial 
14statements of the insurance enterprise, on the basis described in 
15subparagraph (H).
16(H) For certified reinsurers not domiciled in the United States, 
17audited financial statements, (audited United States Generally 
18Accepted Accounting Principles basis, if available, audited 
19International Financial Reporting
				  Standards basis statements are 
20allowed, but must include an audited footnote reconciling equity 
21and net income to a United States Generally Accepted Accounting 
22Principles basis, or, with the written permission of the 
23commissioner, audited International Financial Reporting Standards 
24statements with reconciliation to United States Generally Accepted 
25Accounting Principles certified by an officer of the company), 
26regulatory filings, and actuarial opinion (as filed with the 
27non-United States jurisdiction supervisor). Upon the initial 
28application for certification, the commissioner shall consider 
29audited financial statements for the last three years filed with its 
30non-United States jurisdiction supervisor.
31(I) The liquidation priority of obligations to a ceding insurer in 
32the certified reinsurer’s domiciliary jurisdiction in the context of 
33an insolvency proceeding.
34(J) A certified
				  reinsurer’s participation in any solvent scheme 
35of arrangement, or similar procedure, which involves United States 
36ceding insurers. The commissioner shall receive prior notice from 
37a certified reinsurer that proposes participation by the certified 
38reinsurer in a solvent scheme of arrangement.
39(K) Any other information deemed relevant by the 
40commissioner.
P243  1(2) Based on the analysis conducted under subparagraph (E) of 
2paragraph (1) of a certified reinsurer’s reputation for prompt 
3payment of claims, the commissioner may make appropriate 
4adjustments in the security the certified reinsurer is required to 
5post to protect its liabilities to United States ceding insurers, 
6provided that the commissioner shall, at a minimum, increase the 
7security the certified reinsurer is required to post by one rating 
8level under regulations promulgated by the commissioner, if the 
9commissioner finds either
				  of the following:
10(A) More than 15 percent of the certified reinsurer’s ceding 
11insurance clients have overdue reinsurance recoverables on paid 
12losses of 90 days or more that are not in dispute and that exceed 
13one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) for each ceding insurer.
14(B) The aggregate amount of reinsurance recoverables on paid 
15losses that are not in dispute and that are overdue by 90 days or 
16more exceeds fifty million dollars ($50,000,000).
17(3) The assuming insurer shall submit a properly executed Form 
18CR-1 (as published on the department’s Internet Web site) as 
19evidence of its submission to the jurisdiction of this state, 
20appointment of the commissioner as an agent for service of process 
21in this state, and agreement to provide security for 100 percent of 
22the assuming insurer’s liabilities attributable to
				  reinsurance ceded 
23by United States ceding insurers if it resists enforcement of a final 
24United States judgment. The commissioner shall not certify any 
25assuming insurer that is domiciled in a jurisdiction that the 
26commissioner has determined does not adequately and promptly 
27enforce final United States judgments or arbitration awards.
28(4) (A) In the case of a downgrade by a rating agency or other 
29disqualifying circumstance, the commissioner shall, upon written 
30notice, assign a new rating to the certified reinsurer in accordance 
31with the requirements of this subdivision.
32(B) The commissioner shall have the authority to suspend, 
33revoke, or otherwise modify a certified reinsurer’s certification at 
34any time if the certified reinsurer fails to meet its obligations or 
35security requirements under this section, or if other financial or 
36operating results of the
				  certified reinsurer, or documented 
37significant delays in payment by the certified reinsurer, lead the 
38commissioner to reconsider the certified reinsurer’s ability or 
39willingness to meet its contractual obligations.
P244  1(C) If the rating of a certified reinsurer is upgraded by the 
2commissioner, the certified reinsurer may meet the security 
3requirements applicable to its new rating on a prospective basis, 
4but the commissioner shall require the certified reinsurer to post 
5security under the previously applicable security requirements as 
6to all contracts in force on or before the effective date of the 
7upgraded rating. If the rating of a certified reinsurer is downgraded 
8by the commissioner, the commissioner shall require the certified 
9reinsurer to meet the security requirements applicable to its new 
10rating for all business it has assumed as a certified reinsurer.
11(D) Upon revocation of
				  the certification of a certified reinsurer 
12by the commissioner, the assuming insurer shall be required to 
13post security in accordance with Section 922.5 in order for the 
14ceding insurer to continue to take credit for reinsurance ceded to 
15the assuming insurer. If funds continue to be held in trust in 
16accordance with subdivision (d) of Section 922.4, the commissioner 
17may allow additional credit equal to the ceding insurer’s pro rata 
18share of those funds, discounted to reflect the risk of 
19uncollectibility and anticipated expenses of trust administration. 
20Notwithstanding the change of a certified reinsurer’s rating or 
21revocation of its certification, a domestic insurer that has ceded 
22reinsurance to that certified reinsurer shall not be denied credit for 
23reinsurance for a period of three months for all reinsurance ceded 
24to that certified reinsurer, unless the reinsurance is found by the 
25commissioner to be at high risk of uncollectibility.
26(i) A
				  certified reinsurer shall secure obligations assumed from 
27United States ceding insurers under this subdivision at a level 
28consistent with its rating. The amount of security required in order 
29for full credit to be allowed shall correspond with the following 
30requirements:
31Ratings security required
32Secure - 1: 0%
33Secure - 2: 10%
34Secure - 3: 20%
35Secure - 4: 50%
36Secure - 5: 75%
37Vulnerable - 6: 100%
38(1) In order for a domestic ceding insurer to qualify for full 
39financial statement credit for reinsurance ceded to a certified 
40reinsurer, the certified reinsurer shall maintain security in a form 
P245  1acceptable to the commissioner and consistent with Section
				  922.5, 
2or in a multibeneficiary trust in accordance with subdivision (d) 
3of Section 922.4, except as otherwise provided in this subdivision. 
4In order for a domestic insurer to qualify for full financial statement 
5credit, reinsurance contracts entered into or renewed under this 
6section shall include a proper funding clause that requires the 
7certified reinsurer to provide and maintain security in an amount 
8sufficient to avoid the imposition of any financial statement penalty 
9on the ceding insurer under this section for reinsurance ceded to 
10the certified reinsurer.
11(2) If a certified reinsurer maintains a trust to fully secure its 
12obligations subject to subdivision (d) of Section 922.4, and chooses 
13to secure its obligations incurred as a certified reinsurer in the form 
14of a multibeneficiary trust, the certified reinsurer shall maintain 
15separate trust accounts for its obligations incurred under 
16reinsurance agreements issued or renewed as a
				  certified reinsurer 
17with reduced security as permitted by this subdivision or 
18comparable laws of other United States jurisdictions and for its 
19obligations subject to subdivision (d) of Section 922.4. It shall be 
20a condition to the grant of certification under this section that the 
21certified reinsurer shall have bound itself, by the language of the 
22trust and agreement with the commissioner with principal 
23regulatory oversight of each of those trust accounts, to fund, upon 
24termination of any of those trust accounts, out of the remaining 
25surplus of those trusts any deficiency of any other of those trust 
26accounts.
27(3) The minimum trusteed surplus requirements provided in 
28subdivision (d) of Section 922.4 are not applicable with respect to 
29a multibeneficiary trust maintained by a certified reinsurer for the 
30purpose of securing obligations incurred under this subdivision, 
31except that the trust shall maintain a minimum trusteed surplus of 
32ten million
				  dollars ($10,000,000).
33(4) With respect to obligations incurred by a certified reinsurer 
34under this subdivision, if the security is insufficient, the 
35commissioner shall reduce the allowable credit by an amount 
36proportionate to the deficiency, and have the discretion to impose 
37further reductions in allowable credit upon finding that there is a 
38material risk that the certified reinsurer’s obligations will not be 
39paid in full when due.
P246  1(5) For purposes of this subdivision, a certified reinsurer whose 
2certification has been terminated for any reason shall be treated 
3as a certified reinsurer required to secure 100 percent of its 
4obligations.
5(A) As used in this subdivision, the term “terminated” means 
6revocation, suspension, voluntary surrender, and inactive status.
7(B) If the commissioner continues to assign a higher rating as 
8permitted by other provisions of this section, this requirement shall 
9not apply to a certified reinsurer in inactive status or to a reinsurer 
10whose certification has been suspended.
11(6) The commissioner shall require the certified reinsurer to 
12post 100-percent security in accordance with Section 922.5, for 
13the benefit of the ceding insurer or its estate, upon the entry of an 
14order of rehabilitation, liquidation, or conservation against the 
15ceding insurer.
16(7) Affiliated reinsurance transactions shall receive the same 
17opportunity for reduced security requirements as all other 
18reinsurance transactions.
19(8) In order to facilitate the prompt payment of claims, a certified 
20reinsurer shall not be required to post security for catastrophe
21
				  recoverables for a period of one year from the date of the first 
22instance of a liability reserve entry by the ceding company as a 
23result of a loss from a catastrophic occurrence that is likely to result 
24in significant insured losses, as recognized by the commissioner. 
25The one-year deferral period is contingent upon the certified 
26reinsurer continuing to pay claims in a timely manner, as 
27determined by the commissioner, in writing. Reinsurance 
28recoverables for only the following lines of business as reported 
29on the NAIC annual financial statement related specifically to the 
30catastrophic occurrence shall be included in the deferral:
31(A) Line 1: Fire.
32(B) Line 2: Allied lines.
33(C) Line 3: Farmowners’ multiple peril.
34(D) Line 4: Homeowners’ multiple peril.
35(E) Line 5: Commercial multiple peril.
36(F) Line 9: Inland marine.
37(G) Line 12: Earthquake.
38(H) Line 21: Auto physical damage.
39(9) Credit for reinsurance under this section shall apply only to 
40reinsurance contracts entered into or renewed on or after the 
P247  1effective date of the certification of the assuming insurer. Any 
2reinsurance contract entered into prior to the effective date of the 
3certification of the assuming insurer that is subsequently amended 
4by mutual agreement of the parties to the reinsurance contract after 
5the effective date of the certification of the assuming insurer, or a 
6new reinsurance contract, covering any risk for which collateral 
7was provided previously, shall
				  only be subject to this section with 
8respect to losses incurred and reserves reported from and after the 
9effective date of the amendment or new contract.
10(10) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit the 
11parties to a reinsurance agreement from agreeing to provisions 
12establishing security requirements that exceed the minimum 
13security requirements established for certified reinsurers under 
14this section.
15(j) A certified reinsurer that ceases to assume new business in 
16this state may request to maintain its certification in inactive status 
17in order to continue to qualify for a reduction in security for its 
18in-force business. An inactive certified reinsurer shall continue to 
19comply with all applicable requirements of this section, and the 
20commissioner shall assign a rating that takes into account, if 
21relevant, the reasons why the reinsurer is not assuming new 
22business.
23(k) Notwithstanding this section, credit for reinsurance or 
24deduction from liability by a domestic ceding insurer for cessions 
25to a certified reinsurer may be disallowed upon a finding by the 
26commissioner that the application of the literal provisions of this 
27section does not accomplish its intent, or either the financial 
28condition of the reinsurer or the collateral or other security provided 
29by the reinsurer does not, in substance, satisfy the credit for 
30reinsurance requirements in Section 922.4.
31(l) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2016, 
32and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that 
33is enacted before January 1, 2016, deletes or extends that date.
Section 1063.1 of the Insurance Code is amended 
35to read:
As used in this article:
37(a) “Member insurer” means an insurer required to be a member 
38of the association in accordance with subdivision (a) of Section 
391063, except and to the extent that the insurer is participating in 
40an insolvency program adopted by the United States government.
P248  1(b) “Insolvent insurer” means an insurer that was a member 
2insurer of the association, consistent with paragraph (11) of 
3subdivision (c), either at the time the policy was issued or when 
4the insured event occurred, and against which an order of 
5liquidation with a finding of insolvency has been entered by a court 
6of competent jurisdiction, or, in the case of the State Compensation 
7Insurance Fund, if a finding of insolvency is made by a duly
8
				  enacted legislative measure.
9(c) (1) “Covered claims” means the obligations of an insolvent 
10insurer, including the obligation for unearned premiums, that satisfy 
11all of the following requirements:
12(A) Imposed by law and within the coverage of an insurance 
13policy of the insolvent insurer.
14(B) Which were unpaid by the insolvent insurer.
15(C) Which are presented as a claim to the liquidator in the state 
16of domicile of the insolvent insurer or to the association on or 
17before the last date fixed for the filing of claims in the domiciliary 
18liquidating proceedings.
19(D) Which were incurred prior to the date coverage under the 
20policy terminated and prior to, on, or within 30
				  days after the date 
21the liquidator was appointed.
22(E) For which the assets of the insolvent insurer are insufficient 
23to discharge in full.
24(F) In the case of a policy of workers’ compensation insurance, 
25to provide workers’ compensation benefits under the workers’ 
26compensation law of this state.
27(G) In the case of other classes of insurance if the claimant or 
28insured is a resident of this state at the time of the insured 
29occurrence, or the property from which the claim arises is 
30permanently located in this state.
31(2) “Covered claims” also includes the obligations assumed by 
32an assuming insurer from a ceding insurer where the assuming 
33insurer subsequently becomes an insolvent insurer if, at the time 
34of the insolvency of the assuming insurer, the ceding
				  insurer is no 
35longer admitted to transact business in this state. Both the assuming 
36insurer and the ceding insurer shall have been member insurers at 
37the time the assumption was made. “Covered claims” under this 
38paragraph shall be required to satisfy the requirements of 
39subparagraphs (A) to (G), inclusive, of paragraph (1), except for 
40the requirement that the claims be against policies of the insolvent 
P249  1insurer. The association shall have a right to recover any deposit, 
2bond, or other assets that may have been required to be posted by 
3the ceding company to the extent of covered claim payments and 
4shall be subrogated to any rights the policyholders may have 
5against the ceding insurer.
6(3) “Covered claims” does not include obligations arising from 
7the following:
8(A) Life, annuity, health, or disability insurance.
9(B) Mortgage guaranty, financial guaranty, or other forms of 
10insurance offering protection against investment risks.
11(C) Fidelity or surety insurance including fidelity or surety 
12bonds, or any other bonding obligations.
13(D) Credit insurance.
14(E) Title insurance.
15(F) Ocean marine insurance or ocean marine coverage under 
16an insurance policy including claims arising from the following: 
17the Jones Act (46 U.S.C. Secs. 30104 and 30105), the Longshore 
18and Harbor Workers’ Compensation Act (33 U.S.C. Sec. 901 et 
19seq.), or any other similar federal statutory enactment, or an 
20endorsement or policy affording protection and indemnity 
21coverage.
22(G) Any claims servicing agreement or
				  insurance policy 
23providing retroactive insurance of a known loss or losses, except 
24a special excess workers’ compensation policy issued pursuant to 
25subdivision (c) of Section 3702.8 of the Labor Code that covers 
26all or any part of workers’ compensation liabilities of an employer 
27that is issued, or was previously issued, a certificate of consent to 
28self-insure pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 3700 of the Labor 
29Code.
30(4) “Covered claims” does not include any obligations of the 
31insolvent insurer arising out of any reinsurance contracts, nor any 
32obligations incurred after the expiration date of the insurance policy 
33or after the insurance policy has been replaced by the insured or 
34canceled at the insured’s request, or after the insurance policy has 
35been canceled by the liquidator, nor any obligations to a state or 
36to the federal government.
37(5) “Covered claims” does not include
				  any obligations to 
38insurers, insurance pools, or underwriting associations, nor their 
39claims for contribution, indemnity, or subrogation, equitable or 
40otherwise, except as otherwise provided in this chapter.
P250  1An insurer, insurance pool, or underwriting association may not 
2maintain, in its own name or in the name of its insured, a claim or 
3legal action against the insured of the insolvent insurer for 
4contribution, indemnity, or by way of subrogation, except insofar 
5as, and to the extent only, that the claim exceeds the policy limits 
6of the insolvent insurer’s policy. In those claims or legal actions, 
7the insured of the insolvent insurer is entitled to a credit or setoff 
8in the amount of the policy limits of the insolvent insurer’s policy, 
9or in the amount of the limits remaining, where those limits have 
10been diminished by the payment of other claims.
11(6) “Covered claims,” except in cases involving a
				  claim for 
12workers’ compensation benefits or for unearned premiums, does 
13not include a claim in an amount of one hundred dollars ($100) or 
14less, nor that portion of a claim that is in excess of any applicable 
15limits provided in the insurance policy issued by the insolvent 
16insurer.
17(7) “Covered claims” does not include that portion of a claim, 
18other than a claim for workers’ compensation benefits, that is in 
19excess of five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000).
20(8) “Covered claims” does not include any amount awarded as 
21punitive or exemplary damages, nor any amount awarded by the 
22Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board pursuant to Section 5814 
23or 5814.5 of the Labor Code because payment of compensation 
24was unreasonably delayed or refused by the insolvent insurer.
25(9) “Covered claims” does not include (A) a claim to the
				  extent 
26it is covered by any other insurance of a class covered by this 
27article available to the claimant or insured or (B) a claim by a 
28person other than the original claimant under the insurance policy 
29in his or her own name, his or her assignee as the person entitled 
30thereto under a premium finance agreement as defined in Section 
31673 and entered into prior to insolvency, his or her executor, 
32administrator, guardian, or other personal representative or trustee 
33in bankruptcy, and does not include a claim asserted by an assignee 
34or one claiming by right of subrogation, except as otherwise 
35provided in this chapter.
36(10) “Covered claims” does not include any obligations arising 
37out of the issuance of an insurance policy written by the separate 
38division of the State Compensation Insurance Fund pursuant to 
39Sections 11802 and 11803.
P251  1(11) “Covered claims” does not include any obligations
				  of the 
2insolvent insurer arising from a policy or contract of insurance 
3issued or renewed prior to the insolvent insurer’s admission to 
4transact insurance in the State of California.
5(12) “Covered claims” does not include surplus deposits of 
6subscribers as defined in Section 1374.1.
7(13) “Covered claims” shall also include obligations arising 
8under an insurance policy written to indemnify a permissibly 
9self-insured employer pursuant to subdivision (b) or (c) of Section 
103700 of the Labor Code for its liability to pay workers’ 
11compensation benefits in excess of a specific or aggregate retention. 
12However, for purposes of this article, those claims shall not be 
13considered workers’ compensation claims and therefore are subject 
14to the per-claim limit in paragraph (7), and any payments and 
15expenses related thereto shall be allocated to category (c) for claims 
16other than workers’
				  compensation, homeowners, and automobile, 
17as provided in Section 1063.5.
18These provisions shall apply to obligations arising under a policy 
19as described herein issued to a permissibly self-insured employer 
20or group of self-insured employers pursuant to Section 3700 of 
21the Labor Code and notwithstanding any other provision of this 
22code, those obligations shall be governed by this provision in the 
23event that the Self-Insurers’ Security Fund is ordered to assume 
24the liabilities of a permissibly self-insured employer or group of 
25self-insured employers pursuant to Section 3701.5 of the Labor 
26Code. The provisions of this paragraph apply only to insurance 
27policies written to indemnify a permissibly self-insured employer 
28or group of self-insured employers under subdivision (b) or (c) of 
29Section 3700 of the Labor Code, for its liability to pay workers’ 
30compensation benefits in excess of a specific or aggregate retention, 
31and this paragraph does not apply to special excess
				  workers’ 
32compensation insurance policies unless issued pursuant to authority 
33granted in subdivision (c) of Section 3702.8 of the Labor Code, 
34and as provided for in subparagraph (G) of paragraph (3). In 
35addition, this paragraph does not apply to any claims servicing 
36agreement or insurance policy providing retroactive insurance of 
37a known loss or losses as are excluded in subparagraph (G) of 
38paragraph (3).
39Each permissibly self-insured employer or group of self-insured 
40employers, or the Self-Insurers’ Security Fund, shall, to the extent 
P252  1required by the Labor Code, be responsible for paying, adjusting, 
2and defending each claim arising under policies of insurance 
3covered under this section, unless the benefits paid on a claim 
4exceed the specific or aggregate retention, in which case:
5(A) If the benefits paid on the claim exceed the specific or 
6aggregate retention, and the policy requires the insurer to
				  defend 
7and adjust the claim, the California Insurance Guarantee 
8Association (CIGA) shall be solely responsible for adjusting and 
9defending the claim, and shall make all payments due under the 
10claim, subject to the limitations and exclusions of this article with 
11regard to covered claims. As to each claim subject to this 
12paragraph, notwithstanding any other provisions of this code or 
13the Labor Code, and regardless of whether the amount paid by 
14CIGA is adequate to discharge a claim obligation, neither the 
15self-insured employer, group of self-insured employers, nor the 
16Self-Insurers’ Security Fund shall have any obligation to pay 
17benefits over and above the specific or aggregate retention, except 
18as provided in this subdivision.
19(B) If the benefits paid on the claim exceed the specific or 
20aggregate retention, and the policy does not require the insurer to 
21defend and adjust the claim, the permissibly self-insured employer 
22or group of self-insured
				  employers, or the Self-Insurers’ Security 
23Fund, shall not have any further payment obligations with respect 
24to the claim, but shall continue defending and adjusting the claim, 
25and shall have the right, but not the obligation, in any proceeding 
26to assert all applicable statutory limitations and exclusions as 
27contained in this article with regard to the covered claim. CIGA 
28shall have the right, but not the obligation, to intervene in any 
29proceeding where the self-insured employer, group of self-insured 
30employers, or the Self-Insurers’ Security Fund is defending a claim 
31and shall be permitted to raise the appropriate statutory limitations 
32and exclusions as contained in this article with respect to covered 
33claims. Regardless of whether the self-insured employer or group 
34of self-insured employers, or the Self-Insurers’ Security Fund, 
35asserts the applicable statutory limitations and exclusions, or 
36whether CIGA intervenes in a proceeding, CIGA shall be solely 
37responsible for paying all benefits due on the claim,
				  subject to the 
38exclusions and limitations of this article with respect to covered 
39claims. As to each claim subject to this paragraph, notwithstanding 
40any other provision of the Insurance Code or the Labor Code and 
P253  1regardless of whether the amount paid by CIGA is adequate to 
2discharge a claim obligation, neither the self-insured employer, 
3group of self-insured employers, nor the Self-Insurers’ Security 
4Fund, shall have an obligation to pay benefits over and above the 
5specific or aggregate retention, except as provided in this 
6subdivision.
7(C) In the event that the benefits paid on the covered claim 
8exceed the per-claim limit in paragraph (7), the responsibility for 
9paying, adjusting, and defending the claim shall be returned to the 
10permissibly self-insured employer or group of employers, or the 
11Self-Insurers’ Security Fund.
12These provisions shall apply to all pending and future 
13insolvencies. For
				  purposes of this paragraph, a pending insolvency 
14is one involving a company that is currently receiving benefits 
15from the guarantee association.
16(d) “Admitted to transact insurance in this state” means an 
17insurer possessing a valid certificate of authority issued by the 
18department.
19(e) “Affiliate” means a person who directly or indirectly, through 
20one or more intermediaries, controls, is controlled by, or is under 
21common control with an insolvent insurer on December 31 of the 
22year next preceding the date the insurer becomes an insolvent 
23insurer.
24(f) “Control” means the possession, direct or indirect, of the 
25power to direct or cause the direction of the management and 
26policies of a person, whether through the ownership of voting 
27securities, by contract other than a commercial contract for goods 
28or nonmanagement
				  services, or otherwise, unless the power is the 
29result of an official position with or corporate office held by the 
30person. Control is presumed to exist if a person, directly or 
31indirectly, owns, controls, holds with the power to vote, or holds 
32proxies representing, 10 percent or more of the voting securities 
33of any other person. This presumption may be rebutted by showing 
34that control does not in fact exist.
35(g) “Claimant” means an insured making a first party claim or 
36a person instituting a liability claim. However, no person who is 
37an affiliate of the insolvent insurer may be a claimant.
38(h) “Ocean marine insurance” includes marine insurance as 
39defined in Section 103, except for inland marine insurance, as well 
40as any other form of insurance, regardless of the name, label, or 
P254  1marketing designation of the insurance policy, that insures against 
2maritime perils or risks and other
				  related perils or risks, that are 
3usually insured against by traditional marine insurance such as 
4hull and machinery, marine builders’ risks, and marine protection 
5and indemnity. Those perils and risks insured against include, 
6without limitation, loss, damage, or expense or legal liability of 
7the insured arising out of or incident to ownership, operation, 
8chartering, maintenance, use, repair, or construction of a vessel, 
9craft, or instrumentality in use in ocean or inland waterways, 
10including liability of the insured for personal injury, illness, or 
11death for loss or damage to the property of the insured or another 
12person.
13(i) “Unearned premium” means that portion of a premium as 
14calculated by the liquidator that had not been earned because of 
15the cancellation of the insolvent insurer’s policy and is that 
16premium remaining for the unexpired term of the insolvent 
17insurer’s policy. “Unearned premium” does not include any amount 
18sought as return
				  of a premium under a policy providing retroactive 
19insurance of a known loss or return of a premium under a 
20retrospectively rated policy or a policy subject to a contingent 
21surcharge or a policy in which the final determination of the 
22premium cost is computed after expiration of the policy and is 
23calculated on the basis of actual loss experienced during the policy 
24period.
Section 1754 of the Insurance Code is amended to 
26read:
Transaction of travel insurance under the license of an 
28organization holding a limited lines travel insurance agent license 
29shall be subject to the following conditions:
30(a) A limited lines travel insurance agent may authorize a travel 
31retailer to transact travel insurance on behalf of and under its 
32authority under the following conditions:
33(1) The limited lines travel insurance agent is clearly identified 
34on marketing materials and fulfillment packages distributed by the 
35travel retailers to customers. The marketing materials and 
36fulfillment packages shall include the agent’s name, business 
37address, email address, telephone number, license number, and 
38the availability of the department’s toll-free consumer hotline.
39(2) The limited lines travel insurance agent, at the time of 
40licensure and thereafter, maintains a register noting each travel 
P255  1retailer that transacts travel insurance on the licensee’s behalf. The 
2register shall be maintained and updated annually by the licensee 
3in a form prescribed by, or format acceptable to, the commissioner 
4and shall include the name and contact information of the travel 
5retailer and an officer or person who directs or controls the travel 
6retailer’s operations, and the travel retailer’s federal employer 
7identification number (FEIN). The licensee shall also certify that 
8the registered travel retailer complies with Section 1033 of Title 
918 of the United States Code. The licensee shall submit the register 
10for review and inspection upon request by the department.
11(3) The limited lines travel insurance agent has designated one 
12of its employees to be responsible for
				  its compliance with the 
13insurance laws, rules, and regulations of the state. The limited lines 
14travel insurance agent and its designated responsible employees 
15shall hold property, casualty, life-only, and accident and health 
16agent licenses, to the extent required by this chapter, based upon 
17the types of insurance transacted by the licensee.
18(4) The employee designated by the limited lines travel 
19insurance agent, pursuant to paragraph (3), and any of the 
20organization’s partners, members, controlling persons, officers, 
21directors, and managers comply with the background check 
22requirements as required by the commissioner.
23(5) The limited lines travel insurance agent has paid all 
24applicable licensing fees required under California law.
25(6) The limited lines travel insurance agent uses all reasonable 
26means at its disposal
				  to ensure compliance by the travel retailer 
27and the travel retailer’s employees with their obligations under 
28this article. This includes requiring each employee of the travel 
29retailer whose duties include transacting travel insurance to receive 
30training. The training shall be provided whenever there is a material 
31change that requires a modification to the training materials, but 
32in no event less frequently than every three years. Training 
33materials used by or on behalf of the limited lines travel insurance 
34agent to train the employees of a travel retailer shall be submitted 
35to the department at the time the travel insurance agent applies for 
36a license under this article, and whenever modified thereafter. The 
37training materials, at a minimum, should contain instruction on 
38the types of insurance offered, ethical sales practices, and 
39disclosures to prospective insurance customers. Any changes to 
40previously submitted training materials shall be submitted to the 
P256  1department with the changes highlighted 30 days
				  prior to their use 
2by the limited lines travel insurance agent. Training materials and 
3changes to those materials submitted to the department pursuant 
4to this subdivision shall be deemed approved for use by the limited 
5lines travel insurance agent unless it is notified by the department 
6to the contrary. Failure by a limited lines travel insurance agent to 
7submit training materials or changes for departmental review or 
8use of unapproved or disapproved training materials shall constitute 
9grounds for denial of an application for a license, nonrenewal of 
10a license, or suspension of a license, or other action as deemed 
11appropriate by the commissioner.
12(7) The limited lines travel insurance agent or the travel retailer 
13provides disclosure to the consumer, in either the marketing 
14materials or fulfillment packages, that is substantively similar to 
15the following:
16This plan provides insurance coverage that only
				  applies during 
17the covered trip. You may have coverage from other sources that 
18provides you with similar benefits but may be subject to different 
19restrictions depending upon your other coverages. You may wish 
20to compare the terms of this policy with your existing life, health, 
21home, and automobile insurance policies. If you have any questions 
22about your current coverage, call your insurer or insurance agent 
23or broker.
24(8) The limited lines travel insurance agent or the travel retailer 
25makes all of the following disclosures to the prospective insured, 
26which shall be acknowledged in writing by the purchaser or 
27displayed by clear and conspicuous signs that are posted at every 
28location where contracts are executed, including, but not limited 
29to, the counter where the purchaser signs the service agreement, 
30or provided in writing to the purchaser:
31(A) That purchasing travel insurance is
				  not required in order to 
32purchase any other product or service offered by the travel retailer.
33(B) If not individually licensed, that the travel retailer’s 
34employee is not qualified or authorized to:
35(i) Answer technical questions about the benefits, exclusions, 
36and conditions of any of the insurance offered by the travel retailer.
37(ii) Evaluate the adequacy of the prospective insured’s existing 
38insurance coverage.
39(b) A travel retailer that meets the requirements set forth in this 
40section and whose activities are limited to offering and selling 
P257  1travel insurance on behalf of a licensed limited lines travel 
2insurance agent is authorized to receive compensation.
3(c) (1) If the commissioner determines that a travel retailer, or 
4a travel retailer’s employee, has violated any provision of this 
5article or any other provision of this code, the commissioner may:
6(A) Direct the limited lines travel insurance agent to implement 
7a corrective action plan with the travel retailer.
8(B) Direct the limited lines travel insurance agent to revoke the 
9authorization of the travel retailer to transact travel insurance on 
10its behalf and under its license and to remove the travel retailer’s 
11name from its register.
12(2) If the commissioner determines that a travel retailer, or a 
13travel retailer’s employee, has violated any provision in this article 
14or any other provision of this code, the commissioner, after notice 
15and hearing, may:
16(A) Suspend or revoke the license of the limited lines travel 
17insurance agent as authorized under this code.
18(B) Impose a monetary fine on the limited lines travel insurance 
19agent.
20(3) A limited lines travel insurance agent who aids and abets a 
21travel retailer in the transaction of travel insurance, as defined in 
22this code, or aids and abets a travel retailer in any activity 
23concerning travel insurance after being directed to revoke the travel 
24retailer’s authorization, in addition to any other action authorized 
25under this code, shall be subject to a monetary penalty pursuant 
26to paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 12921.8.
27(d) The conduct of employees of the travel retailer who have 
28been designated to transact travel insurance on behalf of the 
29licensed limited lines travel insurance agent shall be
				  deemed the 
30conduct of the licensed limited lines travel insurance agent for 
31purposes of this article.
Section 10113.71 of the Insurance Code is amended 
33to read:
(a) Each life insurance policy issued or delivered 
35in this state shall contain a provision for a grace period of not less 
36than 60 days from the premium due date. The 60-day grace period 
37shall not run concurrently with the period of paid coverage. The 
38provision shall provide that the policy shall remain in force during 
39the grace period.
P258  1(b) (1) A notice of pending lapse and termination of a life 
2insurance policy shall not be effective unless mailed by the insurer 
3to the named policy owner, a designee named pursuant to Section 
410113.72 for an individual life insurance policy, and a known 
5assignee or other person having an interest in the individual life 
6insurance policy, at least 30 days prior to the effective date of 
7termination if
				  termination is for nonpayment of premium.
8(2) This subdivision shall not apply to nonrenewal.
9(3) Notice shall be given to the policy owner and to the designee 
10by first-class United States mail within 30 days after a premium 
11is due and unpaid. However, notices made to assignees pursuant 
12to this section may be done electronically with the consent of the 
13assignee.
14(c) For purposes of this section, a life insurance policy includes, 
15but is not limited to, an individual life insurance policy and a group 
16life insurance policy, except where otherwise provided.
Section 10124 of the Insurance Code is amended 
18to read:
(a) A self-insured employee welfare benefit plan 
20delivered or issued for delivery in this state more than 120 days 
21after the effective date of this section, which provides that coverage 
22of a dependent child of an employee shall terminate upon 
23attainment of the limiting age for dependent children specified in 
24the policy or contract, shall also provide in substance that 
25attainment of the limiting age shall not operate to terminate the 
26coverage of the child while the child is and continues to be both 
27(1) incapable of self-sustaining employment by reason of an 
28intellectual disability or physical handicap and (2) chiefly 
29dependent upon the employee for support and maintenance, 
30provided proof of the incapacity and dependency is furnished to 
31the employer or employee organization providing the plan or 
32program of benefits by the employee
				  within 31 days of the child’s 
33attainment of the limiting age and subsequently as may be required 
34by the employer or employee organization, but not more frequently 
35than annually after the two-year period following the child’s 
36attainment of the limiting age.
37(b) As used in this section, “self-insured employee welfare 
38benefit plan” means a plan or program of benefits provided by an 
39employer or an employee organization, or both, for the purpose 
40of providing hospital, medical, surgical, nursing, or dental services, 
P259  1or indemnification for the costs incurred for these services, to the 
2employer’s employees or their dependents.
Section 10271 of the Insurance Code is amended 
4to read:
(a) Except as set forth in this section, this chapter shall 
6not apply to, or in any way affect, provisions in life insurance, 
7endowment, or annuity contracts, or contracts supplemental thereto, 
8that provide additional benefits in case of death or dismemberment 
9or loss of sight by accident, or that operate to safeguard those 
10contracts against lapse, as described in subdivision (a) of Section 
1110271.1, or give a special surrender benefit, as defined in 
12subdivision (b) of Section 10271.1, or a special benefit, in the 
13event that the owner, insured, or annuitant, as applicable, meets 
14the benefit triggers specified in the life insurance or annuity 
15contract or supplemental contract.
16(b) (1) A provision or supplemental contract described in 
17subdivision
				  (a) shall contain all of the provisions set forth in 
18paragraph (2). However, an insurer, at its option, may substitute 
19for one or more of the provisions a corresponding provision of 
20different wording approved by the commissioner that is not less 
21favorable in any respect to the owner, insured, or annuitant, as 
22applicable. The provisions required by paragraph (2) shall be 
23preceded individually by the appropriate caption, or, at the option 
24of the insurer, by the appropriate individual or group captions or 
25subcaptions as the commissioner may approve.
26(2) With respect to the benefit standards described in 
27subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 10271.1, the following 
28requirements apply to the supplemental contracts with these 
29benefits:
30(A) Either the contract or supplemental contract shall provide 
31that the contract and the supplemental contract constitute the entire 
32insurance or annuity
				  contract consistent with paragraph (7) of 
33subdivision (c) of Section 2534.3 of Title 10 of the California Code 
34of Regulations, and shall also provide that no agent has the 
35authority to change the contract or to waive any of its provisions. 
36This requirement applies without regard to whether the contract 
37is a variable or nonvariable contract, or a group or individual 
38contract. This provision shall be preceded individually by a caption 
39stating “ENTIRE CONTRACT: CHANGES:” or other appropriate 
40caption as the commissioner may approve.
P260  1(B) Either the contract or supplemental contract shall provide 
2for reinstatement consistent with paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) 
3of Section 2534.3 of Title 10 of the California Code of Regulations. 
4This requirement applies without regard to whether the contract 
5is a variable or nonvariable contract, or a group or individual 
6contract. This provision shall be preceded individually by a caption 
7stating “REINSTATEMENT:” or
				  other appropriate caption as the 
8commissioner may approve.
9(C) Supplemental contracts subject to underwriting shall include 
10an incontestability statement that provides that the insurer shall 
11not contest the supplemental contract after it has been in force 
12during the lifetime of the insured for two years from its date of 
13issue, and may only be contested based on a statement made in 
14the application for the supplemental contract, if the statement is 
15attached to the contract. The statement upon which the contest is 
16made shall be material to the risk accepted or the hazard assumed 
17by the insurer. This provision shall be preceded individually by a 
18caption stating “INCONTESTABLE:” or other appropriate caption 
19as the commissioner may approve.
20(D)  A provision or supplemental contract described in 
21subdivision (a) shall also include:
22(i) NOTICE OF CLAIM: The insurer may require written notice 
23of claim no less than 20 days after an occurrence covered by the 
24provision or supplemental contract, or commencement of any loss 
25covered by the provision or supplemental contract. Notice given 
26by or on behalf of the insured or the beneficiary, as applicable to 
27the insurer at the insurer’s address or telephone number, or to any 
28authorized agent of the insurer, with information sufficient to 
29identify the insured, shall be deemed notice to the insurer.
30(ii) CLAIM FORMS: The insurer, upon receipt of a notice of 
31claim, shall furnish to the claimant such forms as are usually 
32furnished by it for filing a proof of occurrence or a proof of loss. 
33If the forms are not furnished within 15 days after giving notice, 
34the claimant shall be deemed to have complied with the 
35requirements of the provision or supplemental contract as to proof 
36of
				  occurrence or proof of loss upon submitting, within the time 
37fixed in the provision or supplemental contract for filing proof of 
38occurrence or proof of loss, written proof covering the character 
39and the extent of the occurrence or loss.
P261  1(iii) PROOF OF LOSS: The insurer may require that the insured 
2provide written proof of occurrence or proof of loss no less than 
390 days after the termination of the period for which the insurer 
4is liable, and, in the case of claim for any other occurrence or loss, 
5within 90 days after the date of the occurrence or loss. Failure to 
6furnish proof within the time required shall not invalidate or reduce 
7the claim if it was not reasonably possible to give proof within the 
8time, provided proof is furnished as soon as reasonably possible 
9and, except in the absence of legal capacity, no later than one year 
10from the time proof is otherwise required.
11(iv) PHYSICAL EXAMINATIONS: The insurer, at its own 
12expense, shall have the right and opportunity to examine the person 
13of the insured when and as often as the insurer may reasonably 
14require during the pendency of a claim.
15(c) The commissioner shall review contracts and supplemental 
16contracts to ensure that the language can be readily understood 
17and interpreted, and shall not approve any contract or supplemental 
18contract for insurance or delivery in this state if the commissioner 
19finds that the contract or supplemental contract does any of the 
20following:
21(1) Contains any provision, label, description of its contents, 
22title, heading, backing, or other indication of its provisions that is 
23unintelligible, uncertain, ambiguous, or abstruse, or likely to 
24mislead a person to whom the contract or supplemental contract 
25is offered, delivered, or issued.
26(2) Constitutes fraud, unfair trade practices, and insurance 
27economically unsound to the owner, insured, or annuitant, as 
28applicable.
29(d) A provision or supplemental contract described in 
30subdivision (a) shall not contain any title, description, or any other 
31indication that would describe or imply that the policy or 
32supplemental contract provides long-term care coverage.
33(e) Commencing two years from the date of the issuance of the 
34provision or supplemental contract, no claim for loss incurred or 
35disability, as defined in the provision or supplemental contract, 
36may be reduced or denied on the grounds that a disease or physical 
37condition not excluded from coverage by name or specific 
38description effective on the date of loss had existed prior to the 
39effective date on the coverage of the provision or supplemental
40
				  contract.
P262  1(f) With regard to benefits set forth in Section 10271.1, the 
2provisions and supplemental contracts shall specify any applicable 
3exclusions, which shall be limited to the following:
4(1) Total disability caused or substantially contributed to by any 
5attempt at suicide or intentionally self-inflicted injury, while sane 
6or insane.
7(2) Total disability caused or substantially contributed to by 
8war or an act of war, as defined in the exclusion provisions of the 
9contract.
10(3) Total disability caused or substantially contributed to by 
11active participation in a riot, insurrection, or terrorist activity.
12(4) Total disability caused or substantially contributed to by 
13committing or
				  attempting to commit a felony.
14(5) Total disability caused or substantially contributed to by 
15voluntary intake of either:
16(A) Any drug, unless prescribed or administered by a physician 
17and taken in accordance with the physician’s instructions.
18(B) Poison, gas, or fumes, unless they are the direct result of an 
19occupational accident.
20(6) Total disability occurring after the policy anniversary or 
21supplemental contract anniversary, as applicable and as defined 
22in the policy or supplemental contract, on which the insured attains 
23a specified age of no less than 65 years.
24(7) Total disability in consequence of the insured being 
25intoxicated, as defined by the jurisdiction where the total
				  disability 
26occurred.
27(8) Total disability caused or materially contributed to by 
28engaging in an illegal occupation.
29(g) If the commissioner notifies the insurer, in writing, that the 
30filed form does not comply with the requirements of law and 
31specifies the reasons for his or her opinion, it is unlawful for an 
32insurer to issue any policy in that form.
Section 11665 of the Insurance Code is amended 
34to read:
(a) An insurer who issues a workers’ compensation 
36insurance policy to a roofing contractor holding a C-39 license 
37from the Contractors’ State License Board shall perform an annual 
38payroll audit for the contractor. This audit shall include an 
39in-person visit to the place of business of the roofing contractor 
40to verify whether the number of employees reported by the 
P263  1contractor is accurate. The insurer may impose a surcharge on each 
2policyholder audited under this subdivision in an amount necessary 
3to recoup the reasonable costs of conducting the annual payroll 
4audits.
5(b) The commissioner shall direct the rating organization 
6designated as his or her statistical agent to compile pertinent 
7statistical data on those holding C-39 licenses, as reported by the 
8appropriate
				  state entity, on an annual basis and provide a report to 
9him or her each year. The data shall track the total annual payroll 
10and loss data reported on those holding C-39 licenses in accordance 
11with the standard workers’ compensation insurance classifications 
12applicable to roofing operations. The data shall include the number 
13of employers, total payroll, total losses, and the losses per one 
14hundred dollars ($100) of payroll by the employers’ annual payroll 
15intervals as follows:
16
17
| 
 1 to  | 
 4,999  | 
| 
 5,000 to  | 
 9,999  | 
| 
 10,000 to  | 
 14,999  | 
| 
 15,000 to  | 
 19,999  | 
| 
 20,000 to  | 
 24,999  | 
| 
 25,000 to  | 
 29,999  | 
| 
 30,000 to  | 
 39,999  | 
| 
 40,000 to  | 
 49,999  | 
| 
 50,000 to  | 
 74,999  | 
| 
 75,000 to  | 
 99,999  | 
| 
 100,000 to  | 
 199,999  | 
| 
 200,000 to  | 
 299,999  | 
| 
 300,000 to  | 
 399,999  | 
| 
 400,000 to  | 
 499,999  | 
| 
 500,000 to  | 
 599,999  | 
| 
 600,000 to  | 
 699,999  | 
| 
 700,000 to  | 
 799,999  | 
| 
 800,000 to  | 
 899,999  | 
| 
 900,000 to  | 
 999,999  | 
| 
 1,000,000 to  | 
 1,099,999  | 
| 
 1,100,000 to  | 
 1,199,999  | 
| 
 1,200,000 to  | 
 1,299,999  | 
| 
 1,300,000 to  | 
 1,399,999  | 
| 
 1,400,000 to  | 
 1,499,999  | 
| 
 1,500,000 or more  | |
5The report shall also be provided to the Legislature by the 
6commissioner, in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government 
7Code.
Section 12694.1 of the Insurance Code is amended 
9to read:
(a) Pursuant to Sections 14005.26 and 14005.27 of 
11the Welfare and Institutions Code, subscribers enrolled in the 
12Healthy Families Program pursuant to this part shall, no sooner 
13than January 1, 2013, transition to the Medi-Cal program pursuant 
14to Sections 14005.26 and 14005.27 of the Welfare and Institutions 
15Code to the extent they are otherwise eligible. AIM-linked infants, 
16as defined in Section 12695.03, with incomes above 250 percent 
17of the federal poverty level are exempt from this transition.
18(b) The board shall coordinate with the State Department of 
19Health Care Services to implement Sections 14005.26 and 
2014005.27 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
21(c) The board’s actions to coordinate with
				  the State Department 
22of Health Care Services to implement Sections 14005.26 and 
2314005.27 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, as specified in 
24subdivision (b), shall include, but not be limited to, all of the 
25following:
26(1) Notwithstanding Section 12693.74, disenrollment of 
27subscribers in the manner, and at the times, specified in Section 
2814005.27 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The board may 
29retain a subscriber in the program for longer than 12 months if 
30needed to ensure a smooth transition to the Medi-Cal program.
31(2) In coordination with the State Department of Health Care 
32Services, provision of reasonable notice to applicants concerning 
33disenrollment of subscribers consistent with Section 14005.27 of 
34the Welfare and Institutions Code.
35(3) Notwithstanding Section 12693.51, transfers of subscribers 
36from one
				  participating plan to another at the times and under the 
37conditions prescribed by the board, without the obligation that the 
38board provide an annual opportunity for subscribers to transfer 
39from one participating plan to another.
P265  1(d) Nothing in subdivision (e) of Section 12693.43 shall be 
2construed to require any refund or adjustment of family 
3contributions if an applicant has paid for three months of required 
4family contributions in advance and the subscriber for whom the 
5applicant has paid these family contributions is disenrolled pursuant 
6to this section, or for any other reason, without receiving a fourth 
7consecutive month of coverage.
8(e) (1) Notwithstanding Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 
911340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, 
10the board shall, without taking any further regulatory action, 
11implement, interpret, or make
				  specific this section by means of 
12business rules, program bulletins, program correspondence to 
13subscribers and contractors, letters, or similar instructions.
14(2) The board may adopt and readopt emergency regulations 
15implementing this section. The adoption and readoption, by the 
16board, of regulations implementing this section shall be deemed 
17an emergency and necessary to avoid serious harm to the public 
18peace, health, safety, or general welfare for purposes of Sections 
1911346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the board is 
20hereby exempted from the requirement that it describe facts 
21showing the need for immediate action and from review by the 
22Office of Administrative Law.
23(f) The Healthy Families Program, pursuant to this part, shall 
24cease to enroll new subscribers no sooner than the date transition 
25begins pursuant to subdivision (a), and any transition of children 
26shall be in
				  compliance with the implementation plan or plans as 
27contained in Section 14005.27 of the Welfare and Institutions 
28Code.
Section 980 of the Labor Code is amended to read:
(a) As used in this chapter, “social media” means an 
31electronic service or account, or electronic content, including, but 
32not limited to, videos, still photographs, blogs, video blogs, 
33podcasts, instant and text messages, email, online services or 
34accounts, or Internet Web site profiles or locations.
35(b) An employer shall not require or request an employee or 
36applicant for employment to do any of the following:
37(1) Disclose a username or password for the purpose of 
38accessing personal social media.
39(2) Access personal social media in the presence of the 
40employer.
P266  1(3) Divulge
				  any personal social media, except as provided in 
2subdivision (c).
3(c) Nothing in this section shall affect an employer’s existing 
4rights and obligations to request an employee to divulge personal 
5social media reasonably believed to be relevant to an investigation 
6of allegations of employee misconduct or employee violation of 
7applicable laws and regulations, provided that the social media is 
8used solely for purposes of that investigation or a related 
9proceeding.
10(d) Nothing in this section precludes an employer from requiring 
11or requesting an employee to disclose a username, password, or 
12other method for the purpose of accessing an employer-issued 
13electronic device.
14(e) An employer shall not discharge, discipline, threaten to 
15discharge or discipline, or otherwise retaliate against an employee 
16or applicant for not
				  complying with a request or demand by the 
17employer that violates this section. However, this section does not 
18prohibit an employer from terminating or otherwise taking an 
19adverse action against an employee or applicant if otherwise 
20permitted by law.
Section 4709 of the Labor Code is amended to read:
(a) Notwithstanding any other law, a dependent of a 
23peace officer, as defined in Section 830.1, 830.2, 830.3, 830.31, 
24830.32, 830.33, 830.34, 830.35, 830.36, 830.37, 830.38, 830.39, 
25830.4, 830.5, or 830.6 of the Penal Code, or a Sheriff’s Special 
26Officer of the County of Orange, who is killed in the performance 
27of duty or who dies or is totally disabled as a result of an accident 
28or an injury caused by external violence or physical force, incurred 
29in the performance of duty, when the death, accident, or injury is 
30compensable under this division or Division 4.5 (commencing 
31with Section 6100) shall be entitled to a scholarship at any 
32qualifying institution described in subdivision (l) of Section 
3369432.7 of the Education Code. The scholarship shall be in an 
34amount equal to the amount provided a student who has been 
35awarded a Cal
				  Grant scholarship as specified in Chapter 1.7 
36(commencing with Section 69430) of Part 42 of Division 5 of Title 
373 of the Education Code.
38(b) A dependent of an officer or employee of the Department 
39of Corrections and Rehabilitation or the Department of Corrections 
40and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, described in 
P267  1Section 20403 of the Government Code, who is killed in the 
2performance of duty, or who dies or is totally disabled as a result 
3of an accident or an injury incurred in the performance of duty, 
4when the death, accident, or injury is caused by the direct action 
5of an inmate, and is compensable under this division or Division 
64.5 (commencing with Section 6100), shall also be entitled to a 
7scholarship specified in this section.
8(c) Notwithstanding any other law, a dependent of a firefighter 
9employed by a county, city, city and county, district, or other 
10political
				  subdivision of the state, who is killed in the performance 
11of duty or who dies or is totally disabled as a result of an accident 
12or injury incurred in the performance of duty, when the death, 
13accident, or injury is compensable under this division or Division 
144.5 (commencing with Section 6100), shall also be entitled to a 
15scholarship specified in this section.
16(d) Nothing in this section shall be interpreted to allow the 
17admittance of the dependent into a college or university unless the 
18dependent is otherwise qualified to gain admittance to the college 
19or university.
20(e) The scholarship provided for by this section shall be paid 
21out of funds annually appropriated in the Budget Act to the Student 
22Aid Commission established by Article 2 (commencing with 
23Section 69510) of Chapter 2 of Part 42 of Division 5 of Title 3 of 
24the Education Code.
25(f) The receipt of a scholarship provided for by this section shall 
26not preclude a dependent from receiving a Cal Grant award 
27pursuant to Chapter 1.7 (commencing with Section 69430) of Part 
2842 of Division 5 of Title 3 of the Education Code, any other grant, 
29or any fee waivers that may be provided by an institution of higher 
30education. The receipt of a Cal Grant award pursuant to Chapter 
311.7 (commencing with Section 69430) of Part 42 of Division 5 of 
32Title 3 of the Education Code, any other grant, or any fee waivers 
33that may be provided by an institution of higher education shall 
34not preclude a dependent from receiving a scholarship provided 
35for by this section.
36(g) As used in this section, “dependent” means the children 
37(natural or adopted) or spouse, at the time of the death or injury, 
38of the peace officer, law enforcement officer, or firefighter.
39(h) Eligibility for a scholarship under this section shall be limited 
40to a person who demonstrates financial need as determined by the 
P268  1Student Aid Commission pursuant to Article 1.5 (commencing 
2with Section 69503) of Chapter 2 of Part 42 of Division 5 of Title 
33 of the Education Code. For purposes of determining financial 
4need, the proceeds of death benefits received by the dependent, 
5including, but not limited to, a continuation of income received 
6from the Public Employees’ Retirement System, the proceeds from 
7the federal Public Safety Officers’ Benefits Act, life insurance 
8policies, proceeds from Sections 4702 and 4703.5, any private 
9scholarship where receipt is predicated upon the recipient being 
10the survivor of a deceased public safety officer, the scholarship 
11awarded pursuant to Section 68120 of the Education Code, and 
12any interest received from these benefits, shall not be considered.
Section 5502 of the Labor Code is amended to read:
(a) Except as provided in subdivisions (b) and (d), the 
15hearing shall be held not less than 10 days, and not more than 60 
16days, after the date a declaration of readiness to proceed, on a form 
17prescribed by the appeals board, is filed. If a claim form has been 
18filed for an injury occurring on or after January 1, 1990, and before 
19January 1, 1994, an application for adjudication shall accompany 
20the declaration of readiness to proceed.
21(b) The administrative director shall establish a priority calendar 
22for issues requiring an expedited hearing and decision. A hearing 
23shall be held and a determination as to the rights of the parties 
24shall be made and filed within 30 days after the declaration of 
25readiness to proceed is filed if the issues in dispute are any of the
26
				  following, provided that if an expedited hearing is requested, no 
27other issue may be heard until the medical provider network dispute 
28is resolved:
29(1) The employee’s entitlement to medical treatment pursuant 
30to Section 4600, except for treatment issues determined pursuant 
31to Sections 4610 and 4610.5.
32(2) Whether the injured employee is required to obtain treatment 
33within a medical provider network.
34(3) A medical treatment appointment or medical-legal 
35examination.
36(4) The employee’s entitlement to, or the amount of, temporary 
37disability indemnity payments.
38(5) The employee’s entitlement to compensation from one or 
39more responsible employers when two or more employers dispute 
40liability as
				  among themselves.
P269  1(6) Any other issues requiring an expedited hearing and 
2determination as prescribed in rules and regulations of the 
3administrative director.
4(c) The administrative director shall establish a priority 
5conference calendar for cases in which the employee is represented 
6by an attorney and the issues in dispute are employment or injury 
7arising out of employment or in the course of employment. The 
8conference shall be conducted by a workers’ compensation 
9administrative law judge within 30 days after the declaration of 
10readiness to proceed. If the dispute cannot be resolved at the 
11conference, a trial shall be set as expeditiously as possible, unless 
12good cause is shown why discovery is not complete, in which case 
13status conferences shall be held at regular intervals. The case shall 
14be set for trial when discovery is complete, or when the workers’ 
15compensation
				  administrative law judge determines that the parties 
16have had sufficient time in which to complete reasonable discovery. 
17A determination as to the rights of the parties shall be made and 
18filed within 30 days after the trial.
19(d) (1) In all cases, a mandatory settlement conference, except 
20a lien conference or a mandatory settlement lien conference, shall 
21be conducted not less than 10 days, and not more than 30 days, 
22after the filing of a declaration of readiness to proceed. If the 
23dispute is not resolved, the regular hearing, except a lien trial, shall 
24be held within 75 days after the declaration of readiness to proceed 
25is filed.
26(2) The settlement conference shall be conducted by a workers’ 
27compensation administrative law judge or by a referee who is 
28eligible to be a workers’ compensation administrative law judge 
29or eligible to be an arbitrator under Section
				  5270.5. At the 
30mandatory settlement conference, the referee or workers’ 
31compensation administrative law judge shall have the authority to 
32resolve the dispute, including the authority to approve a 
33compromise and release or issue a stipulated finding and award, 
34and if the dispute cannot be resolved, to frame the issues and 
35stipulations for trial. The appeals board shall adopt any regulations 
36needed to implement this subdivision. The presiding workers’ 
37compensation administrative law judge shall supervise settlement 
38conference referees in the performance of their judicial functions 
39under this subdivision.
P270  1(3) If the claim is not resolved at the mandatory settlement 
2conference, the parties shall file a pretrial conference statement 
3noting the specific issues in dispute, each party’s proposed 
4permanent disability rating, and listing the exhibits, and disclosing 
5witnesses. Discovery shall close on the date of the mandatory 
6settlement conference.
				  Evidence not disclosed or obtained 
7thereafter shall not be admissible unless the proponent of the 
8evidence can demonstrate that it was not available or could not 
9have been discovered by the exercise of due diligence prior to the 
10settlement conference.
11(e) In cases involving the Director of Industrial Relations in his 
12or her capacity as administrator of the Uninsured Employers Fund, 
13this section shall not apply unless proof of service, as specified in 
14paragraph (1) of subdivision (d) of Section 3716, has been filed 
15with the appeals board and provided to the Director of Industrial 
16Relations, valid jurisdiction has been established over the employer, 
17and the fund has been joined.
18(f) Except as provided in subdivision (a) and in Section 4065, 
19the provisions of this section shall apply irrespective of the date 
20of injury.
Section 136.2 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
(a) Except as provided in subdivision (c), upon a good 
23cause belief that harm to, or intimidation or dissuasion of, a victim 
24or witness has occurred or is reasonably likely to occur, a court 
25with jurisdiction over a criminal matter may issue orders, including, 
26but not limited to, the following:
27(1) An order issued pursuant to Section 6320 of the Family 
28Code.
29(2) An order that a defendant shall not violate any provision of 
30Section 136.1.
31(3) An order that a person before the court other than a 
32defendant, including, but not limited to, a subpoenaed witness or 
33other person entering the courtroom of the court, shall not violate 
34any provisions
				  of Section 136.1.
35(4) An order that a person described in this section shall have 
36no communication whatsoever with a specified witness or a victim, 
37except through an attorney under reasonable restrictions that the 
38court may impose.
39(5) An order calling for a hearing to determine if an order as 
40described in paragraphs (1) to (4), inclusive, should be issued.
P271  1(6) (A) An order that a particular law enforcement agency 
2within the jurisdiction of the court provide protection for a victim 
3or a witness, or both, or for immediate family members of a victim 
4or a witness who reside in the same household as the victim or 
5witness or within reasonable proximity of the victim’s or witness’ 
6household, as determined by the court. The order shall not be made 
7without the consent of the law enforcement agency
				  except for 
8limited and specified periods of time and upon an express finding 
9by the court of a clear and present danger of harm to the victim or 
10witness or immediate family members of the victim or witness.
11(B) For purposes of this paragraph, “immediate family 
12members” include the spouse, children, or parents of the victim 
13or witness.
14(7) (A) An order protecting victims of violent crime from all 
15contact by the defendant, or contact, with the intent to annoy, 
16harass, threaten, or commit acts of violence, by the defendant. The 
17court or its designee shall transmit orders made under this 
18paragraph to law enforcement personnel within one business day 
19of the issuance, modification, extension, or termination of the 
20order, pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 6380 of the Family 
21Code. It is the responsibility of the court to transmit the 
22modification, extension, or
				  termination orders made under this 
23paragraph to the same agency that entered the original protective 
24order into the Domestic Violence Restraining Order System.
25(B) (i) If a court does not issue an order pursuant to 
26subparagraph (A) in a case in which the defendant is charged with 
27a crime of domestic violence as defined in Section 13700, the court 
28on its own motion shall consider issuing a protective order upon 
29a good cause belief that harm to, or intimidation or dissuasion of, 
30a victim or witness has occurred or is reasonably likely to occur, 
31that provides as follows:
32(I) The defendant shall not own, possess, purchase, receive, or 
33attempt to purchase or receive, a firearm while the protective order 
34is in effect.
35(II) The defendant shall relinquish any firearms that he or she 
36owns or possesses
				  pursuant to Section 527.9 of the Code of Civil 
37Procedure.
38(ii) Every person who owns, possesses, purchases, or receives, 
39or attempts to purchase or receive, a firearm while this protective 
40order is in effect is punishable pursuant to Section 29825.
P272  1(C) An order issued, modified, extended, or terminated by a 
2court pursuant to this paragraph shall be issued on forms adopted 
3by the Judicial Council and that have been approved by the 
4Department of Justice pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 6380 
5of the Family Code. However, the fact that an order issued by a 
6court pursuant to this section was not issued on forms adopted by 
7the Judicial Council and approved by the Department of Justice 
8shall not, in and of itself, make the order unenforceable.
9(D) A protective order under this paragraph may require the 
10defendant to be
				  placed on electronic monitoring if the local 
11government, with the concurrence of the county sheriff or the chief 
12probation officer with jurisdiction, adopts a policy to authorize 
13electronic monitoring of defendants and specifies the agency with 
14jurisdiction for this purpose. If the court determines that the 
15defendant has the ability to pay for the monitoring program, the 
16court shall order the defendant to pay for the monitoring. If the 
17court determines that the defendant does not have the ability to 
18pay for the electronic monitoring, the court may order electronic 
19monitoring to be paid for by the local government that adopted 
20the policy to authorize electronic monitoring. The duration of 
21electronic monitoring shall not exceed one year from the date the 
22order is issued. At no time shall the electronic monitoring be in 
23place if the protective order is not in place.
24(b) A person violating an order made pursuant to paragraphs 
25(1) to (7), inclusive,
				  of subdivision (a) may be punished for any 
26substantive offense described in Section 136.1, or for a contempt 
27of the court making the order. A finding of contempt shall not be 
28a bar to prosecution for a violation of Section 136.1. However, a 
29person so held in contempt shall be entitled to credit for punishment 
30imposed therein against a sentence imposed upon conviction of 
31an offense described in Section 136.1. A conviction or acquittal 
32for a substantive offense under Section 136.1 shall be a bar to a 
33subsequent punishment for contempt arising out of the same act.
34(c) (1) Notwithstanding subdivisions (a) and (e), an emergency 
35protective order issued pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with 
36Section 6250) of Part 3 of Division 10 of the Family Code or 
37Section 646.91 of this code shall have precedence in enforcement 
38over any other restraining or protective order, provided that the 
39emergency protective order meets all of the
				  following requirements:
P273  1(A) The emergency protective order is issued to protect one or 
2more individuals who are already protected persons under another 
3restraining or protective order.
4(B) The emergency protective order restrains the individual who 
5is the restrained person in the other restraining or protective order 
6specified in subparagraph (A).
7(C) The provisions of the emergency protective order are more 
8restrictive in relation to the restrained person than are the provisions 
9of the other restraining or protective order specified in 
10subparagraph (A).
11(2) An emergency protective order that meets the requirements 
12of paragraph (1) shall have precedence in enforcement over the 
13provisions of any other restraining or protective order only with 
14respect to
				  those provisions of the emergency protective order that 
15are more restrictive in relation to the restrained person.
16(d) (1) A person subject to a protective order issued under this 
17section shall not own, possess, purchase, receive, or attempt to 
18purchase or receive a firearm while the protective order is in effect.
19(2) The court shall order a person subject to a protective order 
20issued under this section to relinquish any firearms he or she owns 
21or possesses pursuant to Section 527.9 of the Code of Civil 
22Procedure.
23(3) A person who owns, possesses, purchases, or receives, or 
24attempts to purchase or receive, a firearm while the protective 
25order is in effect is punishable pursuant to Section 29825.
26(e) (1) In all
				  cases where the defendant is charged with a crime 
27of domestic violence, as defined in Section 13700, the court shall 
28consider issuing the above-described orders on its own motion. 
29All interested parties shall receive a copy of those orders. In order 
30to facilitate this, the court’s records of all criminal cases involving 
31domestic violence shall be marked to clearly alert the court to this 
32issue.
33(2) In those cases in which a complaint, information, or 
34indictment charging a crime of domestic violence, as defined in 
35Section 13700, has been issued, a restraining order or protective 
36order against the defendant issued by the criminal court in that 
37case has precedence in enforcement over a civil court order against 
38the defendant, unless a court issues an emergency protective order 
39pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 6250) of Part 3 
40of Division 10 of the Family Code or Section 646.91 of this code, 
P274  1in which case the emergency protective order
				  shall have precedence 
2in enforcement over any other restraining or protective order, 
3provided that the emergency protective order meets the following 
4requirements:
5(A) The emergency protective order is issued to protect one or 
6more individuals who are already protected persons under another 
7restraining or protective order.
8(B) The emergency protective order restrains the individual who 
9is the restrained person in the other restraining or protective order 
10specified in subparagraph (A).
11(C) The provisions of the emergency protective order are more 
12restrictive in relation to the restrained person than are the provisions 
13of the other restraining or protective order specified in 
14subparagraph (A).
15(3) Custody and visitation with respect to the defendant and
				  his 
16or her minor children may be ordered by a family or juvenile court 
17consistent with the protocol established pursuant to subdivision 
18(f), but if ordered after a criminal protective order has been issued 
19pursuant to this section, the custody and visitation order shall make 
20reference to, and acknowledge the precedence of enforcement of, 
21an appropriate criminal protective order. On or before July 1, 2006, 
22the Judicial Council shall modify the criminal and civil court forms 
23consistent with this subdivision.
24(f) On or before January 1, 2003, the Judicial Council shall 
25promulgate a protocol, for adoption by each local court in 
26substantially similar terms, to provide for the timely coordination 
27of all orders against the same defendant and in favor of the same 
28named victim or victims. The protocol shall include, but shall not 
29be limited to, mechanisms for assuring appropriate communication 
30and information sharing between criminal, family, and
				  juvenile 
31courts concerning orders and cases that involve the same parties, 
32and shall permit a family or juvenile court order to coexist with a 
33criminal court protective order subject to the following conditions:
34(1) An order that permits contact between the restrained person 
35and his or her children shall provide for the safe exchange of the 
36children and shall not contain language either printed or 
37handwritten that violates a “no contact order” issued by a criminal 
38court.
39(2) Safety of all parties shall be the courts’ paramount concern. 
40The family or juvenile court shall specify the time, day, place, and 
P275  1manner of transfer of the child, as provided in Section 3100 of the 
2Family Code.
3(g) On or before January 1, 2003, the Judicial Council shall 
4modify the criminal and civil court protective order forms 
5consistent with
				  this section.
6(h) In any case in which a complaint, information, or indictment 
7charging a crime of domestic violence, as defined in Section 13700, 
8has been filed, the court may consider, in determining whether 
9good cause exists to issue an order under paragraph (1) of 
10subdivision (a), the underlying nature of the offense charged, and 
11the information provided to the court pursuant to Section 273.75.
12(i) (1) In all cases in which a criminal defendant has been 
13convicted of a crime of domestic violence as defined in Section 
1413700, the court, at the time of sentencing, shall consider issuing 
15an order restraining the defendant from any contact with the victim. 
16The order may be valid for up to 10 years, as determined by the 
17court. This protective order may be issued by the court regardless 
18of whether the defendant is sentenced to the state prison or a county 
19jail,
				  or whether imposition of sentence is suspended and the 
20defendant is placed on probation. It is the intent of the Legislature 
21in enacting this subdivision that the duration of any restraining 
22order issued by the court be based upon the seriousness of the facts 
23before the court, the probability of future violations, and the safety 
24of the victim and his or her immediate family.
25(2) An order under this subdivision may include provisions for 
26electronic monitoring if the local government, upon receiving the 
27concurrence of the county sheriff or the chief probation officer 
28with jurisdiction, adopts a policy authorizing electronic monitoring 
29of defendants and specifies the agency with jurisdiction for this 
30purpose. If the court determines that the defendant has the ability 
31to pay for the monitoring program, the court shall order the 
32defendant to pay for the monitoring. If the court determines that 
33the defendant does not have the ability to pay for the
				  electronic 
34monitoring, the court may order the electronic monitoring to be 
35paid for by the local government that adopted the policy authorizing 
36electronic monitoring. The duration of the electronic monitoring 
37shall not exceed one year from the date the order is issued.
38(j) For purposes of this section, “local government” means the 
39county that has jurisdiction over the protective order.
Section 166 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
(a) Except as provided in subdivisions (b), (c), and (d), 
2a person guilty of any of the following contempts of court is guilty 
3of a misdemeanor:
4(1) Disorderly, contemptuous, or insolent behavior committed 
5during the sitting of a court of justice, in the immediate view and 
6presence of the court, and directly tending to interrupt its 
7proceedings or to impair the respect due to its authority.
8(2) Behavior specified in paragraph (1) that is committed in the 
9presence of a referee, while actually engaged in a trial or hearing, 
10pursuant to the order of a court, or in the presence of any jury while 
11actually sitting for the trial of a cause, or upon an inquest or other 
12proceeding authorized by law.
13(3) A breach of the peace, noise, or other disturbance directly 
14tending to interrupt the proceedings of the court.
15(4) Willful disobedience of the terms as written of any process 
16or court order or out-of-state court order, lawfully issued by a 
17court, including orders pending trial.
18(5) Resistance willfully offered by any person to the lawful 
19order or process of a court.
20(6) Willful disobedience by a juror of a court admonishment 
21related to the prohibition on any form of communication or research 
22about the case, including all forms of electronic or wireless 
23communication or research.
24(7) The contumacious and unlawful refusal of a person to be 
25sworn as a witness or, when so sworn, the like
				  refusal to answer 
26a material question.
27(8) The publication of a false or grossly inaccurate report of the 
28proceedings of a court.
29(9) Presenting to a court having power to pass sentence upon a 
30prisoner under conviction, or to a member of the court, an affidavit, 
31testimony, or representation of any kind, verbal or written, in 
32aggravation or mitigation of the punishment to be imposed upon 
33the prisoner, except as provided in this code.
34(10) Willful disobedience of the terms of an injunction that 
35restrains the activities of a criminal street gang or any of its 
36members, lawfully issued by a court, including an order pending 
37trial.
38(b) (1) A person who is guilty of contempt of court under 
39paragraph (4) of subdivision (a) by willfully
				  contacting a victim 
40by telephone or mail, or directly, and who has been previously 
P277  1convicted of a violation of Section 646.9 shall be punished by 
2imprisonment in a county jail for not more than one year, by a fine 
3of five thousand dollars ($5,000), or by both that fine and 
4imprisonment.
5(2) For the purposes of sentencing under this subdivision, each 
6contact shall constitute a separate violation of this subdivision.
7(3) The present incarceration of a person who makes contact 
8with a victim in violation of paragraph (1) is not a defense to a 
9violation of this subdivision.
10(c) (1) Notwithstanding paragraph (4) of subdivision (a), a 
11willful and knowing violation of a protective order or stay-away 
12court order issued pursuant to Section 136.2, in a pending criminal 
13proceeding involving domestic
				  violence, as defined in Section 
1413700, or issued as a condition of probation after a conviction in 
15a criminal proceeding involving domestic violence, as defined in 
16Section 13700, or elder or dependent adult abuse, as defined in 
17Section 368, or that is an order described in paragraph (3), shall 
18constitute contempt of court, a misdemeanor, punishable by 
19imprisonment in a county jail for not more than one year, by a fine 
20of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that 
21imprisonment and fine.
22(2) If a violation of paragraph (1) results in a physical injury, 
23the person shall be imprisoned in a county jail for at least 48 hours, 
24whether a fine or imprisonment is imposed, or the sentence is 
25suspended.
26(3) Paragraphs (1) and (2) apply to the following court orders:
27(A) An order issued pursuant to Section 6320
				  or 6389 of the 
28Family Code.
29(B) An order excluding one party from the family dwelling or 
30from the dwelling of the other.
31(C) An order enjoining a party from specified behavior that the 
32court determined was necessary to effectuate the orders described 
33in paragraph (1).
34(4) A second or subsequent conviction for a violation of an order 
35described in paragraph (1) occurring within seven years of a prior 
36conviction for a violation of any of those orders and involving an 
37act of violence or “a credible threat” of violence, as provided in 
38subdivisionsbegin delete (b) andend delete (c)begin insert and (d)end insert of Section 139, is punishable by 
39imprisonment in a county jail not
				  to exceed one year, or in the 
40state prison for 16 months or two or three years.
P278  1(5) The prosecuting agency of each county shall have the 
2primary responsibility for the enforcement of the orders described 
3in paragraph (1).
4(d) (1) A person who owns, possesses, purchases, or receives 
5a firearm knowing he or she is prohibited from doing so by the 
6provisions of a protective order, as defined in Section 136.2 of this 
7code, Section 6218 of the Family Code, or Section 527.6 or 527.8 
8of the Code of Civil Procedure, shall be punished under Section 
929825.
10(2) A person subject to a protective order described in paragraph 
11(1) shall not be prosecuted under this section for owning, 
12possessing, purchasing, or receiving a firearm to the extent that 
13firearm is granted an exemption pursuant to subdivision (h) of
14
				  Section 6389 of the Family Code.
15(e) (1) If probation is granted upon conviction of a violation of 
16subdivision (c), the court shall impose probation consistent with 
17Section 1203.097.
18(2) If probation is granted upon conviction of a violation of 
19subdivision (c), the conditions of probation may include, in lieu 
20of a fine, one or both of the following requirements:
21(A) That the defendant make payments to a battered women’s 
22shelter, up to a maximum of one thousand dollars ($1,000).
23(B) That the defendant provide restitution to reimburse the 
24victim for reasonable costs of counseling and other reasonable 
25expenses that the court finds are the direct result of the defendant’s 
26offense.
27(3) For an order to pay a fine, make payments to a battered 
28women’s shelter, or pay restitution as a condition of probation 
29under this subdivision or subdivision (c), the court shall make a 
30determination of the defendant’s ability to pay. In no event shall 
31an order to make payments to a battered women’s shelter be made 
32if it would impair the ability of the defendant to pay direct 
33restitution to the victim or court-ordered child support.
34(4) If the injury to a married person is caused in whole, or in 
35part, by the criminal acts of his or her spouse in violation of 
36subdivision (c), the community property shall not be used to 
37discharge the liability of the offending spouse for restitution to the 
38injured spouse required by Section 1203.04, as operative on or 
39before August 2, 1995, or Section 1202.4, or to a shelter for costs 
40with regard to the injured spouse and dependents required by this 
P279  1subdivision, until all separate property of the
				  offending spouse is 
2exhausted.
3(5) A person violating an order described in subdivision (c) may 
4be punished for any substantive offenses described under Section 
5136.1 or 646.9. A finding of contempt shall not be a bar to 
6prosecution for a violation of Section 136.1 or 646.9. However, a 
7person held in contempt for a violation of subdivision (c) shall be 
8entitled to credit for any punishment imposed as a result of that 
9violation against any sentence imposed upon conviction of an 
10offense described in Section 136.1 or 646.9. A conviction or 
11acquittal for a substantive offense under Section 136.1 or 646.9 
12shall be a bar to a subsequent punishment for contempt arising out 
13of the same act.
Section 171c of the Penal Code is amended to 
15read:
(a) (1) Any person who brings a loaded firearm into, 
17or possesses a loaded firearm within, the State Capitol, any 
18legislative office, any office of the Governor or other constitutional 
19officer, or any hearing room in which any committee of the Senate 
20or Assembly is conducting a hearing, or upon the grounds of the 
21State Capitol, which is bounded by 10th, L, 15th, and N Streets in 
22the City of Sacramento, shall be punished by imprisonment in a 
23county jail for a period of not more than one year, a fine of not 
24more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or both such 
25imprisonment and fine, or by imprisonment pursuant to subdivision 
26(h) of Section 1170.
27(2) Any person who brings or possesses, within the State Capitol, 
28any legislative office, any hearing
				  room in which any committee 
29of the Senate or Assembly is conducting a hearing, the Legislative 
30Office Building at 1020 N Street in the City of Sacramento, or 
31upon the grounds of the State Capitol, which is bounded by 10th, 
32L, 15th, and N Streets in the City of Sacramento, any of the 
33following, is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment 
34in a county jail for a period not to exceed one year, or by a fine 
35not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine 
36and imprisonment, if the area is posted with a statement providing 
37reasonable notice that prosecution may result from possession of 
38any of these items:
39(A) Any firearm.
P280  1(B) Any deadly weapon described in Section 21510 or in any 
2provision listed in Section 16590.
3(C) Any knife with a blade length in excess of four inches, the 
4blade of which is
				  fixed or is capable of being fixed in an unguarded 
5position by the use of one or two hands.
6(D) Any unauthorized tear gas weapon.
7(E) Any stun gun, as defined in Section 244.5.
8(F) Any instrument that expels a metallic projectile, such as a 
9BB or pellet, through the force of air pressure, CO2 pressure, or 
10spring action, or any spot marker gun or paint gun.
11(G) Any ammunition as defined in Sections 16150 and 16650.
12(H) Any explosive as defined in Section 12000 of the Health 
13and Safety Code.
14(b) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to, or affect, any of the 
15following:
16(1) A duly appointed peace officer as defined in Chapter 4.5 
17(commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2, a retired peace 
18officer with authorization to carry concealed weapons as described 
19in Article 2 (commencing with Section 25450) of Chapter 2 of 
20Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6, a full-time paid peace officer of 
21another state or the federal government who is carrying out official 
22duties while in California, or any person summoned by any of 
23these officers to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace 
24while he or she is actually engaged in assisting the officer.
25(2) A person holding a valid license to carry the firearm pursuant 
26to Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 26150) of Division 5 of 
27Title 4 of Part 6, and who has permission granted by the Chief 
28Sergeants at Arms of the State Assembly and the State Senate to 
29possess a concealed weapon upon the premises described in 
30subdivision (a).
31(3) A person who has permission granted by the Chief Sergeants 
32at Arms of the State Assembly and the State Senate to possess a 
33weapon upon the premises described in subdivision (a).
34(c) (1) Nothing in this section shall preclude prosecution under 
35Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) or Chapter 3 
36(commencing with Section 29900) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 
376 of this code, Section 8100 or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions 
38Code, or any other law with a penalty greater than is set forth in 
39this section.
P281  1(2) The provisions of this section are cumulative, and shall not 
2be construed as restricting the application of any other law. 
3However, an act or omission punishable in different ways by 
4different provisions of law shall not be punished under more than 
5one
				  provision.
Section 273.6 of the Penal Code is amended to 
7read:
(a) Any intentional and knowing violation of a 
9protective order, as defined in Section 6218 of the Family Code, 
10or of an order issued pursuant to Section 527.6, 527.8, or 527.85 
11of the Code of Civil Procedure, or Section 15657.03 of the Welfare 
12and Institutions Code, is a misdemeanor punishable by a fine of 
13not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by imprisonment 
14in a county jail for not more than one year, or by both that fine and 
15imprisonment.
16(b) In the event of a violation of subdivision (a) that results in 
17physical injury, the person shall be punished by a fine of not more 
18than two thousand dollars ($2,000), or by imprisonment in a county 
19jail for not less than 30 days nor more than one year, or by both 
20that fine and imprisonment. However, if the person
				  is imprisoned 
21in a county jail for at least 48 hours, the court may, in the interest 
22of justice and for reasons stated on the record, reduce or eliminate 
23the 30-day minimum imprisonment required by this subdivision. 
24In determining whether to reduce or eliminate the minimum 
25imprisonment pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall consider 
26the seriousness of the facts before the court, whether there are 
27additional allegations of a violation of the order during the 
28pendency of the case before the court, the probability of future 
29violations, the safety of the victim, and whether the defendant has 
30successfully completed or is making progress with counseling.
31(c) Subdivisions (a) and (b) shall apply to the following court 
32orders:
33(1) Any order issued pursuant to Section 6320 or 6389 of the 
34Family Code.
35(2) An order
				  excluding one party from the family dwelling or 
36from the dwelling of the other.
37(3) An order enjoining a party from specified behavior that the 
38court determined was necessary to effectuate the order described 
39in subdivision (a).
P282  1(4) Any order issued by another state that is recognized under 
2Part 5 (commencing with Section 6400) of Division 10 of the 
3Family Code.
4(d) A subsequent conviction for a violation of an order described 
5in subdivision (a), occurring within seven years of a prior 
6conviction for a violation of an order described in subdivision (a) 
7and involving an act of violence or “a credible threat” of violence, 
8as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 139, is punishable by 
9imprisonment in a county jail not to exceed one year, or pursuant 
10to subdivision (h) of Section 1170.
11(e) In the event of a subsequent conviction for a violation of an 
12order described in subdivision (a) for an act occurring within one 
13year of a prior conviction for a violation of an order described in 
14subdivision (a) that results in physical injury to a victim, the person 
15shall be punished by a fine of not more than two thousand dollars 
16($2,000), or by imprisonment in a county jail for not less than six 
17months nor more than one year, by both that fine and 
18imprisonment, or by imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of 
19Section 1170. However, if the person is imprisoned in a county 
20jail for at least 30 days, the court may, in the interest of justice and 
21for reasons stated in the record, reduce or eliminate the six-month 
22minimum imprisonment required by this subdivision. In 
23determining whether to reduce or eliminate the minimum 
24imprisonment pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall consider 
25the seriousness of the facts before the court, whether
				  there are 
26additional allegations of a violation of the order during the 
27pendency of the case before the court, the probability of future 
28violations, the safety of the victim, and whether the defendant has 
29successfully completed or is making progress with counseling.
30(f) The prosecuting agency of each county shall have the primary 
31responsibility for the enforcement of orders described in 
32subdivisions (a), (b), (d), and (e).
33(g) (1) Every person who owns, possesses, purchases, or 
34receives a firearm knowing he or she is prohibited from doing so 
35by the provisions of a protective order as defined in Section 136.2 
36of this code, Section 6218 of the Family Code, or Section 527.6, 
37527.8, or 527.85 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or Section 
3815657.03 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, shall be punished 
39under Section 29825.
P283  1(2) Every person subject to a protective order described in 
2paragraph (1) shall not be prosecuted under this section for owning, 
3possessing, purchasing, or receiving a firearm to the extent that 
4firearm is granted an exemption pursuant to subdivision (f) of 
5Section 527.9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or subdivision (h) 
6of Section 6389 of the Family Code.
7(h) If probation is granted upon conviction of a violation of 
8subdivision (a), (b), (c), (d), or (e), the court shall impose probation 
9consistent with Section 1203.097, and the conditions of probation 
10may include, in lieu of a fine, one or both of the following 
11requirements:
12(1) That the defendant make payments to a battered women’s 
13shelter or to a shelter for abused elder persons or dependent adults, 
14up to a maximum of five thousand dollars ($5,000), pursuant to 
15Section
				  1203.097.
16(2) That the defendant reimburse the victim for reasonable costs 
17of counseling and other reasonable expenses that the court finds 
18are the direct result of the defendant’s offense.
19(i) For any order to pay a fine, make payments to a battered 
20women’s shelter, or pay restitution as a condition of probation 
21under subdivision (e), the court shall make a determination of the 
22defendant’s ability to pay. In no event shall any order to make 
23payments to a battered women’s shelter be made if it would impair 
24the ability of the defendant to pay direct restitution to the victim 
25or court-ordered child support. Where the injury to a married person 
26is caused in whole or in part by the criminal acts of his or her 
27spouse in violation of this section, the community property may 
28not be used to discharge the liability of the offending spouse for 
29restitution to the injured spouse, required by
				  Section 1203.04, as 
30operative on or before August 2, 1995, or Section 1202.4, or to a 
31shelter for costs with regard to the injured spouse and dependents, 
32required by this section, until all separate property of the offending 
33spouse is exhausted.
Section 289.6 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
(a) (1) An employee or officer of a public entity health 
36facility, or an employee, officer, or agent of a private person or 
37entity that provides a health facility or staff for a health facility 
38under contract with a public entity, who engages in sexual activity 
39with a consenting adult who is confined in a health facility is guilty 
40of a public offense. As used in this paragraph, “health facility” 
P284  1means a health facility as defined in subdivisions (b), (e), (g), (h), 
2and (j) of, and subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision 
3(i) of, Section 1250 of the Health and Safety Code, in which the 
4victim has been confined involuntarily.
5(2) An employee or officer of a public entity detention facility, 
6or an employee, officer, or agent of a private
				  person or entity that 
7provides a detention facility or staff for a detention facility, a 
8person or agent of a public or private entity under contract with a 
9detention facility, a volunteer of a private or public entity detention 
10facility, or a peace officer who engages in sexual activity with a 
11consenting adult who is confined in a detention facility is guilty 
12of a public offense.
13(3) An employee with a department, board, or authority under 
14the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation or a facility 
15under contract with a department, board, or authority under the 
16Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, who, during the 
17course of his or her employment directly provides treatment, care, 
18control, or supervision of inmates, wards, or parolees, and who 
19engages in sexual activity with a consenting adult who is an inmate, 
20ward, or parolee, is guilty of a public offense.
21(b) As
				  used in this section, the term “public entity” means the 
22state, the federal government, a city, a county, a city and county, 
23a joint county jail district, or any entity created as a result of a joint 
24powers agreement between two or more public entities.
25(c) As used in this section, the term “detention facility” means:
26(1) A prison, jail, camp, or other correctional facility used for 
27the confinement of adults or both adults and minors.
28(2) A building or facility used for the confinement of adults or 
29adults and minors pursuant to a contract with a public entity.
30(3) A room that is used for holding persons for interviews, 
31interrogations, or investigations and that is separate from a jail or 
32located in the administrative area of a law enforcement
				  facility.
33(4) A vehicle used to transport confined persons during their 
34period of confinement, including transporting a person after he or 
35she has been arrested but has not been booked.
36(5) A court holding facility located within or adjacent to a court 
37building that is used for the confinement of persons for the purpose 
38of court appearances.
39(d) As used in this section, “sexual activity” means:
40(1) Sexual intercourse.
P285 1(2) Sodomy, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 286.
2(3) Oral copulation, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 
3288a.
4(4) Sexual
				  penetration, as defined in subdivision (k) of Section 
5289.
6(5) The rubbing or touching of the breasts or sexual organs of 
7another, or of oneself in the presence of and with knowledge of 
8another, with the intent of arousing, appealing to, or gratifying the 
9lust, passions, or sexual desires of oneself or another.
10(e) Consent by a confined person or parolee to sexual activity 
11proscribed by this section is not a defense to a criminal prosecution 
12for violation of this section.
13(f) This section does not apply to sexual activity between 
14consenting adults that occurs during an overnight conjugal visit 
15that takes place pursuant to a court order or with the written 
16approval of an authorized representative of the public entity that 
17operates or contracts for the operation of the detention facility 
18where the conjugal visit takes
				  place, to physical contact or 
19penetration made pursuant to a lawful search, or bona fide medical 
20examinations or treatments, including clinical treatments.
21(g) Any violation of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), or a 
22violation of paragraph (2) or (3) of subdivision (a) as described in 
23paragraph (5) of subdivision (d), is a misdemeanor.
24(h) Any violation of paragraph (2) or (3) of subdivision (a), as 
25described in paragraph (1), (2), (3), or (4) of subdivision (d), shall 
26be punished by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one 
27year, or in the state prison, or by a fine of not more than ten 
28thousand dollars ($10,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment.
29(i) Any person previously convicted of a violation of this section 
30shall, upon a subsequent violation, be guilty of a felony.
31(j) Anyone who is convicted of a felony violation of this section 
32who is employed by a department, board, or authority within the 
33Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall be terminated 
34in accordance with the State Civil Service Act (Part 2 (commencing 
35with Section 18500) of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government 
36Code). Anyone who has been convicted of a felony violation of 
37this section shall not be eligible to be hired or reinstated by a 
38department, board, or authority within the Department of 
39Corrections and Rehabilitation.
Section 496a of the Penal Code is amended to read:
(a) Every person who is a dealer in or collector of junk, 
2metals, or secondhand materials, or the agent, employee, or 
3representative of such dealer or collector, and who buys or receives 
4any wire, cable, copper, lead, solder, mercury, iron, or brass which 
5he or she knows or reasonably should know is ordinarily used by 
6or ordinarily belongs to a railroad or other transportation, 
7telephone, telegraph, gas, water, or electric light company, or a 
8county, city, city and county, or other political subdivision of this 
9state engaged in furnishing public utility service, without using 
10due diligence to ascertain that the person selling or delivering the 
11same has a legal right to do so, is guilty of criminally receiving 
12that property, and shall be punished by imprisonment in a county 
13jail for not more than one year, or by imprisonment
				  pursuant to 
14subdivision (h) of Section 1170, or by a fine of not more than one 
15thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment.
16(b) Any person who buys or receives material pursuant to 
17subdivision (a) shall obtain evidence of his or her identity from 
18the seller, including, but not limited to, that person’s full name, 
19signature, address, driver’s license number, and vehicle license 
20number, and the license number of the vehicle delivering the 
21material.
22(c) The record of the transaction shall include an appropriate 
23description of the material purchased and the record shall be 
24maintained pursuant to Section 21607 of the Business and 
25Professions Code.
Section 626.95 of the Penal Code is amended to 
27read:
(a) Any person who is in violation of paragraph (2) 
29of subdivision (a), or subdivision (b), of Section 417, or Section 
3025400 or 25850, upon the grounds of or within a playground, or 
31a public or private youth center during hours in which the facility 
32is open for business, classes, or school-related programs, or at any 
33time when minors are using the facility, knowing that he or she is 
34on or within those grounds, shall be punished by imprisonment 
35pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170 for one, two, or three 
36years, or in a county jail not exceeding one year.
37(b) State and local authorities are encouraged to cause signs to 
38be posted around playgrounds and youth centers giving warning 
39of prohibition of the possession of firearms upon the grounds of 
40or within
				  playgrounds or youth centers.
P287  1(c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall 
2apply:
3(1) “Playground” means any park or recreational area 
4specifically designed to be used by children that has play equipment 
5installed, including public grounds designed for athletic activities 
6such as baseball, football, soccer, or basketball, or any similar 
7facility located on public or private school grounds, or on city or 
8county parks.
9(2) “Youth center” means any public or private facility that is 
10used to host recreational or social activities for minors while minors 
11are present.
12(d) It is the Legislature’s intent that only an actual conviction 
13of a felony of one of the offenses specified in this section would 
14subject the person to firearms
				  disabilities under the federal Gun 
15Control Act of 1968 (P.L. 90-618; 18 U.S.C. Sec. 921 et seq.).
Section 626.10 of the Penal Code is amended to 
17read:
(a) (1) Any person, except a duly appointed peace 
19officer as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) 
20of Title 3 of Part 2, a full-time paid peace officer of another state 
21or the federal government who is carrying out official duties while 
22in this state, a person summoned by any officer to assist in making 
23arrests or preserving the peace while the person is actually engaged 
24in assisting any officer, or a member of the military forces of this 
25state or the United States who is engaged in the performance of 
26his or her duties, who brings or possesses any dirk, dagger, ice 
27pick, knife having a blade longer than 21⁄2 inches, folding knife 
28with a blade that locks into place, razor with an unguarded
				  blade, 
29taser, or stun gun, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 244.5, 
30any instrument that expels a metallic projectile, such as a BB or a 
31pellet, through the force of air pressure, CO2 pressure, or spring 
32action, or any spot marker gun, upon the grounds of, or within, 
33any public or private school providing instruction in kindergarten 
34or any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive, is guilty of a public offense, 
35punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one 
36year, or by imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 
371170.
38(2) Any person, except a duly appointed peace officer as defined 
39in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 
402, a full-time paid peace officer of another state or the federal 
P288  1government who is carrying out official duties while in this state, 
2a person summoned by any officer to assist in making arrests or 
3preserving the peace while the person is actually engaged in 
4assisting any
				  officer, or a member of the military forces of this 
5state or the United States who is engaged in the performance of 
6his or her duties, who brings or possesses a razor blade or a box 
7cutter upon the grounds of, or within, any public or private school 
8providing instruction in kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 12, 
9inclusive, is guilty of a public offense, punishable by imprisonment 
10in a county jail not exceeding one year.
11(b) Any person, except a duly appointed peace officer as defined 
12in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 
132, a full-time paid peace officer of another state or the federal 
14government who is carrying out official duties while in this state, 
15a person summoned by any officer to assist in making arrests or 
16preserving the peace while the person is actually engaged in 
17assisting any officer, or a member of the military forces of this 
18state or the United States who is engaged in the performance of 
19his or her
				  duties, who brings or possesses any dirk, dagger, ice 
20pick, or knife having a fixed blade longer than 21⁄2 inches upon 
21the grounds of, or within, any private university, the University of 
22California, the California State University, or the California 
23Community Colleges is guilty of a public offense, punishable by 
24imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by 
25imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170.
26(c) Subdivisions (a) and (b) do not apply to any person who 
27brings or possesses a knife having a blade longer than 21⁄2 inches, 
28a razor with an unguarded blade, a razor blade, or a box cutter 
29upon the grounds of, or within, a public or private school providing 
30instruction in kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive,
				  or 
31any private university, state university, or community college at 
32the direction of a faculty member of the private university, state 
33university, or community college, or a certificated or classified 
34employee of the school for use in a private university, state 
35university, community college, or school-sponsored activity or 
36class.
37(d) Subdivisions (a) and (b) do not apply to any person who 
38brings or possesses an ice pick, a knife having a blade longer than 
3921⁄2 inches, a razor with an unguarded blade, a razor blade, or a 
40box cutter upon the grounds of, or within, a public or private school 
P289  1providing instruction in kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 12, 
2inclusive, or any private university, state university, or community 
3college for a lawful purpose within the scope of the person’s 
4employment.
5(e) Subdivision (b) does not apply to any person who brings or 
6possesses an ice pick or a knife having a fixed blade longer than 
721⁄2 inches upon the grounds of, or within, any private university, 
8state university, or community college for lawful use in or around 
9a residence or residential facility located upon those grounds or 
10for lawful use in food preparation or consumption.
11(f) Subdivision (a) does not apply to any person who brings an 
12instrument that expels a metallic projectile, such as a BB or a pellet, 
13through the force of air pressure, CO2 pressure, or spring action, 
14or any spot marker gun, or any razor blade or box cutter upon the 
15grounds of, or within, a public or private school providing 
16instruction in kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive, if 
17the person has the written permission of the school
				  principal or 
18his or her designee.
19(g) Any certificated or classified employee or school peace 
20officer of a public or private school providing instruction in 
21kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive, may seize any of 
22the weapons described in subdivision (a), and any certificated or 
23classified employee or school peace officer of any private 
24university, state university, or community college may seize any 
25of the weapons described in subdivision (b), from the possession 
26of any person upon the grounds of, or within, the school if he or 
27she knows, or has reasonable cause to know, the person is 
28prohibited from bringing or possessing the weapon upon the 
29grounds of, or within, the school.
30(h) As used in this section, “dirk” or “dagger” means a knife or 
31other instrument with or without a handguard that is capable of 
32ready use as a stabbing weapon that may inflict great bodily injury
33
				  or death.
34(i) Any person who, without the written permission of the 
35college or university president or chancellor or his or her designee, 
36brings or possesses a less lethal weapon, as defined in Section 
3716780, or a stun gun, as defined in Section 17230, upon the grounds 
38of, or within, a public or private college or university campus is 
39guilty of a misdemeanor.
Section 781 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
Except as provided in Section 923, when a public offense 
2is committed in part in one jurisdictional territory and in part in 
3another jurisdictional territory, or the acts or effects thereof 
4constituting or requisite to the consummation of the offense occur 
5in two or more jurisdictional territories, the jurisdiction for the 
6offense is in any competent court within either jurisdictional 
7territory.
Section 830.41 of the Penal Code is amended to 
9read:
Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the City 
11of Tulelake, California, is authorized to enter into a mutual aid 
12agreement with the City of Malin, Oregon, for the purpose of 
13permitting their police departments to provide mutual aid to each 
14other when necessary. Before the effective date of the agreement, 
15the agreement shall be reviewed and approved by the 
16Commissioner of the California Highway Patrol.
Section 830.55 of the Penal Code is amended to 
18read:
(a) (1) As used in this section, a correctional officer 
20is a peace officer, employed by a city, county, or city and county 
21that operates a facility described in Section 2910.5 of this code or 
22Section 1753.3 of the Welfare and Institutions Code or facilities 
23operated by counties pursuant to Section 6241 or 6242 of this code 
24under contract with the Department of Corrections and 
25Rehabilitation or the Division of Juvenile Justice within the 
26department, who has the authority and responsibility for 
27maintaining custody of specified state prison inmates or wards, 
28and who performs tasks related to the operation of a detention 
29facility used for the detention of persons who have violated parole 
30or are awaiting parole back into the community or, upon court 
31order, either for their own safekeeping or for the specific
				  purpose 
32of serving a sentence therein.
33(2) As used in this section, a correctional officer is also a peace 
34officer, employed by a city, county, or city and county that operates 
35a facility described in Section 4115.55, who has the authority and 
36responsibility for maintaining custody of inmates sentenced to or 
37housed in that facility, and who performs tasks related to the 
38operation of that facility.
39(b) A correctional officer shall have no right to carry or possess 
40firearms in the performance of his or her prescribed duties, except, 
P291  1under the direction of the superintendent of the facility, while 
2engaged in transporting prisoners, guarding hospitalized prisoners, 
3or suppressing riots, lynchings, escapes, or rescues in or about a 
4detention facility established pursuant to Section 2910.5 or 4115.55 
5of this code or Section 1753.3 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
6(c) Each person described in this section as a correctional officer, 
7within 90 days following the date of the initial assignment to that 
8position, shall satisfactorily complete the training course specified 
9in Section 832. In addition, each person designated as a correctional 
10officer, within one year following the date of the initial assignment 
11as an officer, shall have satisfactorily met the minimum selection 
12and training standards prescribed by the Board of State and 
13Community Corrections pursuant to Section 6035. Persons 
14designated as correctional officers, before the expiration of the 
1590-day and one-year periods described in this subdivision, who 
16have not yet completed the required training, may perform the 
17duties of a correctional officer only while under the direct 
18supervision of a correctional officer who has completed the training 
19required in this section, and shall not carry or possess firearms in 
20the performance of their prescribed
				  duties.
21(d) This section shall not be construed to confer any authority 
22upon a correctional officer except while on duty.
23(e) A correctional officer may use reasonable force in 
24establishing and maintaining custody of persons delivered to him 
25or her by a law enforcement officer, may make arrests for 
26misdemeanors and felonies within the local detention facility 
27pursuant to a duly issued warrant, and may make warrantless arrests 
28pursuant to Section 836.5 only during the duration of his or her 
29job.
Section 1001.20 of the Penal Code is amended to 
31read:
As used in this chapter:
33(a) “Cognitive Developmental Disability” means any of the 
34following:
35(1) “Intellectual disability” means a condition of significantly 
36subaverage general intellectual functioning existing concurrently 
37with deficits in adaptive behavior and manifested during the 
38developmental period.
39(2) “Autism” means a diagnosed condition of markedly 
40abnormal or impaired development in social interaction, in 
P292  1communication, or in both, with a markedly restricted repertoire 
2of activity and interests.
3(3) Disabling conditions found to be closely related to 
4intellectual disability or
				  autism, or that require treatment similar 
5to that required for individuals with intellectual disability or autism, 
6and that would qualify an individual for services provided under 
7the Lanterman Developmental Disabilities Services Act.
8(b) “Diversion-related treatment and habilitation” means, but 
9is not limited to, specialized services or special adaptations of 
10generic services, directed toward the alleviation of cognitive 
11developmental disability or toward social, personal, physical, or 
12economic habilitation or rehabilitation of an individual with a 
13cognitive developmental disability, and includes, but is not limited 
14to, diagnosis, evaluation, treatment, personal care, day care, 
15domiciliary care, special living arrangements, physical, 
16occupational, and speech therapy, training, education, sheltered 
17employment, mental health services, recreation, counseling of the 
18individual with this disability and of his or her family, protective 
19and other
				  social and sociolegal services, information and referral 
20services, follow-along services, and transportation services 
21necessary to ensure delivery of services to persons with cognitive 
22developmental disabilities.
23(c) “Regional center” means a regional center for the 
24developmentally disabled established under the Lanterman 
25Developmental Disabilities Services Act that is organized as a 
26private nonprofit community agency to plan, purchase, and 
27coordinate the delivery of services that cannot be provided by state 
28agencies to developmentally disabled persons residing in a 
29particular geographic catchment area, and that is licensed and 
30funded by the State Department of Developmental Services.
31(d) “Director of a regional center” means the executive director 
32of a regional center for the developmentally disabled or his or her 
33designee.
34(e) “Agency” means the prosecutor, the probation department, 
35and the regional center involved in a particular defendant’s case.
36(f) “Dual agency diversion” means a treatment and habilitation 
37program developed with court approval by the regional center, 
38administered jointly by the regional center and by the probation 
39department, that is individually tailored to the needs of the 
40defendant as derived from the defendant’s individual program plan 
P293  1pursuant to Section 4646 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, 
2and that includes, but is not limited to, treatment specifically 
3addressed to the criminal offense charged, for a specified period 
4of time as prescribed in Section 1001.28.
5(g) “Single agency diversion” means a treatment and habilitation 
6program developed with court approval by the regional center, 
7administered solely by the regional center without involvement 
8by the
				  probation department, that is individually tailored to the 
9needs of the defendant as derived from the defendant’s individual 
10program plan pursuant to Section 4646 of the Welfare and 
11Institutions Code, and that includes, but is not limited to, treatment 
12specifically addressed to the criminal offense charged, for a 
13specified period of time as prescribed in Section 1001.28.
Section 1170 of the Penal Code, as amended by 
15Section 2 of Chapter 828 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to 
16read:
(a) (1) The Legislature finds and declares that the 
18purpose of imprisonment for crime is punishment. This purpose 
19is best served by terms proportionate to the seriousness of the 
20offense with provision for uniformity in the sentences of offenders 
21committing the same offense under similar circumstances. The 
22Legislature further finds and declares that the elimination of 
23disparity and the provision of uniformity of sentences can best be 
24achieved by determinate sentences fixed by statute in proportion 
25to the seriousness of the offense as determined by the Legislature 
26to be imposed by the court with specified discretion.
27(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), the Legislature further finds 
28and declares that programs should be available for inmates,
29
				  including, but not limited to, educational programs, that are 
30designed to prepare nonviolent felony offenders for successful 
31reentry into the community. The Legislature encourages the 
32development of policies and programs designed to educate and 
33rehabilitate nonviolent felony offenders. In implementing this 
34section, the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation is 
35encouraged to give priority enrollment in programs to promote 
36successful return to the community to an inmate with a short 
37remaining term of commitment and a release date that would allow 
38him or her adequate time to complete the program.
39(3) In any case in which the punishment prescribed by statute 
40for a person convicted of a public offense is a term of imprisonment 
P294  1in the state prison of any specification of three time periods, the 
2court shall sentence the defendant to one of the terms of 
3imprisonment specified unless the convicted person is given any 
4other disposition provided by
				  law, including a fine, jail, probation, 
5or the suspension of imposition or execution of sentence or is 
6sentenced pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1168 because he 
7or she had committed his or her crime prior to July 1, 1977. In 
8sentencing the convicted person, the court shall apply the 
9sentencing rules of the Judicial Council. The court, unless it 
10determines that there are circumstances in mitigation of the 
11punishment prescribed, shall also impose any other term that it is 
12required by law to impose as an additional term. Nothing in this 
13article shall affect any provision of law that imposes the death 
14penalty, that authorizes or restricts the granting of probation or 
15suspending the execution or imposition of sentence, or expressly 
16provides for imprisonment in the state prison for life, except as 
17provided in paragraph (2) of subdivision (d). In any case in which 
18the amount of preimprisonment credit under Section 2900.5 or any 
19other provision of law is equal to or exceeds any sentence imposed 
20pursuant to
				  this chapter, the entire sentence shall be deemed to 
21have been served and the defendant shall not be actually delivered 
22to the custody of the secretary. The court shall advise the defendant 
23that he or she shall serve a period of parole and order the defendant 
24to report to the parole office closest to the defendant’s last legal 
25residence, unless the in-custody credits equal the total sentence, 
26including both confinement time and the period of parole. The 
27sentence shall be deemed a separate prior prison term under Section 
28667.5, and a copy of the judgment and other necessary 
29documentation shall be forwarded to the secretary.
30(b) When a judgment of imprisonment is to be imposed and the 
31statute specifies three possible terms, the court shall order 
32imposition of the middle term, unless there are circumstances in 
33aggravation or mitigation of the crime. At least four days prior to 
34the time set for imposition of judgment, either party or the victim, 
35or
				  the family of the victim if the victim is deceased, may submit 
36a statement in aggravation or mitigation to dispute facts in the 
37record or the probation officer’s report, or to present additional 
38facts. In determining whether there are circumstances that justify 
39imposition of the upper or lower term, the court may consider the 
40record in the case, the probation officer’s report, other reports, 
P295  1including reports received pursuant to Section 1203.03, and 
2statements in aggravation or mitigation submitted by the 
3prosecution, the defendant, or the victim, or the family of the victim 
4if the victim is deceased, and any further evidence introduced at 
5the sentencing hearing. The court shall set forth on the record the 
6facts and reasons for imposing the upper or lower term. The court 
7may not impose an upper term by using the fact of any 
8enhancement upon which sentence is imposed under any provision 
9of law. A term of imprisonment shall not be specified if imposition 
10of sentence is suspended.
11(c) The court shall state the reasons for its sentence choice on 
12the record at the time of sentencing. The court shall also inform 
13the defendant that as part of the sentence after expiration of the 
14term he or she may be on parole for a period as provided in Section 
153000.
16(d) (1) When a defendant subject to this section or subdivision 
17(b) of Section 1168 has been sentenced to be imprisoned in the 
18state prison and has been committed to the custody of the secretary, 
19the court may, within 120 days of the date of commitment on its 
20own motion, or at any time upon the recommendation of the 
21secretary or the Board of Parole Hearings, recall the sentence and 
22commitment previously ordered and resentence the defendant in 
23the same manner as if he or she had not previously been sentenced, 
24provided the new sentence, if any, is no greater than the initial 
25sentence. The court
				  resentencing under this subdivision shall apply 
26the sentencing rules of the Judicial Council so as to eliminate 
27disparity of sentences and to promote uniformity of sentencing. 
28Credit shall be given for time served.
29(2) (A) (i) When a defendant who was under 18 years of age 
30at the time of the commission of the offense for which the 
31defendant was sentenced to imprisonment for life without the 
32possibility of parole has served at least 15 years of that sentence, 
33the defendant may submit to the sentencing court a petition for 
34recall and resentencing.
35(ii) Notwithstanding clause (i), this paragraph shall not apply 
36to defendants sentenced to life without parole for an offense where 
37the defendant tortured, as described in Section 206, his or her 
38victim or the victim was a public safety official, including any law 
39enforcement personnel mentioned
				  in Chapter 4.5 (commencing 
40with Section 830) of Title 3, or any firefighter as described in 
P296  1Section 245.1, as well as any other officer in any segment of law 
2enforcement who is employed by the federal government, the state, 
3or any of its political subdivisions.
4(B) The defendant shall file the original petition with the 
5sentencing court. A copy of the petition shall be served on the 
6agency that prosecuted the case. The petition shall include the 
7defendant’s statement that he or she was under 18 years of age at 
8the time of the crime and was sentenced to life in prison without 
9the possibility of parole, the defendant’s statement describing his 
10or her remorse and work towards rehabilitation, and the defendant’s 
11statement that one of the following is true:
12(i) The defendant was convicted pursuant to felony murder or 
13aiding and abetting murder provisions of law.
14(ii) The defendant does not have juvenile felony adjudications 
15for assault or other felony crimes with a significant potential for 
16personal harm to victims prior to the offense for which the sentence 
17is being considered for recall.
18(iii) The defendant committed the offense with at least one adult 
19codefendant.
20(iv) The defendant has performed acts that tend to indicate 
21rehabilitation or the potential for rehabilitation, including, but not 
22limited to, availing himself or herself of rehabilitative, educational, 
23or vocational programs, if those programs have been available at 
24his or her classification level and facility, using self-study for 
25self-improvement, or showing evidence of remorse.
26(C) If any of the information required in subparagraph (B) is 
27missing
				  from the petition, or if proof of service on the prosecuting 
28agency is not provided, the court shall return the petition to the 
29defendant and advise the defendant that the matter cannot be 
30considered without the missing information.
31(D) A reply to the petition, if any, shall be filed with the court 
32within 60 days of the date on which the prosecuting agency was 
33served with the petition, unless a continuance is granted for good 
34cause.
35(E) If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that 
36the statements in the petition are true, the court shall hold a hearing 
37to consider whether to recall the sentence and commitment 
38previously ordered and to resentence the defendant in the same 
39manner as if the defendant had not previously been sentenced, 
40provided that the new sentence, if any, is not greater than the initial 
P297  1sentence. Victims, or victim family members if the victim is
2
				  deceased, shall retain the rights to participate in the hearing.
3(F) The factors that the court may consider when determining 
4whether to recall and resentence include, but are not limited to, 
5the following:
6(i) The defendant was convicted pursuant to felony murder or 
7aiding and abetting murder provisions of law.
8(ii) The defendant does not have juvenile felony adjudications 
9for assault or other felony crimes with a significant potential for 
10personal harm to victims prior to the offense for which the sentence 
11is being considered for recall.
12(iii) The defendant committed the offense with at least one adult 
13codefendant.
14(iv) Prior to the offense for which the sentence is being 
15considered for
				  recall, the defendant had insufficient adult support 
16or supervision and had suffered from psychological or physical 
17trauma, or significant stress.
18(v) The defendant suffers from cognitive limitations due to 
19mental illness, developmental disabilities, or other factors that did 
20not constitute a defense, but influenced the defendant’s 
21involvement in the offense.
22(vi) The defendant has performed acts that tend to indicate 
23rehabilitation or the potential for rehabilitation, including, but not 
24limited to, availing himself or herself of rehabilitative, educational, 
25or vocational programs, if those programs have been available at 
26his or her classification level and facility, using self-study for 
27self-improvement, or showing evidence of remorse.
28(vii) The defendant has maintained family ties or connections 
29with others through
				  letter writing, calls, or visits, or has eliminated 
30contact with individuals outside of prison who are currently 
31involved with crime.
32(viii) The defendant has had no disciplinary actions for violent 
33activities in the last five years in which the defendant was 
34determined to be the aggressor.
35(G) The court shall have the discretion to recall the sentence 
36and commitment previously ordered and to resentence the 
37defendant in the same manner as if the defendant had not 
38previously been sentenced, provided that the new sentence, if any, 
39is not greater than the initial sentence. The discretion of the court 
40shall be exercised in consideration of the criteria in subparagraph 
P298  1(B). Victims, or victim family members if the victim is deceased, 
2shall be notified of the resentencing hearing and shall retain their 
3rights to participate in the hearing.
4(H) If the sentence is not recalled, the defendant may submit 
5another petition for recall and resentencing to the sentencing court 
6when the defendant has been committed to the custody of the 
7department for at least 20 years. If recall and resentencing is not 
8granted under that petition, the defendant may file another petition 
9after having served 24 years. The final petition may be submitted, 
10and the response to that petition shall be determined, during the 
1125th year of the defendant’s sentence.
12(I) In addition to the criteria in subparagraph (F), the court may 
13consider any other criteria that the court deems relevant to its 
14decision, so long as the court identifies them on the record, 
15provides a statement of reasons for adopting them, and states why 
16the defendant does or does not satisfy the criteria.
17(J) This subdivision shall have retroactive application.
18(e) (1) Notwithstanding any other law and consistent with 
19paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), if the secretary or the Board of 
20Parole Hearings or both determine that a prisoner satisfies the 
21criteria set forth in paragraph (2), the secretary or the board may 
22recommend to the court that the prisoner’s sentence be recalled.
23(2) The court shall have the discretion to resentence or recall if 
24the court finds that the facts described in subparagraphs (A) and 
25(B) or subparagraphs (B) and (C) exist:
26(A) The prisoner is terminally ill with an incurable condition 
27caused by an illness or disease that would produce death within 
28six months, as determined by a physician employed by the 
29department.
30(B) The
				  conditions under which the prisoner would be released 
31or receive treatment do not pose a threat to public safety.
32(C) The prisoner is permanently medically incapacitated with 
33a medical condition that renders him or her permanently unable 
34to perform activities of basic daily living, and results in the prisoner 
35requiring 24-hour total care, including, but not limited to, coma, 
36persistent vegetative state, brain death, ventilator-dependency, loss 
37of control of muscular or neurological function, and that 
38incapacitation did not exist at the time of the original sentencing.
39The Board of Parole Hearings shall make findings pursuant to 
40this subdivision before making a recommendation for resentence 
P299  1or recall to the court. This subdivision does not apply to a prisoner 
2sentenced to death or a term of life without the possibility of parole.
3(3) Within 10 days of receipt of a positive recommendation by 
4the secretary or the board, the court shall hold a hearing to consider 
5whether the prisoner’s sentence should be recalled.
6(4) Any physician employed by the department who determines 
7that a prisoner has six months or less to live shall notify the chief 
8medical officer of the prognosis. If the chief medical officer 
9concurs with the prognosis, he or she shall notify the warden. 
10Within 48 hours of receiving notification, the warden or the 
11warden’s representative shall notify the prisoner of the recall and 
12resentencing procedures, and shall arrange for the prisoner to 
13designate a family member or other outside agent to be notified 
14as to the prisoner’s medical condition and prognosis, and as to the 
15recall and resentencing procedures. If the inmate is deemed 
16mentally unfit, the warden or the warden’s representative shall 
17contact the inmate’s emergency contact and provide the
				  information 
18described in paragraph (2).
19(5) The warden or the warden’s representative shall provide the 
20prisoner and his or her family member, agent, or emergency 
21contact, as described in paragraph (4), updated information 
22throughout the recall and resentencing process with regard to the 
23prisoner’s medical condition and the status of the prisoner’s recall 
24and resentencing proceedings.
25(6) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this section, the 
26prisoner or his or her family member or designee may 
27independently request consideration for recall and resentencing 
28by contacting the chief medical officer at the prison or the 
29secretary. Upon receipt of the request, the chief medical officer 
30and the warden or the warden’s representative shall follow the 
31procedures described in paragraph (4). If the secretary determines 
32that the prisoner satisfies the criteria set forth in paragraph (2),
				  the 
33secretary or board may recommend to the court that the prisoner’s 
34sentence be recalled. The secretary shall submit a recommendation 
35for release within 30 days in the case of inmates sentenced to 
36determinate terms and, in the case of inmates sentenced to 
37indeterminate terms, the secretary shall make a recommendation 
38to the Board of Parole Hearings with respect to the inmates who 
39have applied under this section. The board shall consider this 
40information and make an independent judgment pursuant to 
P300  1paragraph (2) and make findings related thereto before rejecting 
2the request or making a recommendation to the court. This action 
3shall be taken at the next lawfully noticed board meeting.
4(7) Any recommendation for recall submitted to the court by 
5the secretary or the Board of Parole Hearings shall include one or 
6more medical evaluations, a postrelease plan, and findings pursuant 
7to paragraph (2).
8(8) If possible, the matter shall be heard before the same judge 
9of the court who sentenced the prisoner.
10(9) If the court grants the recall and resentencing application, 
11the prisoner shall be released by the department within 48 hours 
12of receipt of the court’s order, unless a longer time period is agreed 
13to by the inmate. At the time of release, the warden or the warden’s 
14representative shall ensure that the prisoner has each of the 
15following in his or her possession: a discharge medical summary, 
16full medical records, state identification, parole medications, and 
17all property belonging to the prisoner. After discharge, any 
18additional records shall be sent to the prisoner’s forwarding 
19address.
20(10) The secretary shall issue a directive to medical and 
21correctional staff employed by the department that details the 
22guidelines and procedures for initiating a recall and
				  resentencing 
23procedure. The directive shall clearly state that any prisoner who 
24is given a prognosis of six months or less to live is eligible for 
25recall and resentencing consideration, and that recall and 
26resentencing procedures shall be initiated upon that prognosis.
27(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, for 
28purposes of paragraph (3) of subdivision (h), any allegation that 
29a defendant is eligible for state prison due to a prior or current 
30conviction, sentence enhancement, or because he or she is required 
31to register as a sex offender shall not be subject to dismissal 
32pursuant to Section 1385.
33(g) A sentence to state prison for a determinate term for which 
34only one term is specified, is a sentence to state prison under this 
35section.
36(h) (1) Except as provided in paragraph
				  (3), a felony punishable 
37pursuant to this subdivision where the term is not specified in the 
38underlying offense shall be punishable by a term of imprisonment 
39in a county jail for 16 months, or two or three years.
P301  1(2) Except as provided in paragraph (3), a felony punishable 
2pursuant to this subdivision shall be punishable by imprisonment 
3in a county jail for the term described in the underlying offense.
4(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2), where the defendant 
5(A) has a prior or current felony conviction for a serious felony 
6described in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7 or a prior or current 
7conviction for a violent felony described in subdivision (c) of 
8Section 667.5, (B) has a prior felony conviction in another 
9jurisdiction for an offense that has all the elements of a serious 
10felony described in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7 or a violent 
11felony described in
				  subdivision (c) of Section 667.5, (C) is required 
12to register as a sex offender pursuant to Chapter 5.5 (commencing 
13with Section 290) of Title 9 of Part 1, or (D) is convicted of a crime 
14and as part of the sentence an enhancement pursuant to Section 
15186.11 is imposed, an executed sentence for a felony punishable 
16pursuant to this subdivision shall be served in state prison.
17(4) This subdivision does not prevent other dispositions 
18authorized by law, including pretrial diversion, deferred entry of 
19judgment, or an order granting probation pursuant to Section 
201203.1.
21(5) The court, when imposing a sentence pursuant to paragraph 
22(1) or (2) of this subdivision, may commit the defendant to county 
23jail as follows:
24(A) For a full term in custody as determined in accordance with 
25the applicable sentencing law.
26(B) (i) For a term as determined in accordance with the 
27applicable sentencing law, but suspend execution of a concluding 
28portion of the term selected in the court’s discretion, during which 
29time the defendant shall be supervised by the county probation 
30officer in accordance with the terms, conditions, and procedures 
31generally applicable to persons placed on probation, for the 
32remaining unserved portion of the sentence imposed by the court. 
33The period of supervision shall be mandatory, and may not be 
34earlier terminated except by court order. Any proceeding to revoke 
35or modify mandatory supervision under this subparagraph shall 
36be conducted pursuant to either subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 
371203.2 or Section 1203.3. During the period when the defendant 
38is under such supervision, unless in actual custody related to the 
39sentence imposed by the court, the defendant shall be entitled to 
40only actual time credit against the term
				  of imprisonment imposed 
P302  1by the court. Any time period that is suspended because a person 
2has absconded shall not be credited toward the period of 
3supervision.
4(ii) The portion of a defendant’s sentenced term during which 
5time he or she is supervised by the county probation officer 
6pursuant to this subparagraph shall be known as mandatory 
7supervision.
8(6) The sentencing changes made by the act that added this 
9subdivision shall be applied prospectively to any person sentenced 
10on or after October 1, 2011.
11(i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2014.
Section 1203.097 of the Penal Code is amended to 
13read:
(a) If a person is granted probation for a crime in 
15which the victim is a person defined in Section 6211 of the Family 
16Code, the terms of probation shall include all of the following:
17(1) A minimum period of probation of 36 months, which may 
18include a period of summary probation as appropriate.
19(2) A criminal court protective order protecting the victim from 
20further acts of violence, threats, stalking, sexual abuse, and 
21harassment, and, if appropriate, containing residence exclusion or 
22stay-away conditions.
23(3) Notice to the victim of the disposition of the case.
24(4) Booking the defendant within one week of sentencing if the 
25defendant has not already been booked.
26(5) (A) A minimum payment by the defendant of five hundred 
27dollars ($500) to be disbursed as specified in this paragraph. If, 
28after a hearing in open court, the court finds that the defendant 
29does not have the ability to pay, the court may reduce or waive 
30this fee. If the court exercises its discretion to reduce or waive the 
31fee, it shall state the reason on the record.
32(B) Two-thirds of the moneys deposited with the county 
33treasurer pursuant to this section shall be retained by counties and 
34deposited in the domestic violence programs special fund created 
35pursuant to Section 18305 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, 
36to be expended for the purposes of Chapter 5 (commencing with 
37Section 18290) of Part 6 of Division 9 of the Welfare and
38
				  Institutions Code. The remainder shall be transferred, once a month, 
39to the Controller for deposit in equal amounts in the Domestic 
40Violence Restraining Order Reimbursement Fund and in the 
P303  1Domestic Violence Training and Education Fund, which are hereby 
2created, in an amount equal to one-third of funds collected during 
3the preceding month. Moneys deposited into these funds pursuant 
4to this section shall be available upon appropriation by the 
5Legislature and shall be distributed each fiscal year as follows:
6(i) Funds from the Domestic Violence Restraining Order 
7Reimbursement Fund shall be distributed to local law enforcement 
8or other criminal justice agencies for state-mandated local costs 
9resulting from the notification requirements set forth in subdivision 
10(b) of Section 6380 of the Family Code, based on the annual 
11notification from the Department of Justice of the number of 
12restraining orders issued and registered in the state domestic
13
				  violence restraining order registry maintained by the Department 
14of Justice, for the development and maintenance of the domestic 
15violence restraining order databank system.
16(ii) Funds from the Domestic Violence Training and Education 
17Fund shall support a statewide training and education program to 
18increase public awareness of domestic violence and to improve 
19the scope and quality of services provided to the victims of 
20domestic violence. Grants to support this program shall be awarded 
21on a competitive basis and be administered by the State Department 
22of Public Health, in consultation with the statewide domestic 
23violence coalition, which is eligible to receive funding under this 
24section.
25(6) Successful completion of a batterer’s program, as defined 
26in subdivision (c), or if none is available, another appropriate 
27counseling program designated by the court, for a period not less 
28than
				  one year with periodic progress reports by the program to the 
29court every three months or less and weekly sessions of a minimum 
30of two hours class time duration. The defendant shall attend 
31consecutive weekly sessions, unless granted an excused absence 
32for good cause by the program for no more than three individual 
33sessions during the entire program, and shall complete the program 
34within 18 months, unless, after a hearing, the court finds good 
35cause to modify the requirements of consecutive attendance or 
36completion within 18 months.
37(7) (A) (i) The court shall order the defendant to comply with 
38all probation requirements, including the requirements to attend 
39counseling, keep all program appointments, and pay program fees 
40based upon the ability to pay.
P304  1(ii) The terms of probation for offenders shall not be lifted until 
2all reasonable fees
				  due to the counseling program have been paid 
3in full, but in no case shall probation be extended beyond the term 
4provided in subdivision (a) of Section 1203.1. If the court finds 
5that the defendant does not have the ability to pay the fees based 
6on the defendant’s changed circumstances, the court may reduce 
7or waive the fees.
8(B) Upon request by the batterer’s program, the court shall 
9provide the defendant’s arrest report, prior incidents of violence, 
10and treatment history to the program.
11(8) The court also shall order the defendant to perform a 
12specified amount of appropriate community service, as designated 
13by the court. The defendant shall present the court with proof of 
14completion of community service and the court shall determine if 
15the community service has been satisfactorily completed. If 
16sufficient staff and resources are available, the community service 
17shall be
				  performed under the jurisdiction of the local agency 
18overseeing a community service program.
19(9) If the program finds that the defendant is unsuitable, the 
20program shall immediately contact the probation department or 
21the court. The probation department or court shall either recalendar 
22the case for hearing or refer the defendant to an appropriate 
23alternative batterer’s program.
24(10) (A) Upon recommendation of the program, a court shall 
25require a defendant to participate in additional sessions throughout 
26the probationary period, unless it finds that it is not in the interests 
27of justice to do so, states its reasons on the record, and enters them 
28into the minutes. In deciding whether the defendant would benefit 
29from more sessions, the court shall consider whether any of the 
30following conditions exists:
31(i) The defendant has been violence free for a minimum of six 
32months.
33(ii) The defendant has cooperated and participated in the 
34batterer’s program.
35(iii) The defendant demonstrates an understanding of and 
36practices positive conflict resolution skills.
37(iv) The defendant blames, degrades, or has committed acts that 
38dehumanize the victim or puts at risk the victim’s safety, including, 
39but not limited to, molesting, stalking, striking, attacking, 
40threatening, sexually assaulting, or battering the victim.
P305  1(v) The defendant demonstrates an understanding that the use 
2of coercion or violent behavior to maintain dominance is 
3unacceptable in an intimate relationship.
4(vi) The defendant
				  has made threats to harm anyone in any 
5manner.
6(vii) The defendant has complied with applicable requirements 
7under paragraph (6) of subdivision (c) or subparagraph (C) to 
8receive alcohol counseling, drug counseling, or both.
9(viii) The defendant demonstrates acceptance of responsibility 
10for the abusive behavior perpetrated against the victim.
11(B) The program shall immediately report any violation of the 
12terms of the protective order, including any new acts of violence 
13or failure to comply with the program requirements, to the court, 
14the prosecutor, and, if formal probation has been ordered, to the 
15probation department. The probationer shall file proof of 
16enrollment in a batterer’s program with the court within 30 days 
17of conviction.
18(C) Concurrent with
				  other requirements under this section, in 
19addition to, and not in lieu of, the batterer’s program, and unless 
20prohibited by the referring court, the probation department or the 
21court may make provisions for a defendant to use his or her 
22resources to enroll in a chemical dependency program or to enter 
23voluntarily a licensed chemical dependency recovery hospital or 
24residential treatment program that has a valid license issued by the 
25state to provide alcohol or drug services to receive program 
26participation credit, as determined by the court. The probation 
27department shall document evidence of this hospital or residential 
28treatment participation in the defendant’s program file.
29(11) The conditions of probation may include, in lieu of a fine, 
30but not in lieu of the fund payment required under paragraph (5), 
31one or more of the following requirements:
32(A) That the defendant make
				  payments to a battered women’s 
33shelter, up to a maximum of five thousand dollars ($5,000).
34(B) That the defendant reimburse the victim for reasonable 
35expenses that the court finds are the direct result of the defendant’s 
36offense.
37For any order to pay a fine, to make payments to a battered 
38women’s shelter, or to pay restitution as a condition of probation 
39under this subdivision, the court shall make a determination of the 
40defendant’s ability to pay. Determination of a defendant’s ability 
P306  1to pay may include his or her future earning capacity. A defendant 
2shall bear the burden of demonstrating lack of his or her ability to 
3pay. Express findings by the court as to the factors bearing on the 
4amount of the fine shall not be required. In no event shall any order 
5to make payments to a battered women’s shelter be made if it 
6would impair the ability of the defendant to pay direct restitution 
7to the victim or
				  court-ordered child support. When the injury to a 
8married person is caused, in whole or in part, by the criminal acts 
9of his or her spouse in violation of this section, the community 
10property shall not be used to discharge the liability of the offending 
11spouse for restitution to the injured spouse, as required by Section 
121203.04, as operative on or before August 2, 1995, or Section 
131202.4, or to a shelter for costs with regard to the injured spouse, 
14until all separate property of the offending spouse is exhausted.
15(12) If it appears to the prosecuting attorney, the court, or the 
16probation department that the defendant is performing 
17unsatisfactorily in the assigned program, is not benefiting from 
18counseling, or has engaged in criminal conduct, upon request of 
19the probation officer, the prosecuting attorney, or on its own 
20motion, the court, as a priority calendar item, shall hold a hearing 
21to determine whether further sentencing should proceed.
				  The court 
22may consider factors, including, but not limited to, any violence 
23by the defendant against the former or a new victim while on 
24probation and noncompliance with any other specific condition of 
25probation. If the court finds that the defendant is not performing 
26satisfactorily in the assigned program, is not benefiting from the 
27program, has not complied with a condition of probation, or has 
28engaged in criminal conduct, the court shall terminate the 
29defendant’s participation in the program and shall proceed with 
30further sentencing.
31(b) If a person is granted formal probation for a crime in which 
32the victim is a person defined in Section 6211 of the Family Code, 
33in addition to the terms specified in subdivision (a), all of the 
34following shall apply:
35(1) The probation department shall make an investigation and 
36take into consideration the defendant’s age, medical history,
37
				  employment and service records, educational background, 
38community and family ties, prior incidents of violence, police 
39report, treatment history, if any, demonstrable motivation, and 
40other mitigating factors in determining which batterer’s program 
P307  1would be appropriate for the defendant. This information shall be 
2provided to the batterer’s program if it is requested. The probation 
3department shall also determine which community programs the 
4defendant would benefit from and which of those programs would 
5accept the defendant. The probation department shall report its 
6findings and recommendations to the court.
7(2) The court shall advise the defendant that the failure to report 
8to the probation department for the initial investigation, as directed 
9by the court, or the failure to enroll in a specified program, as 
10directed by the court or the probation department, shall result in 
11possible further incarceration. The court, in the interests of justice,
12
				  may relieve the defendant from the prohibition set forth in this 
13subdivision based upon the defendant’s mistake or excusable 
14neglect. Application for this relief shall be filed within 20 court 
15days of the missed deadline. This time limitation may not be 
16extended. A copy of any application for relief shall be served on 
17the office of the prosecuting attorney.
18(3) After the court orders the defendant to a batterer’s program, 
19the probation department shall conduct an initial assessment of 
20the defendant, including, but not limited to, all of the following:
21(A) Social, economic, and family background.
22(B) Education.
23(C) Vocational achievements.
24(D) Criminal history.
25(E) Medical history.
26(F) Substance abuse history.
27(G) Consultation with the probation officer.
28(H) Verbal consultation with the victim, only if the victim 
29desires to participate.
30(I) Assessment of the future probability of the defendant 
31committing murder.
32(4) The probation department shall attempt to notify the victim 
33regarding the requirements for the defendant’s participation in the 
34batterer’s program, as well as regarding available victim resources. 
35The victim also shall be informed that attendance in any program 
36does not guarantee that an abuser will not be violent.
37(c) The court or the probation department shall refer defendants 
38only to batterer’s programs that follow standards outlined in 
39paragraph (1), which may include, but are not limited to, lectures, 
40classes, group discussions, and counseling. The probation 
P308  1department shall design and implement an approval and renewal 
2process for batterer’s programs and shall solicit input from criminal 
3justice agencies and domestic violence victim advocacy programs.
4(1) The goal of a batterer’s program under this section shall be 
5to stop domestic violence. A batterer’s program shall consist of 
6the following components:
7(A) Strategies to hold the defendant accountable for the violence 
8in a relationship, including, but not limited to, providing the 
9defendant with a written statement that the defendant shall be held 
10accountable for acts or threats of domestic violence.
11(B) A requirement that the defendant participate in ongoing 
12same-gender group sessions.
13(C) An initial intake that provides written definitions to the 
14defendant of physical, emotional, sexual, economic, and verbal 
15abuse, and the techniques for stopping these types of abuse.
16(D) Procedures to inform the victim regarding the requirements 
17for the defendant’s participation in the intervention program as 
18well as regarding available victim resources. The victim also shall 
19be informed that attendance in any program does not guarantee 
20that an abuser will not be violent.
21(E) A requirement that the defendant attend group sessions free 
22of chemical influence.
23(F) Educational programming that examines, at
				  a minimum, 
24gender roles, socialization, the nature of violence, the dynamics 
25of power and control, and the effects of abuse on children and 
26others.
27(G) A requirement that excludes any couple counseling or family 
28counseling, or both.
29(H) Procedures that give the program the right to assess whether 
30or not the defendant would benefit from the program and to refuse 
31to enroll the defendant if it is determined that the defendant would 
32not benefit from the program, so long as the refusal is not because 
33of the defendant’s inability to pay. If possible, the program shall 
34suggest an appropriate alternative program.
35(I) Program staff who, to the extent possible, have specific 
36knowledge regarding, but not limited to, spousal abuse, child abuse, 
37sexual abuse, substance abuse, the dynamics of violence and abuse, 
38the law, and
				  procedures of the legal system.
39(J) Program staff who are encouraged to utilize the expertise, 
40training, and assistance of local domestic violence centers.
P309  1(K) A requirement that the defendant enter into a written 
2agreement with the program, which shall include an outline of the 
3contents of the program, the attendance requirements, the 
4requirement to attend group sessions free of chemical influence, 
5and a statement that the defendant may be removed from the 
6program if it is determined that the defendant is not benefiting 
7from the program or is disruptive to the program.
8(L) A requirement that the defendant sign a confidentiality 
9statement prohibiting disclosure of any information obtained 
10through participating in the program or during group sessions 
11regarding other participants in the program.
12(M) Program content that provides cultural and ethnic 
13sensitivity.
14(N) A requirement of a written referral from the court or 
15probation department prior to permitting the defendant to enroll 
16in the program. The written referral shall state the number of 
17minimum sessions required by the court.
18(O) Procedures for submitting to the probation department all 
19of the following uniform written responses:
20(i) Proof of enrollment, to be submitted to the court and the 
21probation department and to include the fee determined to be 
22charged to the defendant, based upon the ability to pay, for each 
23session.
24(ii) Periodic progress reports that include attendance, fee 
25payment history, and program compliance.
26(iii) Final evaluation that includes the program’s evaluation of 
27the defendant’s progress, using the criteria set forth in subparagraph 
28(A) of paragraph (10) of subdivision (a) and recommendation for 
29either successful or unsuccessful termination or continuation in 
30the program.
31(P) A sliding fee schedule based on the defendant’s ability to 
32pay. The batterer’s program shall develop and utilize a sliding fee 
33scale that recognizes both the defendant’s ability to pay and the 
34necessity of programs to meet overhead expenses. An indigent 
35defendant may negotiate a deferred payment schedule, but shall 
36pay a nominal fee, if the defendant has the ability to pay the 
37nominal fee. Upon a hearing and a finding by the court that the 
38defendant does not have the financial ability to pay the nominal 
39fee, the court shall waive this fee. The payment of the fee shall be 
40made a condition of probation if the
				  court determines the defendant 
P310  1has the present ability to pay the fee. The fee shall be paid during 
2the term of probation unless the program sets other conditions. 
3The acceptance policies shall be in accordance with the scaled fee 
4system.
5(2) The court shall refer persons only to batterer’s programs 
6that have been approved by the probation department pursuant to 
7paragraph (5). The probation department shall do both of the 
8following:
9(A) Provide for the issuance of a provisional approval, provided 
10that the applicant is in substantial compliance with applicable laws 
11and regulations and an urgent need for approval exists. A 
12provisional approval shall be considered an authorization to provide 
13services and shall not be considered a vested right.
14(B) If the probation department determines that a program is 
15not in
				  compliance with standards set by the department, the 
16department shall provide written notice of the noncompliant areas 
17to the program. The program shall submit a written plan of 
18corrections within 14 days from the date of the written notice on 
19noncompliance. A plan of correction shall include, but not be 
20limited to, a description of each corrective action and timeframe 
21for implementation. The department shall review and approve all 
22or any part of the plan of correction and notify the program of 
23approval or disapproval in writing. If the program fails to submit 
24a plan of correction or fails to implement the approved plan of 
25correction, the department shall consider whether to revoke or 
26suspend approval and, upon revoking or suspending approval, shall 
27have the option to cease referrals of defendants under this section.
28(3) No program, regardless of its source of funding, shall be 
29approved unless it meets all of the following standards:
30(A) The establishment of guidelines and criteria for education 
31services, including standards of services that may include lectures, 
32classes, and group discussions.
33(B) Supervision of the defendant for the purpose of evaluating 
34the person’s progress in the program.
35(C) Adequate reporting requirements to ensure that all persons 
36who, after being ordered to attend and complete a program, may 
37be identified for either failure to enroll in, or failure to successfully 
38complete, the program or for the successful completion of the 
39program as ordered. The program shall notify the court and the 
40probation department, in writing, within the period of time and in 
P311  1the manner specified by the court of any person who fails to 
2complete the program. Notification shall be given if the program 
3determines that the defendant is performing
				  unsatisfactorily or if 
4the defendant is not benefiting from the education, treatment, or 
5counseling.
6(D) No victim shall be compelled to participate in a program 
7or counseling, and no program may condition a defendant’s 
8enrollment on participation by the victim.
9(4) In making referrals of indigent defendants to approved 
10batterer’s programs, the probation department shall apportion these 
11referrals evenly among the approved programs.
12(5) The probation department shall have the sole authority to 
13approve a batterer’s program for probation. The program shall be 
14required to obtain only one approval but shall renew that approval 
15annually.
16(A) The procedure for the approval of a new or existing program 
17shall include all of the following:
18(i) The completion of a written application containing necessary 
19and pertinent information describing the applicant program.
20(ii) The demonstration by the program that it possesses adequate 
21administrative and operational capability to operate a batterer’s 
22treatment program. The program shall provide documentation to 
23prove that the program has conducted batterer’s programs for at 
24least one year prior to application. This requirement may be waived 
25under subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) if there is no existing 
26batterer’s program in the city, county, or city and county.
27(iii) The onsite review of the program, including monitoring of 
28a session to determine that the program adheres to applicable 
29statutes and regulations.
30(iv) The payment of the approval fee.
31(B) The probation department shall fix a fee for approval not 
32to exceed two hundred fifty dollars ($250) and for approval renewal 
33not to exceed two hundred fifty dollars ($250) every year in an 
34amount sufficient to cover its costs in administering the approval 
35process under this section. No fee shall be charged for the approval 
36of local governmental entities.
37(C) The probation department has the sole authority to approve 
38the issuance, denial, suspension, or revocation of approval and to 
39cease new enrollments or referrals to a batterer’s program under 
40this section. The probation department shall review information 
P312  1relative to a program’s performance or failure to adhere to 
2standards, or both. The probation department may suspend or 
3revoke an approval issued under this subdivision or deny an 
4application to renew an approval or to modify the terms and 
5conditions of approval,
				  based on grounds established by probation, 
6including, but not limited to, either of the following:
7(i) Violation of this section by any person holding approval or 
8by a program employee in a program under this section.
9(ii) Misrepresentation of any material fact in obtaining the 
10approval.
11(6) For defendants who are chronic users or serious abusers of 
12drugs or alcohol, standard components in the program shall include 
13concurrent counseling for substance abuse and violent behavior, 
14and in appropriate cases, detoxification and abstinence from the 
15abused substance.
16(7) The program shall conduct an exit conference that assesses 
17the defendant’s progress during his or her participation in the 
18batterer’s program.
19(d) An act or omission relating to the approval of a batterer’s 
20treatment program under paragraph (5) of subdivision (c) is a 
21discretionary act pursuant to Section 820.2 of the Government 
22Code.
Section 1203.4a of the Penal Code is amended to 
24read:
(a) Every defendant convicted of a misdemeanor and 
26not granted probation, and every defendant convicted of an 
27infraction shall, at any time after the lapse of one year from the 
28date of pronouncement of judgment, if he or she has fully complied 
29with and performed the sentence of the court, is not then serving 
30a sentence for any offense and is not under charge of commission 
31of any crime, and has, since the pronouncement of judgment, lived 
32an honest and upright life and has conformed to and obeyed the 
33laws of the land, be permitted by the court to withdraw his or her 
34plea of guilty or nolo contendere and enter a plea of not guilty; or 
35if he or she has been convicted after a plea of not guilty, the court 
36shall set aside the verdict of guilty; and in either case the court 
37shall thereupon dismiss the accusatory pleading against the
38
				  defendant, who shall thereafter be released from all penalties and 
39disabilities resulting from the offense of which he or she has been 
40convicted, except as provided in Chapter 3 (commencing with 
P313  1Section 29900) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6 of this code or 
2Section 13555 of the Vehicle Code.
3(b) If a defendant does not satisfy all the requirements of 
4subdivision (a), after a lapse of one year from the date of 
5pronouncement of judgment, a court, in its discretion and in the 
6interests of justice, may grant the relief available pursuant to 
7subdivision (a) to a defendant convicted of an infraction, or of a 
8misdemeanor and not granted probation, or both, if he or she has 
9fully complied with and performed the sentence of the court, is 
10not then serving a sentence for any offense, and is not under charge 
11of commission of any crime.
12(c) (1) The defendant shall be
				  informed of the provisions of 
13this section, either orally or in writing, at the time he or she is 
14sentenced. The defendant may make an application and change of 
15plea in person or by attorney, or by the probation officer authorized 
16in writing, provided that, in any subsequent prosecution of the 
17defendant for any other offense, the prior conviction may be 
18pleaded and proved and shall have the same effect as if relief had 
19not been granted pursuant to this section.
20(2) Dismissal of an accusatory pleading pursuant to this section 
21does not permit a person to own, possess, or have in his or her 
22custody or control any firearm or prevent his or her conviction 
23under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 
24of Title 4 of Part 6.
25(3) Dismissal of an accusatory pleading underlying a conviction 
26pursuant to this section does not permit a person prohibited from 
27holding public
				  office as a result of that conviction to hold public 
28office.
29(d)  This section applies to any conviction specified in 
30subdivision (a) or (b) that occurred before, as well as those 
31occurring after, the effective date of this section, except that this 
32section does not apply to the following:
33(1) A misdemeanor violation of subdivision (c) of Section 288.
34(2) Any misdemeanor falling within the provisions of Section 
3542002.1 of the Vehicle Code.
36(3) Any infraction falling within the provisions of Section 42001 
37of the Vehicle Code.
38(e) A person who petitions for a dismissal of a charge under 
39this section may be required to reimburse the county and the court 
40for the cost of services rendered at a
				  rate to be determined by the 
P314  1county board of supervisors for the county and by the court for the 
2court, not to exceed sixty dollars ($60), and to reimburse any city 
3for the cost of services rendered at a rate to be determined by the 
4city council not to exceed sixty dollars ($60). Ability to make this 
5reimbursement shall be determined by the court using the standards 
6set forth in paragraph (2) of subdivision (g) of Section 987.8 and 
7shall not be a prerequisite to a person’s eligibility under this 
8section. The court may order reimbursement in any case in which 
9the petitioner appears to have the ability to pay, without undue 
10hardship, all or any portion of the cost for services established 
11pursuant to this subdivision.
12(f) A petition for dismissal of an infraction pursuant to this 
13section shall be by written declaration, except upon a showing of 
14compelling need. Dismissal of an infraction shall not be granted 
15under this section unless the
				  prosecuting attorney has been given 
16at least 15 days’ notice of the petition for dismissal. It shall be 
17presumed that the prosecuting attorney has received notice if proof 
18of service is filed with the court.
19(g) Any determination of amount made by a court under this 
20section shall be valid only if either (1) made under procedures 
21adopted by the Judicial Council or (2) approved by the Judicial 
22Council.
Section 1230 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
(a) Each county is hereby authorized to establish in each 
25county treasury a Community Corrections Performance Incentives 
26Fund (CCPIF), to receive all amounts allocated to that county for 
27purposes of implementing this chapter.
28(b) In any fiscal year for which a county receives moneys to be 
29expended for the implementation of this chapter, the moneys, 
30including any interest, shall be made available to the CPO of that 
31county, within 30 days of the deposit of those moneys into the 
32fund, for the implementation of the community corrections program 
33authorized by this chapter.
34(1) The community corrections program shall be developed and 
35implemented by probation and advised by a local Community 
36Corrections
				  Partnership.
37(2) The local Community Corrections Partnership shall be 
38chaired by the CPO and comprised of the following membership:
39(A) The presiding judge of the superior court, or his or her 
40designee.
P315  1(B) A county supervisor or the chief administrative officer for 
2the county or a designee of the board of supervisors.
3(C) The district attorney.
4(D) The public defender.
5(E) The sheriff.
6(F) A chief of police.
7(G) The head of the county department of social services.
8(H) The head of the county department of mental health.
9(I) The head of the county department of employment.
10(J) The head of the county alcohol and substance abuse program.
11(K) The head of the county office of education.
12(L) A representative from a community-based organization with 
13experience in successfully providing rehabilitative services to 
14persons who have been convicted of a criminal offense.
15(M) An individual who represents the interests of victims.
16(3) Funds allocated to probation pursuant to this act shall be 
17used to provide supervision and rehabilitative
				  services for adult 
18felony offenders subject to probation, and shall be spent on 
19evidence-based community corrections practices and programs, 
20as defined in subdivision (d) of Section 1229, which may include, 
21but are not limited to, the following:
22(A) Implementing and expanding evidence-based risk and needs 
23assessments.
24(B) Implementing and expanding intermediate sanctions that 
25include, but are not limited to, electronic monitoring, mandatory 
26community service, home detention, day reporting, restorative 
27justice programs, work furlough programs, and incarceration in a 
28county jail for up to 90 days.
29(C) Providing more intensive probation supervision.
30(D) Expanding the availability of evidence-based rehabilitation 
31programs, including, but not limited to,
				  drug and alcohol treatment, 
32mental health treatment, anger management, cognitive behavior 
33programs, and job training and employment services.
34(E) Evaluating the effectiveness of rehabilitation and supervision 
35programs and ensuring program fidelity.
36(4) The CPO shall have discretion to spend funds on any of the 
37above practices and programs consistent with this act but, at a 
38minimum, shall devote at least 5 percent of all funding received 
39to evaluate the effectiveness of those programs and practices 
40implemented with the funds provided pursuant to this chapter. A 
P316  1CPO may petition the Administrative Office of the Courts to have 
2this restriction waived, and the Administrative Office of the Courts 
3shall have the authority to grant such a petition, if the CPO can 
4demonstrate that the department is already devoting sufficient 
5funds to the evaluation of these programs and practices.
6(5) Each probation department receiving funds under this chapter 
7shall maintain a complete and accurate accounting of all funds 
8received pursuant to this chapter.
The heading of Title 4.5 (commencing with Section 
1013600) of Part 4 of the Penal Code, as amended by Section 7 of 
11Chapter 136 of the Statutes of 2011, is repealed.
Section 1370.1 of the Penal Code is amended to 
13read:
(a) (1) (A) If the defendant is found mentally 
15competent, the criminal process shall resume, the trial on the 
16offense charged shall proceed, and judgment may be pronounced.
17(B) If the defendant is found mentally incompetent and is 
18developmentally disabled, the trial or judgment shall be suspended 
19until the defendant becomes mentally competent.
20(i) Except as provided in clause (ii) or (iii), the court shall 
21consider a recommendation for placement, which recommendation 
22shall be made to the court by the director of a regional center or
23 designee. In the meantime, the court shall order that the mentally 
24incompetent defendant be delivered by the sheriff or other
				  person 
25designated by the court to a state hospital or developmental center 
26for the care and treatment of the developmentally disabled or any 
27other available residential facility approved by the director of a 
28regional center for the developmentally disabled established under 
29Division 4.5 (commencing with Section 4500) of the Welfare and 
30Institutions Code as will promote the defendant’s speedy attainment 
31of mental competence, or be placed on outpatient status pursuant 
32to the provisions of Section 1370.4 and Title 15 (commencing with 
33Section 1600).
34(ii) However, if the action against the defendant who has been 
35found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony 
36offense specified in Section 290, the prosecutor shall determine 
37whether the defendant previously has been found mentally 
38incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this chapter on a charge of 
39a Section 290 offense, or whether the defendant is currently the 
40subject of a pending
				  Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a 
P317  1charge of a Section 290 offense. If either determination is made, 
2the prosecutor shall so notify the court and defendant in writing. 
3After this notification, and opportunity for hearing, the court shall 
4order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a state 
5hospital or other secure treatment facility for the care and treatment 
6of the developmentally disabled unless the court makes specific 
7findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide 
8more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose 
9a danger to the health and safety of others.
10(iii) If the action against the defendant who has been found 
11mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense 
12specified in Section 290 and the defendant has been denied bail 
13pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12 of Article I of the 
14California Constitution because the court has found, based upon 
15clear and convincing
				  evidence, a substantial likelihood that the 
16person’s release would result in great bodily harm to others, the 
17court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to 
18a state hospital for the care and treatment of the developmentally 
19disabled unless the court makes specific findings on the record 
20that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate 
21treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the 
22health and safety of others.
23(iv) The clerk of the court shall notify the Department of Justice 
24in writing of any finding of mental incompetence with respect to 
25a defendant who is subject to clause (ii) or (iii) for inclusion in his 
26or her state summary criminal history information.
27(C) Upon becoming competent, the court shall order that the 
28defendant be returned to the committing court pursuant to the 
29procedures set forth in paragraph (2) of subdivision
				  (a) of Section 
301372 or by another person designated by the court. The court shall 
31further determine conditions under which the person may be absent 
32from the placement for medical treatment, social visits, and other 
33similar activities. Required levels of supervision and security for 
34these activities shall be specified.
35(D) The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the regional 
36center director or designee and to the Director of Developmental 
37Services.
38(E) A defendant charged with a violent felony may not be placed 
39in a facility or delivered to a state hospital, developmental center, 
40or residential facility pursuant to this subdivision unless the facility, 
P318  1state hospital, developmental center, or residential facility has a 
2secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility, 
3and the judge determines that the public safety will be protected.
4(F) For purposes of this paragraph, “violent felony” means an 
5offense specified in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5.
6(G) A defendant charged with a violent felony may be placed 
7on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1370.4 or 1600, only 
8if the court finds that the placement will not pose a danger to the 
9health or safety of others.
10(H) As used in this section, “developmental disability” means 
11a disability that originates before an individual attains 18 years of 
12age, continues, or can be expected to continue, indefinitely and 
13constitutes a substantial handicap for the individual, and shall not 
14include other handicapping conditions that are solely physical in 
15nature. As defined by the Director of Developmental Services, in 
16consultation with the Superintendent of Public Instruction, this 
17term shall include
				  intellectual disability, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, 
18and autism. This term shall also include handicapping conditions 
19found to be closely related to intellectual disability or to require 
20treatment similar to that required for individuals with an intellectual 
21disability, but shall not include other handicapping conditions that 
22are solely physical in nature.
23(2) Prior to making the order directing that the defendant be 
24confined in a state hospital, developmental center, or other 
25residential facility, or be placed on outpatient status, the court shall 
26order the regional center director or designee to evaluate the 
27defendant and to submit to the court within 15 judicial days of the 
28order a written recommendation as to whether the defendant should 
29be committed to a state hospital or developmental center or to any 
30other available residential facility approved by the regional center 
31director. A person shall not be admitted to a state hospital,
32
				  developmental center, or other residential facility or accepted for 
33outpatient status under Section 1370.4 without having been 
34evaluated by the regional center director or designee.
35(3) When the court orders that the defendant be confined in a 
36state hospital or other secure treatment facility pursuant to clause 
37(ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1), the court shall 
38provide copies of the following documents which shall be taken 
39with the defendant to the state hospital or other secure treatment 
40facility where the defendant is to be confined:
P319 1(A) State summary criminal history information.
2(B) Any arrest reports prepared by the police department or 
3other law enforcement agency.
4(C) Records of a finding of mental incompetence pursuant to 
5this
				  chapter arising out of a complaint charging a felony offense 
6specified in Section 290 or a pending Section 1368 proceeding 
7arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.
8(4) When the defendant is committed to a residential facility 
9pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) or the 
10court makes the findings specified in clause (ii) or (iii) of 
11subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) to assign the defendant to a 
12facility other than a state hospital or other secure treatment facility, 
13the court shall order that notice be given to the appropriate law 
14enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the 
15site of the placement facility of a finding of mental incompetence 
16pursuant to this chapter arising out of a charge of a Section 290 
17offense.
18(5) (A) If the defendant is committed or transferred to a state 
19hospital or developmental center
				  pursuant to this section, the court 
20may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the executive 
21director of the state hospital or developmental center and the 
22regional center director that the defendant be transferred to a 
23residential facility approved by the regional center director, order 
24the defendant transferred to that facility. If the defendant is 
25committed or transferred to a residential facility approved by the 
26regional center director, the court may, upon receiving the written 
27recommendation of the regional center director, transfer the 
28defendant to a state hospital or developmental center or to another 
29residential facility approved by the regional center director.
30In the event of dismissal of the criminal charges before the 
31defendant recovers competence, the person shall be subject to the 
32applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 
33(commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and 
34Institutions Code) or to commitment or
				  detention pursuant to a 
35petition filed pursuant to Section 6502 of the Welfare and 
36Institutions Code.
37The defendant or prosecuting attorney may contest either kind 
38of order of transfer by filing a petition with the court for a hearing, 
39which shall be held if the court determines that sufficient grounds 
40exist. At the hearing, the prosecuting attorney or the defendant 
P320  1may present evidence bearing on the order of transfer. The court 
2shall use the same standards as used in conducting probation 
3revocation hearings pursuant to Section 1203.2.
4Prior to making an order for transfer under this section, the court 
5shall notify the defendant, the attorney of record for the defendant, 
6the prosecuting attorney, and the regional center director or 
7designee.
8(B) If the defendant is committed to a state hospital or secure 
9treatment facility pursuant to clause (ii) or (iii) of
				  subparagraph 
10(B) of paragraph (1) and is subsequently transferred to another 
11facility, copies of the documents specified in paragraph (3) shall 
12be taken with the defendant to the new facility. The transferring 
13facility shall also notify the appropriate law enforcement agency 
14or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the new facility 
15that the defendant is a person subject to clause (ii) or (iii) of 
16subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1).
17(b) (1) Within 90 days of admission of a person committed 
18pursuant to subdivision (a), the executive director or designee of 
19the state hospital, developmental center, or other facility to which 
20the defendant is committed, or the outpatient supervisor where the 
21defendant is placed on outpatient status, shall make a written report 
22to the committing court and the regional center director or a 
23designee concerning the defendant’s progress toward becoming 
24mentally competent. If the
				  defendant has not become mentally 
25competent, but the report discloses a substantial likelihood the 
26defendant will become mentally competent within the next 90 
27days, the court may order that the defendant shall remain in the 
28state hospital, developmental center, or other facility or on 
29outpatient status for that period of time. Within 150 days of an 
30admission made pursuant to subdivision (a) or if the defendant 
31becomes mentally competent, the executive director or designee 
32of the hospital or developmental center or person in charge of the 
33facility or the outpatient supervisor shall report to the court and 
34the regional center director or his or her designee regarding the 
35defendant’s progress toward becoming mentally competent. The 
36court shall provide to the prosecutor and defense counsel copies 
37of all reports under this section. If the report indicates that there 
38is no substantial likelihood that the defendant has become mentally 
39competent, the committing court shall order the defendant to be 
40returned to the
				  court for proceedings pursuant to paragraph (2) of 
P321  1subdivision (c). The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the 
2regional center director or designee and to the executive director 
3of the developmental center.
4(2) A defendant who has been committed or has been on 
5outpatient status for 18 months, and is still hospitalized or on 
6outpatient status, shall be returned to the committing court where 
7a hearing shall be held pursuant to the procedures set forth in 
8Section 1369. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the 
9regional center director or designee and the executive director of 
10the developmental center.
11(3) If it is determined by the court that no treatment for the 
12defendant’s mental impairment is being conducted, the defendant 
13shall be returned to the committing court. A copy of this order 
14shall be sent to the regional center director or designee and to the
15
				  executive director of the developmental center.
16(4) At each review by the court specified in this subdivision, 
17the court shall determine if the security level of housing and 
18treatment is appropriate and may make an order in accordance 
19with its determination.
20(c) (1) (A) At the end of three years from the date of 
21commitment or a period of commitment equal to the maximum 
22term of imprisonment provided by law for the most serious offense 
23charged in the information, indictment, or misdemeanor complaint, 
24whichever is shorter, a defendant who has not become mentally 
25competent shall be returned to the committing court.
26(B) The court shall notify the regional center director or designee 
27and the executive director of the developmental center of that 
28return and of any resulting court
				  orders.
29(2) In the event of dismissal of the criminal charges before the 
30defendant becomes mentally competent, the defendant shall be 
31subject to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short 
32Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the 
33Welfare and Institutions Code), or to commitment and detention 
34pursuant to a petition filed pursuant to Section 6502 of the Welfare 
35and Institutions Code. If it is found that the person is not subject 
36to commitment or detention pursuant to the applicable provision 
37of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with 
38Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code) 
39or to commitment or detention pursuant to a petition filed pursuant 
40to Section 6502 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the individual 
P322  1shall not be subject to further confinement pursuant to this article 
2and the criminal action remains subject to dismissal pursuant to 
3Section 1385. The court shall
				  notify the regional center director 
4and the executive director of the developmental center of any 
5dismissal.
6(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the 
7criminal action remains subject to dismissal pursuant to Section 
81385. If at any time prior to the maximum period of time allowed 
9for proceedings under this article, the regional center director 
10concludes that the behavior of the defendant related to the 
11defendant’s criminal offense has been eliminated during time spent 
12in court-ordered programs, the court may, upon recommendation 
13of the regional center director, dismiss the criminal charges. The 
14court shall transmit a copy of any order of dismissal to the regional 
15center director and to the executive director of the developmental 
16center.
17(e) For the purpose of this section, “secure treatment facility” 
18shall not include, except for state mental hospitals, state
19
				  developmental centers, and correctional treatment facilities, a 
20facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 
211250) of, Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1500) of, or Chapter 
223.2 (commencing with Section 1569) of, Division 2 of the Health 
23and Safety Code, or a community board and care facility.
Section 2602 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
(a) Except as provided in subdivision (b), no person 
26sentenced to imprisonment or housed in a state prison shall be 
27administered any psychiatric medication without his or her prior 
28informed consent.
29(b) If a psychiatrist determines that an inmate should be treated 
30with psychiatric medication, but the inmate does not consent, the 
31inmate may be involuntarily treated with the medication. Treatment 
32may be given on either a nonemergency basis as provided in 
33subdivision (c), or on an emergency or interim basis as provided 
34in subdivision (d).
35(c) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation may seek 
36to initiate involuntary medication on a nonemergency basis only 
37if all of the following conditions have been
				  met:
38(1) A psychiatrist has determined that the inmate has a serious 
39mental disorder.
P323  1(2) A psychiatrist has determined that, as a result of that mental 
2disorder, the inmate is gravely disabled and does not have the 
3capacity to refuse treatment with psychiatric medications or is a 
4danger to self or others.
5(3) A psychiatrist has prescribed one or more psychiatric 
6medications for the treatment of the inmate’s disorder, has 
7considered the risks, benefits, and treatment alternatives to 
8involuntary medication, and has determined that the treatment 
9alternatives to involuntary medication are unlikely to meet the 
10needs of the patient.
11(4) The inmate has been advised of the risks and benefits of, 
12and treatment alternatives to, the psychiatric medication and
				  refuses 
13or is unable to consent to the administration of the medication.
14(5) The inmate is provided a hearing before an administrative 
15law judge.
16(6) The inmate is provided counsel at least 21 days prior to the 
17hearing, unless emergency or interim medication is being 
18administered pursuant to subdivision (d), in which case the inmate 
19would receive expedited access to counsel. The hearing shall be 
20held not more than 30 days after the filing of the notice with the 
21Office of Administrative Hearings, unless counsel for the inmate 
22agrees to extend the date of the hearing.
23(7) The inmate and counsel are provided with written notice of 
24the hearing at least 21 days prior to the hearing, unless emergency 
25or interim medication is being administered pursuant to subdivision 
26(d), in which case the inmate would receive an expedited
				  hearing. 
27The written notice shall do all of the following:
28(A) Set forth the diagnosis, the factual basis for the diagnosis, 
29the basis upon which psychiatric medication is recommended, the 
30expected benefits of the medication, any potential side effects and 
31risks to the inmate from the medication, and any alternatives to 
32treatment with the medication.
33(B) Advise the inmate of the right to be present at the hearing, 
34the right to be represented by counsel at all stages of the 
35proceedings, the right to present evidence, and the right to 
36cross-examine witnesses. Counsel for the inmate shall have access 
37to all medical records and files of the inmate, but shall not have 
38access to the confidential section of the inmate’s central file which 
39contains materials unrelated to medical treatment.
P324  1(C) Inform the inmate of his or her
				  right to contest the finding 
2of an administrative law judge authorizing treatment with 
3involuntary medication by filing a petition for writ of 
4administrative mandamus pursuant to Section 1094.5 of the Code 
5of Civil Procedure, and his or her right to file a petition for writ 
6of habeas corpus with respect to any decision of the Department 
7of Corrections and Rehabilitation to continue treatment with 
8involuntary medication after the administrative law judge has 
9authorized treatment with involuntary medication.
10(8) An administrative law judge determines by clear and 
11convincing evidence that the inmate has a mental illness or 
12disorder, that as a result of that illness the inmate is gravely 
13disabled and lacks the capacity to consent to or refuse treatment 
14with psychiatric medications or is a danger to self or others if not 
15medicated, that there is no less intrusive alternative to involuntary 
16medication, and that the medication is in the inmate’s best
				  medical 
17interest. Failure of the department to provide timely or adequate 
18notice pursuant to this section shall be excused only upon a 
19showing of good cause and the absence of prejudice to the inmate. 
20In making this determination, the administrative law judge may 
21consider factors, including, but not limited to, the ability of the 
22inmate’s counsel to adequately prepare the case and to confer with 
23the inmate, the continuity of care, and, if applicable, the need for 
24protection of the inmate or institutional staff that would be 
25compromised by a procedural default.
26(9) The historical course of the inmate’s mental disorder, as 
27determined by available relevant information about the course of 
28the inmate’s mental disorder, shall be considered when it has direct 
29bearing on the determination of whether the inmate is a danger to 
30self or others, or is gravely disabled and incompetent to refuse 
31medication as the result of a mental disorder.
32(10) An inmate is entitled to file one motion for reconsideration 
33following a determination that he or she may receive involuntary 
34medication, and may seek a hearing to present new evidence, upon 
35good cause shown.
36(d) This section does not prohibit a physician from taking 
37appropriate action in an emergency. An emergency exists when 
38there is a sudden and marked change in an inmate’s mental 
39condition so that action is immediately necessary for the 
40preservation of life or the prevention of serious bodily harm to the 
P325  1inmate or others, and it is impractical, due to the seriousness of 
2the emergency, to first obtain informed consent. If psychiatric 
3medication is administered during an emergency, the medication 
4shall only be that which is required to treat the emergency condition 
5and shall be administered for only so long as the emergency 
6continues to exist. If the Department of Corrections
				  and 
7Rehabilitation’s clinicians identify a situation that jeopardizes the 
8inmate’s health or well-being as the result of a serious mental 
9illness, and necessitates the continuation of medication beyond 
10the initial 72 hours pending the full mental health hearing, the 
11department shall give notice to the inmate and his or her counsel 
12of the department’s intention to seek an ex parte order to allow the 
13continuance of medication pending the full hearing. The notice 
14shall be served upon the inmate and counsel at the same time the 
15inmate is given the written notice that the involuntary medication 
16proceedings are being initiated and is appointed counsel as 
17provided in subdivision (c). The order may be issued ex parte upon 
18a showing that in the absence of the medication the emergency 
19conditions are likely to recur. The request for an ex parte order 
20shall be supported by an affidavit from the psychiatrist showing 
21specific facts. The inmate and the inmate’s appointed counsel shall 
22have two business days to respond to
				  the department’s ex parte 
23request to continue interim medication, and may present facts 
24supported by an affidavit in opposition to the department’s request. 
25An administrative law judge shall review the ex parte request and 
26shall have three business days to determine the merits of the 
27department’s request for an ex parte order. If an order is issued, 
28the psychiatrist may continue the administration of the medication 
29until the hearing described in paragraph (5) of subdivision (c) is 
30held.
31(1) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall file 
32with the Office of Administrative Hearings, and serve on the inmate 
33and his or her counsel, the written notice described in paragraph 
34(7) of subdivision (c) within 72 hours of commencing medication 
35pursuant to this subdivision, unless either of the following occurs:
36(A) The inmate gives informed consent to continue the 
37medication.
38(B) A psychiatrist determines that the psychiatric medication 
39is not necessary and administration of the medication is 
40discontinued.
P326  1(2) If medication is being administered pursuant to this 
2subdivision, the hearing described in paragraph (5) of subdivision 
3(c) shall commence within 21 days of the filing and service of the 
4notice, unless counsel for an inmate agrees to a different period 
5of time.
6(3) With the exception of the timeline provisions specified in 
7paragraphs (1) and (2) for providing notice and commencement 
8of the hearing pursuant to the conditions specified in this 
9subdivision, the inmate shall be entitled to and be given the same 
10due process protections as specified in subdivision (c). The 
11department shall prove the same elements supporting the 
12involuntary administration of psychiatric medication and the
13
				  administrative law judge shall be required to make the same 
14findings described in subdivision (c).
15(e) The determination that an inmate may receive involuntary 
16medication shall be valid for one year from the date of the 
17determination, regardless of whether the inmate subsequently gives 
18his or her informed consent.
19(f) If a determination has been made to involuntarily medicate 
20an inmate pursuant to subdivision (c) or (d), the medication shall 
21be discontinued one year after the date of that determination, unless 
22the inmate gives his or her informed consent to the administration 
23of the medication, or unless a new determination is made pursuant 
24to the procedures set forth in subdivision (g).
25(g) To renew an existing order allowing involuntary medication, 
26the department shall file with the Office of Administrative
27
				  Hearings, and shall serve on the inmate and his or her counsel, a 
28written notice indicating the department’s intent to renew the 
29existing involuntary medication order.
30(1) The request to renew the order shall be filed and served no 
31later than 21 days prior to the expiration of the current order 
32authorizing involuntary medication.
33(2) The inmate shall be entitled to, and shall be given, the same 
34due process protections as specified in subdivision (c).
35(3) Renewal orders shall be valid for one year from the date of 
36the hearing.
37(4) An order renewing an existing order shall be granted based 
38on clear and convincing evidence that the inmate has a serious 
39mental disorder that requires treatment with psychiatric medication, 
40and that, but for the medication,
				  the inmate would revert to the 
P327  1behavior that was the basis for the prior order authorizing 
2involuntary medication, coupled with evidence that the inmate 
3lacks insight regarding his or her need for the medication, such 
4that it is unlikely that the inmate would be able to manage his or 
5her own medication and treatment regimen. No new acts need be 
6alleged or proven.
7(5) If the department wishes to add a basis to an existing order, 
8the department shall give the inmate and the inmate’s counsel 
9notice in advance of the hearing via a renewal notice or 
10supplemental petition. Within the renewal notice or supplemental 
11petition, the department shall specify what additional basis is being 
12alleged and what qualifying conduct within the past year supports 
13that additional basis. The department shall prove the additional 
14basis and conduct by clear and convincing evidence at a hearing 
15as specified in subdivision (c).
16(6) The hearing on any petition to renew an order for involuntary 
17medication shall be conducted prior to the expiration of the current 
18order.
19(h) Pursuant to Section 5058, the Department of Corrections 
20and Rehabilitation shall adopt regulations to fully implement this 
21section.
22(i) In the event of a conflict between the provisions of this 
23section and the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 
24(commencing with Section 11400) of Part 1 of Division 3 of the 
25Government Code), this section shall control.
Section 3000.08 of the Penal Code, as amended by 
27Section 35 of Chapter 43 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to 
28read:
(a) Persons released from state prison prior to or on 
30or after July 1, 2013, after serving a prison term or, whose sentence 
31has been deemed served pursuant to Section 2900.5, for any of the 
32following crimes shall be subject to parole supervision by the 
33Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and the jurisdiction 
34of the court in the county where the parolee is released or resides 
35for the purpose of hearing petitions to revoke parole and impose 
36a term of custody:
37(1) A serious felony as described in subdivision (c) of Section 
381192.7.
39(2) A violent felony as described in subdivision (c) of Section 
40667.5.
P328  1(3) A crime for which the
				  person was sentenced pursuant to 
2paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 667 or paragraph (2) 
3of subdivision (c) of Section 1170.12.
4(4) Any crime where the person eligible for release from prison 
5is classified as a High Risk Sex Offender.
6(5) Any crime where the person is required, as a condition of 
7parole, to undergo treatment by the State Department of State 
8Hospitals pursuant to Section 2962.
9(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, all other 
10offenders released from prison shall be placed on postrelease 
11supervision pursuant to Title 2.05 (commencing with Section 
123450).
13(c) At any time during the period of parole of a person subject 
14to this section, if any parole agent or peace officer has probable 
15cause to believe that the parolee is
				  violating any term or condition 
16of his or her parole, the agent or officer may, without warrant or 
17other process and at any time until the final disposition of the case, 
18arrest the person and bring him or her before the court, or the court 
19may, in its discretion, issue a warrant for that person’s arrest 
20pursuant to Section 1203.2.
21(d) Upon review of the alleged violation and a finding of good 
22cause that the parolee has committed a violation of law or violated 
23his or her conditions of parole, the supervising parole agency may 
24impose additional and appropriate conditions of supervision, 
25including rehabilitation and treatment services and appropriate 
26incentives for compliance, and impose immediate, structured, and 
27intermediate sanctions for parole violations, including flash 
28incarceration in a county jail. Periods of “flash incarceration,” as 
29defined in subdivision (e), are encouraged as one method of 
30punishment for violations of a parolee’s
				  conditions of parole. 
31Nothing in this section is intended to preclude referrals to a reentry 
32court pursuant to Section 3015.
33(e) “Flash incarceration” is a period of detention in a county 
34jail due to a violation of a parolee’s conditions of parole. The length 
35of the detention period can range between one and 10 consecutive 
36days. Shorter, but if necessary more frequent, periods of detention 
37for violations of a parolee’s conditions of parole shall appropriately 
38punish a parolee while preventing the disruption in a work or home 
39establishment that typically arises from longer periods of detention.
P329  1(f) If the supervising parole agency has determined, following 
2application of its assessment processes, that intermediate sanctions 
3up to and including flash incarceration are not appropriate, the 
4supervising parole agency shall, pursuant to Section 1203.2, 
5petition the court in the county
				  in which the parolee is being 
6supervised to revoke parole. At any point during the process 
7initiated pursuant to this section, a parolee may waive, in writing, 
8his or her right to counsel, admit the parole violation, waive a court 
9hearing, and accept the proposed parole modification or revocation. 
10The petition shall include a written report that contains additional 
11information regarding the petition, including the relevant terms 
12and conditions of parole, the circumstances of the alleged 
13underlying violation, the history and background of the parolee, 
14and any recommendations. The Judicial Council shall adopt forms 
15and rules of court to establish uniform statewide procedures to 
16implement this subdivision, including the minimum contents of 
17supervision agency reports. Upon a finding that the person has 
18violated the conditions of parole, the court shall have authority to 
19do any of the following:
20(1) Return the person to parole supervision with
				  modifications 
21of conditions, if appropriate, including a period of incarceration 
22in a county jail.
23(2) Revoke parole and order the person to confinement in a 
24county jail.
25(3) Refer the person to a reentry court pursuant to Section 3015 
26or other evidence-based program in the court’s discretion.
27(g) Confinement pursuant to paragraphs (1) and (2) of 
28subdivision (f) shall not exceed a period of 180 days in a county 
29jail.
30(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in any case 
31where Section 3000.1 or paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section 
323000 applies to a person who is on parole and the court determines 
33that the person has committed a violation of law or violated his or 
34her conditions of parole, the person on parole shall be remanded 
35to the custody
				  of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation 
36and the jurisdiction of the Board of Parole Hearings for the purpose 
37of future parole consideration.
38(i) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), any of the following persons 
39released from state prison shall be subject to the jurisdiction of, 
40and parole supervision by, the Department of Corrections and 
P330  1Rehabilitation for a period of parole up to three years or the parole 
2term the person was subject to at the time of the commission of 
3the offense, whichever is greater:
4(1) The person is required to register as a sex offender pursuant 
5to Chapter 5.5 (commencing with Section 290) of Title 9 of Part 
61, and was subject to a period of parole exceeding three years at 
7the time he or she committed a felony for which he or she was 
8convicted and subsequently sentenced to state prison.
9(2) The person was subject to parole for life pursuant to Section 
103000.1 at the time of the commission of the offense that resulted 
11in a conviction and state prison sentence.
12(j) Parolees subject to this section who have a pending 
13adjudication for a parole violation on July 1, 2013, shall be subject 
14to the jurisdiction of the Board of Parole Hearings. Parole 
15revocation proceedings conducted by the Board of Parole Hearings 
16prior to July 1, 2013, if reopened on or after July 1, 2013, shall be 
17subject to the jurisdiction of the Board of Parole Hearings.
18(k) Except as described in subdivision (c), any person who is 
19convicted of a felony that requires community supervision and 
20who still has a period of state parole to serve shall discharge from 
21state parole at the time of release to community supervision.
22(l) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2013.
Section 3060.7 of the Penal Code, as added by 
24Section 48 of Chapter 43 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to 
25read:
(a) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, the supervising 
27parole agency shall notify any person released on parole or 
28postrelease community supervision pursuant to Title 2.05 
29(commencing with Section 3450) of Part 3 who has been classified 
30by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation as included 
31within the highest control or risk classification that he or she shall 
32be required to report to his or her assigned parole officer or 
33designated local supervising agency within two days of release 
34from the state prison.
35(2) This section shall not prohibit the supervising parole agency 
36or local supervising agency from requiring any person released on 
37parole or postrelease community supervision to report to his or 
38her assigned parole officer within a
				  time period that is less than 
39two days from the time of release.
P331  1(b) The supervising parole agency, within 24 hours of a parolee’s 
2failure to report as required by this section, shall issue a written 
3order suspending the parole of that parolee, pending a hearing 
4before the Board of Parole Hearings or the court, as applicable, 
5and shall request that a warrant be issued for the parolee’s arrest 
6pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 3000.08.
7(c) Upon the issuance of an arrest warrant for a parolee who 
8has been classified within the highest control or risk classification, 
9the assigned parole officer shall continue to carry the parolee on 
10his or her regular caseload and shall continue to search for the 
11parolee’s whereabouts.
12(d) With regard to any inmate subject to this section, the 
13Department of Corrections and
				  Rehabilitation shall release an 
14inmate sentenced prior to June 27, 2012, one or two days before 
15his or her scheduled release date if the inmate’s release date falls 
16on the day before a holiday or weekend.
17(e) With regard to any inmate subject to this section, the 
18Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall release an 
19inmate one or two days after his or her scheduled release date if 
20the release date falls on the day before a holiday or weekend.
21(f) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2013.
Section 4024.2 of the Penal Code is amended to 
23read:
(a) Notwithstanding any other law, the board of 
25supervisors of any county may authorize the sheriff or other official 
26in charge of county correctional facilities to offer a voluntary 
27program under which any person committed to the facility may 
28participate in a work release program pursuant to criteria described 
29in subdivision (b), in which one day of participation will be in lieu 
30of one day of confinement.
31(b) The criteria for a work release program are the following:
32(1) The work release program shall consist of any of the 
33following:
34(A) Manual labor to improve or maintain levees or public 
35facilities, including, but not limited to,
				  streets, parks, and schools.
36(B) Manual labor in support of nonprofit organizations, as 
37approved by the sheriff or other official in charge of the 
38correctional facilities. As a condition of assigning participants of 
39a work release program to perform manual labor in support of 
40nonprofit organizations pursuant to this section, the board of 
P332  1supervisors shall obtain workers’ compensation insurance which 
2shall be adequate to cover work-related injuries incurred by those 
3participants, in accordance with Section 3363.5 of the Labor Code.
4(C) Performance of graffiti cleanup for local governmental 
5entities, including participation in a graffiti abatement program as 
6defined in subdivision (f) of Section 594, as approved by the sheriff 
7or other official in charge of the correctional facilities.
8(D) Performance of weed and
				  rubbish abatement on public and 
9private property pursuant to Chapter 13 (commencing with Section 
1039501) of Part 2 of Division 3 of Title 4 of the Government Code, 
11or Part 5 (commencing with Section 14875) or Part 6 (commencing 
12with Section 14930) of Division 12 of the Health and Safety Code, 
13as approved by the sheriff or other official in charge of the 
14correctional facilities.
15(E) Performance of house repairs or yard services for senior 
16citizens and the performance of repairs to senior centers through 
17contact with local senior service organizations, as approved by the 
18sheriff or other official in charge of the correctional facilities. 
19Where a work release participant has been assigned to this task, 
20the sheriff or other official shall agree upon in advance with the 
21senior service organization about the type of services to be rendered 
22by the participant and the extent of contact permitted between the 
23recipients of these services and the
				  participant.
24(F) Any person who is not able to perform manual labor as 
25specified in this paragraph because of a medical condition, physical 
26disability, or age, may participate in a work release program 
27involving any other type of public sector work that is designated 
28and approved by the sheriff or other official in charge of county 
29correctional facilities.
30(2) The sheriff or other official may permit a participant in a 
31work release program to receive work release credit for documented 
32participation in educational programs, vocational programs, 
33substance abuse programs, life skills programs, or parenting 
34programs. Participation in these programs shall be considered in 
35lieu of performing labor in a work release program, with eight 
36work-related hours to equal one day of custody credit.
37(3) The work release program shall
				  be under the direction of a 
38responsible person appointed by the sheriff or other official in 
39charge.
P333  1(4) The hours of labor to be performed pursuant to this section 
2shall be uniform for all persons committed to a facility in a county 
3and may be determined by the sheriff or other official in charge 
4of county correctional facilities, and each day shall be a minimum 
5of 8 and a maximum of 10 hours, in accordance with the normal 
6working hours of county employees assigned to supervise the 
7programs. However, reasonable accommodation may be made for 
8participation in a program under paragraph (2).
9As used in this section, “nonprofit organizations” means 
10organizations established or operated for the benefit of the public 
11or in support of a significant public interest, as set forth in Section 
12501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code. Organizations established 
13or operated for the primary purpose of benefiting their
				  own 
14memberships are excluded.
15(c) The board of supervisors may prescribe reasonable rules and 
16regulations under which a work release program is operated and 
17may provide that participants wear clothing of a distinctive 
18character while performing the work. As a condition of 
19participating in a work release program, a person shall give his or 
20her promise to appear for work or assigned activity by signing a 
21notice to appear before the sheriff or at the education, vocational, 
22or substance abuse program at a time and place specified in the 
23notice and shall sign an agreement that the sheriff may immediately 
24retake the person into custody to serve the balance of his or her 
25sentence if the person fails to appear for the program at the time 
26and place agreed to, does not perform the work or activity assigned, 
27or for any other reason is no longer a fit subject for release under 
28this section. A copy of the notice shall be delivered to the person 
29and a copy
				  shall be retained by the sheriff. Any person who 
30willfully violates his or her written promise to appear at the time 
31and place specified in the notice is guilty of a misdemeanor.
32Whenever a peace officer has reasonable cause to believe the 
33person has failed to appear at the time and place specified in the 
34notice or fails to appear or work at the time and place agreed to or 
35has failed to perform the work assigned, the peace officer may, 
36without a warrant, retake the person into custody, or the court may 
37issue an arrest warrant for the retaking of the person into custody, 
38to complete the remainder of the original sentence. A peace officer 
39may not retake a person into custody under this subdivision, 
40without a warrant for arrest, unless the officer has a written order 
P334  1to do so, signed by the sheriff or other person in charge of the 
2program, that describes with particularity the person to be retaken.
3(d) This section does not require the sheriff or other official in 
4charge to assign a person to a program pursuant to this section if 
5it appears from the record that the person has refused to 
6satisfactorily perform as assigned or has not satisfactorily complied 
7with the reasonable rules and regulations governing the assignment 
8or any other order of the court.
9A person shall be eligible for work release under this section 
10only if the sheriff or other official in charge concludes that the 
11person is a fit subject therefor.
12(e) The board of supervisors may prescribe a program 
13administrative fee, not to exceed the pro rata cost of administration, 
14to be paid by each person according to his or her ability to pay.
Section 4115.55 of the Penal Code is amended to 
16read:
(a) Upon agreement with the sheriff or director of 
18the county department of corrections, a board of supervisors may 
19enter into a contract with other public agencies to provide housing 
20for inmates sentenced to a county jail in community correctional 
21facilities created pursuant to Article 1.5 (commencing with Section 
222910) of Chapter 7 of Title 1 or Chapter 9.5 (commencing with 
23Section 6250) of Title 7.
24(b) Facilities operated pursuant to agreements entered into under 
25subdivision (a) shall comply with the minimum standards for local 
26detention facilities as provided by Chapter 1 (commencing with 
27Section 3000) of Division 3 of Title 15 of the California Code of 
28Regulations.
Section 5072 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the 
31Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and the State 
32Department of Health Care Services may develop a process to 
33maximize federal financial participation for the provision of acute 
34inpatient hospital services rendered to individuals who, but for 
35their institutional status as inmates, are otherwise eligible for 
36Medi-Cal pursuant to Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 14000) 
37of Part 3 of Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code or a 
38Low Income Health Program (LIHP) pursuant to Part 3.6 
39(commencing with Section 15909) of Division 9 of the Welfare 
40and Institutions Code.
P335  1(b) Federal reimbursement for acute inpatient hospital services 
2for inmates enrolled in Medi-Cal shall occur through the State 
3Department of
				  Health Care Services and federal reimbursement 
4for acute inpatient hospital services for inmates not enrolled in 
5Medi-Cal but who are eligible for a LIHP shall occur through a 
6county LIHP.
7(c) (1) The Secretary of the Department of Corrections and 
8Rehabilitation, in conjunction with the State Department of Health 
9Care Services, shall develop a process to claim federal financial 
10participation and to reimburse the Department of Corrections and 
11Rehabilitation for the federal share of the allowable Medicaid cost 
12provision of acute inpatient hospital services rendered to inmates 
13according to this section and for any administrative costs incurred 
14in support of those services.
15(2) Public or community hospitals shall invoice the Department 
16of Corrections and Rehabilitation to obtain reimbursement for 
17acute inpatient hospital services in accordance with contracted
18
				  rates of reimbursement, or if no contract is in place, the rates 
19pursuant to Section 5023.5. The Department of Corrections and 
20Rehabilitation shall reimburse a public or community hospital for 
21the delivery of acute inpatient hospital services rendered to an 
22inmate pursuant to this section. For individuals eligible for 
23Medi-Cal pursuant to this section, the Department of Corrections 
24and Rehabilitation shall submit a quarterly invoice to the State 
25Department of Health Care Services for claiming federal 
26participation at the Medi-Cal rate for acute inpatient hospital 
27services. For enrollees in the LIHP, the Department of Corrections 
28and Rehabilitation shall submit a quarterly invoice to the county 
29of last legal residence pursuant to Section 14053.7 of the Welfare 
30and Institutions Code. The county shall submit the invoice to the 
31State Department of Health Care Services for claiming federal 
32financial participation for acute inpatient hospital services for 
33individuals made eligible pursuant to this section,
				  pursuant to 
34Section 14053.7 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and pursuant 
35to the process developed in subdivision (b). The State Department 
36of Health Care Services shall claim federal participation for eligible 
37services for LIHP enrolled inmates at the rate paid by the 
38Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation. The State 
39Department of Health Care Services and counties shall remit funds 
40received for federal participation to the Department of Corrections 
P336  1and Rehabilitation for allowable costs incurred as a result of 
2delivering acute inpatient hospital services allowable under this 
3section.
4(3) The county LIHPs shall not experience any additional net 
5expenditures of county funds due to the provision of services under 
6this section.
7(4) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall 
8reimburse the State Department of Health Care Services and 
9counties for administrative
				  costs that are not reimbursed by the 
10federal government.
11(5) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall 
12reimburse the State Department of Health Care Services for any 
13disallowance that is required to be returned to the Centers for 
14Medicare and Medicaid Services for any litigation costs incurred 
15due to the implementation of this section.
16(d) (1) The state shall indemnify and hold harmless participating 
17entities that operate a LIHP, including all counties, and all counties 
18that operate in a consortium that participates as a LIHP, against 
19any and all losses, including, but not limited to, claims, demands, 
20liabilities, court costs, judgments, or obligations, due to the 
21implementation of this section as directed by the secretary and the 
22State Department of Health Care Services.
23(2) The
				  State Department of Health Care Services may at its 
24discretion require a county, as a condition of participation as a 
25LIHP, to enroll an eligible inmate into its LIHP if the county is 
26the inmate’s county of last legal residence.
27(3) The county LIHPs shall be held harmless by the state for 
28any disallowance or deferral if federal action is taken due to the 
29implementation of this section in accord with the state’s policies, 
30directions, and requirements.
31(e) (1) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, in 
32conjunction with the State Department of Health Care Services, 
33shall develop a process to facilitate eligibility determinations for 
34individuals who may be eligible for Medi-Cal or a LIHP pursuant 
35to this section and Section 14053.7 of the Welfare and Institutions 
36Code.
37(2) The Department
				  of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall 
38assist inmates in completing either the Medi-Cal or LIHP 
39application as appropriate and shall forward that application to the 
40State Department of Health Care Services for processing.
P337  1(3) Notwithstanding any other state law, and only to the extent 
2that federal law allows and federal financial participation is 
3available, for the limited purpose of implementing this section, 
4the department or its designee is authorized to act on behalf of an 
5inmate for purposes of applying for or determinations of Medi-Cal 
6or LIHP eligibility.
7(f) (1) This section does not restrict or limit the eligibility or 
8alter county responsibility for payment of any service delivered 
9to a parolee who has been released from detention or incarceration 
10and now resides in a county that participates in the LIHP. If 
11otherwise eligible for the county’s
				  LIHP, the LIHP shall enroll the 
12parolee.
13(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), at the option of the state, 
14for enrolled parolees who have been released from detention or 
15incarceration and now reside in a county that participates in a 
16LIHP, the LIHP shall reimburse providers for the delivery of 
17services which are otherwise the responsibility of the state to 
18provide. Payment for these medical services, including both the 
19state and federal shares of reimbursement, shall be included as 
20part of the reimbursement process described in paragraph (1) of 
21subdivision (c).
22(3) Enrollment of individuals in a LIHP under this subdivision 
23shall be subject to any enrollment limitations described in 
24subdivision (h) of Section 15910 of the Welfare and Institutions 
25Code.
26(g) The department shall be responsible to the LIHP for the
27
				  nonfederal share of any reimbursement made for the provision of 
28acute inpatient hospital services rendered to inmates pursuant to 
29this section.
30(h) Reimbursement pursuant to this section shall be limited to 
31those acute inpatient hospital services for which federal financial 
32participation pursuant to Title XIX of the federal Social Security 
33Act is allowed.
34(i) This section shall have no force or effect if there is a final 
35judicial determination made by any state or federal court that is 
36not appealed, or by a court of appellate jurisdiction that is not 
37further appealed, in any action by any party, or a final 
38determination by the administrator of the federal Centers for 
39Medicare and Medicaid Services, that limits or affects the 
P338  1department’s authority to select the hospitals used to provide 
2inpatient hospital services to inmates.
3(j) It is the intent of the Legislature that the implementation of 
4this section will result in state General Fund savings for the funding 
5of acute inpatient hospital services provided to inmates along with 
6any related administrative costs.
7(k) Any agreements entered into under this section for Medi-Cal 
8or a LIHP to provide for reimbursement of acute inpatient hospital 
9services and administrative expenditures as described in 
10subdivision (c) shall not be subject to Part 2 (commencing with 
11Section 10100) of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code.
12(l) This section shall be implemented in a manner that is 
13consistent with federal Medicaid law and regulations. The Director 
14of the State Department of Health Care Services shall seek any 
15federal approvals necessary for the implementation of this section. 
16This section shall be implemented only when and to the extent that 
17any
				  necessary federal approval is obtained, and only to the extent 
18that existing levels of federal financial participation are not 
19otherwise jeopardized.
20(m) To the extent that the Director of the State Department of 
21Health Care Services determines that existing levels of federal 
22financial participation are jeopardized, this section shall no longer 
23be implemented.
24(n) Notwithstanding Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 
2511340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, 
26the State Department of Health Care Services may, without taking 
27any further regulatory action, implement this section by means of 
28all-county letters, provider bulletins, facility letters, or similar 
29instructions.
30(o) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the 
31following meanings:
32(1) The term “county of last legal residence” means the county 
33in which the inmate resided at the time of arrest that resulted in 
34conviction and incarceration in a state prison facility.
35(2) The term “inmate” means an adult who is involuntarily 
36residing in a state prison facility operated, administered, or 
37regulated, directly or indirectly, by the department.
38(3) During the existence of the receivership established in United 
39States District Court for the Northern District of California, Case 
40No. C01-1351 TEH, Plata v. Schwarzenegger, references in this 
P339  1section to the “secretary” shall mean the receiver appointed in that 
2action, who shall implement portions of this section that would 
3otherwise be within the secretary’s responsibility.
Section 6030 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
(a) The Board of State and Community Corrections shall 
6establish minimum standards for local correctional facilities. The 
7board shall review those standards biennially and make any 
8appropriate revisions.
9(b) The standards shall include, but not be limited to, the 
10following areas: health and sanitary conditions, fire and life safety, 
11security, rehabilitation programs, recreation, treatment of persons 
12confined in local correctional facilities, and personnel training.
13(c) The standards shall require that at least one person on duty 
14at the facility is knowledgeable in the area of fire and life safety 
15procedures.
16(d) The standards shall also
				  include requirements relating to the 
17acquisition, storage, labeling, packaging, and dispensing of drugs.
18(e) The standards shall require that inmates who are received 
19by the facility while they are pregnant be notified, orally or in 
20writing, of and provided all of the following:
21(1) A balanced, nutritious diet approved by a doctor.
22(2) Prenatal and post partum information and health care, 
23including, but not limited to, access to necessary vitamins as 
24recommended by a doctor.
25(3) Information pertaining to childbirth education and infant 
26care.
27(4) A dental cleaning while in a state facility.
28(f) The standards shall provide that
				  a woman known to be 
29pregnant or in recovery after delivery shall not be restrained, except 
30as provided in Section 3407. The board shall develop standards 
31regarding the restraint of pregnant women at the next biennial 
32review of the standards after the enactment of the act amending 
33this subdivision and shall review the individual facility’s 
34compliance with the standards.
35(g) In establishing minimum standards, the board shall seek the 
36advice of the following:
37(1) For health and sanitary conditions:
38The State Department of Public Health, physicians, psychiatrists, 
39local public health officials, and other interested persons.
40(2) For fire and life safety:
P340  1The State Fire Marshal, local fire officials, and other interested 
2persons.
3(3) For security, rehabilitation programs, recreation, and 
4treatment of persons confined in correctional facilities:
5The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, state and 
6local juvenile justice commissions, state and local correctional 
7officials, experts in criminology and penology, and other interested 
8persons.
9(4) For personnel training:
10The Commission on Peace Officer Standards and Training, 
11psychiatrists, experts in criminology and penology, the Department 
12of Corrections and Rehabilitation, state and local correctional 
13officials, and other interested persons.
14(5) For female inmates and pregnant inmates in local adult and 
15juvenile facilities:
16The California State Sheriffs’ Association
				  and Chief Probation 
17Officers’ Association of California, and other interested persons.
Section 11165.7 of the Penal Code is amended to 
19read:
(a) As used in this article, “mandated reporter” is 
21defined as any of the following:
22(1) A teacher.
23(2) An instructional aide.
24(3) A teacher’s aide or teacher’s assistant employed by a public 
25or private school.
26(4) A classified employee of a public school.
27(5) An administrative officer or supervisor of child welfare and 
28attendance, or a certificated pupil personnel employee of a public 
29or private school.
30(6) An administrator of a public or private day camp.
31(7) An administrator or employee of a public or private youth 
32center, youth recreation program, or youth organization.
33(8) An administrator or employee of a public or private 
34organization whose duties require direct contact and supervision 
35of children.
36(9) An employee of a county office of education or the State 
37Department of Education whose duties bring the employee into 
38contact with children on a regular basis.
39(10) A licensee, an administrator, or an employee of a licensed 
40community care or child day care facility.
P341 1(11) A Head Start program teacher.
2(12) A licensing worker or licensing evaluator employed
				  by a 
3licensing agency, as defined in Section 11165.11.
4(13) A public assistance worker.
5(14) An employee of a child care institution, including, but not 
6limited to, foster parents, group home personnel, and personnel of 
7residential care facilities.
8(15) A social worker, probation officer, or parole officer.
9(16) An employee of a school district police or security 
10department.
11(17) A person who is an administrator or presenter of, or a 
12counselor in, a child abuse prevention program in a public or 
13private school.
14(18) A district attorney investigator, inspector, or local child 
15support agency caseworker, unless the investigator,
				  inspector, or 
16caseworker is working with an attorney appointed pursuant to 
17Section 317 of the Welfare and Institutions Code to represent a 
18minor.
19(19) A peace officer, as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing 
20with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2, who is not otherwise 
21described in this section.
22(20) A firefighter, except for volunteer firefighters.
23(21) A physician and surgeon, psychiatrist, psychologist, dentist, 
24resident, intern, podiatrist, chiropractor, licensed nurse, dental 
25hygienist, optometrist, marriage and family therapist, clinical social 
26worker, professional clinical counselor, or any other person who 
27is currently licensed under Division 2 (commencing with Section 
28500) of the Business and Professions Code.
29(22) An emergency medical technician
				  I or II, paramedic, or 
30other person certified pursuant to Division 2.5 (commencing with 
31Section 1797) of the Health and Safety Code.
32(23) A psychological assistant registered pursuant to Section 
332913 of the Business and Professions Code.
34(24) A marriage and family therapist trainee, as defined in 
35subdivision (c) of Section 4980.03 of the Business and Professions 
36Code.
37(25) An unlicensed marriage and family therapist intern 
38registered under Section 4980.44 of the Business and Professions 
39Code.
P342  1(26) A state or county public health employee who treats a minor 
2for venereal disease or any other condition.
3(27) A coroner.
4(28) A
				  medical examiner or other person who performs 
5autopsies.
6(29) A commercial film and photographic print or image 
7processor as specified in subdivision (e) of Section 11166. As used 
8in this article, “commercial film and photographic print or image 
9processor” means a person who develops exposed photographic 
10film into negatives, slides, or prints, or who makes prints from 
11negatives or slides, or who prepares, publishes, produces, develops, 
12duplicates, or prints any representation of information, data, or an 
13image, including, but not limited to, any film, filmstrip, photograph, 
14negative, slide, photocopy, videotape, video laser disc, computer 
15hardware, computer software, computer floppy disk, data storage 
16medium, CD-ROM, computer-generated equipment, or 
17computer-generated image, for compensation. The term includes 
18any employee of that person; it does not include a person who 
19develops film or makes prints or images for a public agency.
20(30) A child visitation monitor. As used in this article, “child 
21visitation monitor” means a person who, for financial 
22compensation, acts as a monitor of a visit between a child and 
23another person when the monitoring of that visit has been ordered 
24by a court of law.
25(31) An animal control officer or humane society officer. For 
26the purposes of this article, the following terms have the following 
27meanings:
28(A) “Animal control officer” means a person employed by a 
29city, county, or city and county for the purpose of enforcing animal 
30control laws or regulations.
31(B) “Humane society officer” means a person appointed or 
32employed by a public or private entity as a humane officer who is 
33qualified pursuant to Section 14502 or 14503 of the Corporations 
34Code.
35(32) A clergy member, as specified in subdivision (d) of Section 
3611166. As used in this article, “clergy member” means a priest, 
37minister, rabbi, religious practitioner, or similar functionary of a 
38church, temple, or recognized denomination or organization.
39(33) Any custodian of records of a clergy member, as specified 
40in this section and subdivision (d) of Section 11166.
P343  1(34) An employee of any police department, county sheriff’s 
2department, county probation department, or county welfare 
3department.
4(35) An employee or volunteer of a Court Appointed Special 
5Advocate program, as defined in Rule 5.655 of the California Rules 
6of Court.
7(36) A custodial officer, as defined in Section 831.5.
8(37) A person providing services to a minor child under Section 
912300 or 12300.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
10(38) An alcohol and drug counselor. As used in this article, an 
11“alcohol and drug counselor” is a person providing counseling, 
12therapy, or other clinical services for a state licensed or certified 
13drug, alcohol, or drug and alcohol treatment program. However, 
14alcohol or drug abuse, or both alcohol and drug abuse, is not, in 
15and of itself, a sufficient basis for reporting child abuse or neglect.
16(39) A clinical counselor trainee, as defined in subdivision (g) 
17of Section 4999.12 of the Business and Professions Code.
18(40) A clinical counselor intern registered under Section 4999.42 
19of the Business and Professions Code.
20(41) An employee or administrator of a public or private 
21postsecondary institution, whose duties bring the administrator or 
22employee into contact with children on a regular basis, or who 
23supervises those whose duties bring the administrator or employee 
24into contact with children on a regular basis, as to child abuse or 
25neglect occurring on that institution’s premises or at an official 
26activity of, or program conducted by, the institution. Nothing in 
27this paragraph shall be construed as altering the lawyer-client 
28privilege as set forth in Article 3 (commencing with Section 950) 
29of Chapter 4 of Division 8 of the Evidence Code.
30(42) An athletic coach, athletic administrator, or athletic director 
31employed by any public or private school that provides any 
32combination of instruction for kindergarten, or grades 1 to 12, 
33inclusive.
34(43) (A) A commercial computer technician as specified in 
35subdivision (e) of Section 11166. As used in this article, 
36“commercial computer technician” means a person who works for 
37a company that is in the business of repairing, installing, or 
38otherwise servicing a computer or computer component, including, 
39but not limited to, a computer part, device, memory storage or 
40recording mechanism, auxiliary storage recording or memory 
P344  1capacity, or any other material relating to the operation and 
2maintenance of a computer or computer network system, for a fee. 
3An employer who provides an electronic communications service 
4or a remote computing service to the public shall be deemed to 
5comply with this article if that employer complies with Section 
62258A of Title 18 of the United States Code.
7(B) An employer of a commercial computer technician may 
8implement internal procedures for facilitating reporting consistent 
9with this
				  article. These procedures may direct employees who are 
10mandated reporters under this paragraph to report materials 
11described in subdivision (e) of Section 11166 to an employee who 
12is designated by the employer to receive the reports. An employee 
13who is designated to receive reports under this subparagraph shall 
14be a commercial computer technician for purposes of this article. 
15A commercial computer technician who makes a report to the 
16designated employee pursuant to this subparagraph shall be deemed 
17to have complied with the requirements of this article and shall be 
18subject to the protections afforded to mandated reporters, including, 
19but not limited to, those protections afforded by Section 11172.
20(44) Any athletic coach, including, but not limited to, an 
21assistant coach or a graduate assistant involved in coaching, at 
22public or private postsecondary institutions.
23(b) Except as
				  provided in paragraph (35) of subdivision (a), 
24volunteers of public or private organizations whose duties require 
25direct contact with and supervision of children are not mandated 
26reporters but are encouraged to obtain training in the identification 
27and reporting of child abuse and neglect and are further encouraged 
28to report known or suspected instances of child abuse or neglect 
29to an agency specified in Section 11165.9.
30(c) Employers are strongly encouraged to provide their 
31employees who are mandated reporters with training in the duties 
32imposed by this article. This training shall include training in child 
33abuse and neglect identification and training in child abuse and 
34neglect reporting. Whether or not employers provide their 
35employees with training in child abuse and neglect identification 
36and reporting, the employers shall provide their employees who 
37are mandated reporters with the statement required pursuant to 
38subdivision (a) of Section
				  11166.5.
39(d) School districts that do not train their employees specified 
40in subdivision (a) in the duties of mandated reporters under the 
P345  1child abuse reporting laws shall report to the State Department of 
2Education the reasons why this training is not provided.
3(e) Unless otherwise specifically provided, the absence of 
4training shall not excuse a mandated reporter from the duties 
5imposed by this article.
6(f) Public and private organizations are encouraged to provide 
7their volunteers whose duties require direct contact with and 
8supervision of children with training in the identification and 
9reporting of child abuse and neglect.
Section 11166 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
(a) Except as provided in subdivision (d), and in 
12Section 11166.05, a mandated reporter shall make a report to an 
13agency specified in Section 11165.9 whenever the mandated 
14reporter, in his or her professional capacity or within the scope of 
15his or her employment, has knowledge of or observes a child whom 
16the mandated reporter knows or reasonably suspects has been the 
17victim of child abuse or neglect. The mandated reporter shall make 
18an initial report by telephone to the agency immediately or as soon 
19as is practicably possible, and shall prepare and send, fax, or 
20electronically transmit a written followup report within 36 hours 
21of receiving the information concerning the incident. The mandated 
22reporter may include with the report any nonprivileged 
23documentary evidence the mandated reporter possesses relating 
24to the incident.
25(1) For purposes of this article, “reasonable suspicion” means 
26that it is objectively reasonable for a person to entertain a suspicion, 
27based upon facts that could cause a reasonable person in a like 
28position, drawing, when appropriate, on his or her training and 
29experience, to suspect child abuse or neglect. “Reasonable 
30suspicion” does not require certainty that child abuse or neglect 
31has occurred nor does it require a specific medical indication of 
32child abuse or neglect; any “reasonable suspicion” is sufficient. 
33For purposes of this article, the pregnancy of a minor does not, in 
34and of itself, constitute a basis for a reasonable suspicion of sexual 
35abuse.
36(2) The agency shall be notified and a report shall be prepared 
37and sent, faxed, or electronically transmitted even if the child has 
38expired, regardless of whether or not the possible abuse was a 
39factor contributing to the death,
				  and even if suspected child abuse 
40was discovered during an autopsy.
P346  1(3) A report made by a mandated reporter pursuant to this 
2section shall be known as a mandated report.
3(b) If, after reasonable efforts, a mandated reporter is unable to 
4submit an initial report by telephone, he or she shall immediately 
5or as soon as is practicably possible, by fax or electronic 
6transmission, make a one-time automated written report on the 
7form prescribed by the Department of Justice, and shall also be 
8available to respond to a telephone followup call by the agency 
9with which he or she filed the report. A mandated reporter who 
10files a one-time automated written report because he or she was 
11unable to submit an initial report by telephone is not required to 
12submit a written followup report.
13(1) The one-time automated written report
				  form prescribed by 
14the Department of Justice shall be clearly identifiable so that it is 
15not mistaken for a standard written followup report. In addition, 
16the automated one-time report shall contain a section that allows 
17the mandated reporter to state the reason the initial telephone call 
18was not able to be completed. The reason for the submission of 
19the one-time automated written report in lieu of the procedure 
20prescribed in subdivision (a) shall be captured in the Child Welfare 
21Services/Case Management System (CWS/CMS). The department 
22shall work with stakeholders to modify reporting forms and the 
23CWS/CMS as is necessary to accommodate the changes enacted 
24by these provisions.
25(2) This subdivision shall not become operative until the 
26CWS/CMS is updated to capture the information prescribed in this 
27subdivision.
28(3) This subdivision shall become inoperative three years after 
29this
				  subdivision becomes operative or on January 1, 2009, 
30whichever occurs first.
31(4) On the inoperative date of these provisions, a report shall 
32be submitted to the counties and the Legislature by the State 
33Department of Social Services that reflects the data collected from 
34automated one-time reports indicating the reasons stated as to why 
35the automated one-time report was filed in lieu of the initial 
36telephone report.
37(5) Nothing in this section shall supersede the requirement that 
38a mandated reporter first attempt to make a report via telephone, 
39or that agencies specified in Section 11165.9 accept reports from 
40mandated reporters and other persons as required.
P347  1(c) A mandated reporter who fails to report an incident of known 
2or reasonably suspected child abuse or neglect as required by this 
3section is guilty of a
				  misdemeanor punishable by up to six months 
4confinement in a county jail or by a fine of one thousand dollars 
5($1,000) or by both that imprisonment and fine. If a mandated 
6reporter intentionally conceals his or her failure to report an 
7incident known by the mandated reporter to be abuse or severe 
8neglect under this section, the failure to report is a continuing 
9offense until an agency specified in Section 11165.9 discovers the 
10offense.
11(d) (1) A clergy member who acquires knowledge or a 
12reasonable suspicion of child abuse or neglect during a penitential 
13communication is not subject to subdivision (a). For the purposes 
14of this subdivision, “penitential communication” means a 
15communication, intended to be in confidence, including, but not 
16limited to, a sacramental confession, made to a clergy member 
17who, in the course of the discipline or practice of his or her church, 
18denomination, or organization, is authorized or
				  accustomed to hear 
19those communications, and under the discipline, tenets, customs, 
20or practices of his or her church, denomination, or organization, 
21has a duty to keep those communications secret.
22(2) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to modify or 
23limit a clergy member’s duty to report known or suspected child 
24abuse or neglect when the clergy member is acting in some other 
25capacity that would otherwise make the clergy member a mandated 
26reporter.
27(3) (A) On or before January 1, 2004, a clergy member or any 
28custodian of records for the clergy member may report to an agency 
29specified in Section 11165.9 that the clergy member or any 
30custodian of records for the clergy member, prior to January 1, 
311997, in his or her professional capacity or within the scope of his 
32or her employment, other than during a penitential communication, 
33acquired knowledge or
				  had a reasonable suspicion that a child had 
34been the victim of sexual abuse and that the clergy member or any 
35custodian of records for the clergy member did not previously 
36report the abuse to an agency specified in Section 11165.9. The 
37provisions of Section 11172 shall apply to all reports made pursuant 
38to this paragraph.
P348  1(B) This paragraph shall apply even if the victim of the known 
2or suspected abuse has reached the age of majority by the time the 
3required report is made.
4(C) The local law enforcement agency shall have jurisdiction 
5to investigate any report of child abuse made pursuant to this 
6paragraph even if the report is made after the victim has reached 
7the age of majority.
8(e) (1) A commercial film, photographic print, or image 
9processor who has knowledge of or observes, within the scope
				  of 
10his or her professional capacity or employment, any film, 
11photograph, videotape, negative, slide, or any representation of 
12information, data, or an image, including, but not limited to, any 
13film, filmstrip, photograph, negative, slide, photocopy, videotape, 
14video laser disc, computer hardware, computer software, computer 
15floppy disk, data storage medium, CD-ROM, computer-generated 
16equipment, or computer-generated image depicting a child under 
1716 years of age engaged in an act of sexual conduct, shall, 
18immediately or as soon as practicably possible, telephonically 
19report the instance of suspected abuse to the law enforcement 
20agency located in the county in which the images are seen. Within 
2136 hours of receiving the information concerning the incident, the 
22reporter shall prepare and send, fax, or electronically transmit a 
23written followup report of the incident with a copy of the image 
24or material attached.
25(2) A commercial computer technician
				  who has knowledge of 
26or observes, within the scope of his or her professional capacity 
27or employment, any representation of information, data, or an 
28image, including, but not limited to, any computer hardware, 
29computer software, computer file, computer floppy disk, data 
30storage medium, CD-ROM, computer-generated equipment, or 
31computer-generated image that is retrievable in perceivable form 
32and that is intentionally saved, transmitted, or organized on an 
33electronic medium, depicting a child under 16 years of age engaged 
34in an act of sexual conduct, shall immediately, or as soon as 
35practicably possible, telephonically report the instance of suspected 
36abuse to the law enforcement agency located in the county in which 
37the images or material are seen. As soon as practicably possible 
38after receiving the information concerning the incident, the reporter 
39shall prepare and send, fax, or electronically transmit a written 
P349  1followup report of the incident with a brief description of the 
2images or materials.
3(3) For purposes of this article, “commercial computer 
4technician” includes an employee designated by an employer to 
5receive reports pursuant to an established reporting process 
6authorized by subparagraph (B) of paragraph (43) of subdivision 
7(a) of Section 11165.7.
8(4) As used in this subdivision, “electronic medium” includes, 
9but is not limited to, a recording, CD-ROM, magnetic disk memory, 
10magnetic tape memory, CD, DVD, thumbdrive, or any other 
11computer hardware or media.
12(5) As used in this subdivision, “sexual conduct” means any of 
13the following:
14(A) Sexual intercourse, including genital-genital, oral-genital, 
15anal-genital, or oral-anal, whether between persons of the same or 
16opposite sex or between humans and animals.
17(B) Penetration of the vagina or rectum by any object.
18(C) Masturbation for the purpose of sexual stimulation of the 
19viewer.
20(D) Sadomasochistic abuse for the purpose of sexual stimulation 
21of the viewer.
22(E) Exhibition of the genitals, pubic, or rectal areas of a person 
23for the purpose of sexual stimulation of the viewer.
24(f) Any mandated reporter who knows or reasonably suspects 
25that the home or institution in which a child resides is unsuitable 
26for the child because of abuse or neglect of the child shall bring 
27the condition to the attention of the agency to which, and at the 
28same time as, he or she makes a report of the abuse or neglect 
29pursuant to subdivision (a).
30(g) begin deleteA end deletebegin insertAny end insertother person who has knowledge of or observes a 
31child whom he or she knows or reasonably suspects has been a 
32victim of child abuse or neglect may report the known or suspected 
33instance of child abuse or neglect to an agency specified in Section 
3411165.9. For purposes of this section, “any other person” includes 
35a mandated reporter who acts in his or her private capacity and 
36not in his or her professional capacity or within the scope of his 
37or her employment.
38(h) When two or more persons, who are required to report, 
39jointly have knowledge of a known or suspected instance of child 
40abuse or neglect, and when there is agreement among them, the 
P350  1telephone report may be made by a member of the
				  team selected 
2by mutual agreement and a single report may be made and signed 
3by the selected member of the reporting team. Any member who 
4has knowledge that the member designated to report has failed to 
5do so shall thereafter make the report.
6(i) (1) The reporting duties under this section are individual, 
7and no supervisor or administrator may impede or inhibit the 
8reporting duties, and no person making a report shall be subject 
9to any sanction for making the report. However, internal procedures 
10to facilitate reporting and apprise supervisors and administrators 
11of reports may be established provided that they are not inconsistent 
12with this article.
13(2) The internal procedures shall not require any employee 
14required to make reports pursuant to this article to disclose his or 
15her identity to the employer.
16(3) Reporting the information regarding a case of possible child 
17abuse or neglect to an employer, supervisor, school principal, 
18school counselor, coworker, or other person shall not be a substitute 
19for making a mandated report to an agency specified in Section 
2011165.9.
21(j) A county probation or welfare department shall immediately, 
22or as soon as practicably possible, report by telephone, fax, or 
23electronic transmission to the law enforcement agency having 
24jurisdiction over the case, to the agency given the responsibility 
25for investigation of cases under Section 300 of the Welfare and 
26Institutions Code, and to the district attorney’s office every known 
27or suspected instance of child abuse or neglect, as defined in 
28Section 11165.6, except acts or omissions coming within 
29subdivision (b) of Section 11165.2, or reports made pursuant to 
30Section 11165.13 based on risk to a child which relates solely to 
31the inability of the parent to
				  provide the child with regular care 
32due to the parent’s substance abuse, which shall be reported only 
33to the county welfare or probation department. A county probation 
34or welfare department also shall send, fax, or electronically transmit 
35a written report thereof within 36 hours of receiving the information 
36concerning the incident to any agency to which it makes a 
37telephone report under this subdivision.
38(k) A law enforcement agency shall immediately, or as soon as 
39practicably possible, report by telephone, fax, or electronic 
40transmission to the agency given responsibility for investigation 
P351  1of cases under Section 300 of the Welfare and Institutions Code 
2and to the district attorney’s office every known or suspected 
3instance of child abuse or neglect reported to it, except acts or 
4omissions coming within subdivision (b) of Section 11165.2, which 
5shall be reported only to the county welfare or probation 
6department. A law enforcement agency shall
				  report to the county 
7welfare or probation department every known or suspected instance 
8of child abuse or neglect reported to it which is alleged to have 
9occurred as a result of the action of a person responsible for the 
10child’s welfare, or as the result of the failure of a person responsible 
11for the child’s welfare to adequately protect the minor from abuse 
12when the person responsible for the child’s welfare knew or 
13reasonably should have known that the minor was in danger of 
14abuse. A law enforcement agency also shall send, fax, or 
15electronically transmit a written report thereof within 36 hours of 
16receiving the information concerning the incident to any agency 
17to which it makes a telephone report under this subdivision.
Section 12022 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
(a) (1) Except as provided in subdivisions (c) and (d), 
20a person who is armed with a firearm in the commission of a felony 
21or attempted felony shall be punished by an additional and 
22consecutive term of imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of 
23Section 1170 for one year, unless the arming is an element of that 
24offense. This additional term shall apply to a person who is a 
25principal in the commission of a felony or attempted felony if one 
26or more of the principals is armed with a firearm, whether or not 
27the person is personally armed with a firearm.
28(2) Except as provided in subdivision (c), and notwithstanding 
29subdivision (d), if the firearm is an assault weapon, as defined in 
30Section 30510 or 30515, or a machinegun, as defined in Section
31
				  16880, or a .50 BMG rifle, as defined in Section 30530, the 
32additional and consecutive term described in this subdivision shall 
33be three years imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 
341170 whether or not the arming is an element of the offense of 
35which the person was convicted. The additional term provided in 
36this paragraph shall apply to any person who is a principal in the 
37commission of a felony or attempted felony if one or more of the 
38principals is armed with an assault weapon, machinegun, or a .50 
39BMG rifle, whether or not the person is personally armed with an 
40assault weapon, machinegun, or a .50 BMG rifle.
P352  1(b) (1) A person who personally uses a deadly or dangerous 
2weapon in the commission of a felony or attempted felony shall 
3be punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment 
4in the state prison for one year, unless use of a deadly or dangerous 
5weapon is an element of that offense.
6(2) If the person described in paragraph (1) has been convicted 
7of carjacking or attempted carjacking, the additional term shall be 
8in the state prison for one, two, or three years.
9(3) When a person is found to have personally used a deadly or 
10dangerous weapon in the commission of a felony or attempted 
11felony as provided in this subdivision and the weapon is owned 
12by that person, the court shall order that the weapon be deemed a 
13nuisance and disposed of in the manner provided in Sections 18000 
14and 18005.
15(c) Notwithstanding the enhancement set forth in subdivision 
16(a), a person who is personally armed with a firearm in the 
17commission of a violation or attempted violation of Section 11351, 
1811351.5, 11352, 11366.5, 11366.6, 11378, 11378.5, 11379, 
1911379.5, or 11379.6 of the Health and Safety Code shall be 
20punished by an
				  additional and consecutive term of imprisonment 
21pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170 for three, four, or five 
22years.
23(d) Notwithstanding the enhancement set forth in subdivision 
24(a), a person who is not personally armed with a firearm who, 
25knowing that another principal is personally armed with a firearm, 
26is a principal in the commission of an offense or attempted offense 
27specified in subdivision (c), shall be punished by an additional and 
28consecutive term of imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of 
29Section 1170 for one, two, or three years.
30(e) For purposes of imposing an enhancement under Section 
311170.1, the enhancements under this section shall count as a single 
32enhancement.
33(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court may 
34strike the additional punishment for the enhancements provided 
35in
				  subdivision (c) or (d) in an unusual case where the interests of 
36justice would best be served, if the court specifies on the record 
37and enters into the minutes the circumstances indicating that the 
38interests of justice would best be served by that disposition.
Section 12022.1 of the Penal Code is amended to 
40read:
(a) For the purposes of this section only:
2(1) “Primary offense” means a felony offense for which a person 
3has been released from custody on bail or on his or her own 
4recognizance prior to the judgment becoming final, including the 
5disposition of any appeal, or for which release on bail or his or her 
6own recognizance has been revoked. In cases where the court has 
7granted a stay of execution of a county jail commitment or state 
8prison commitment, “primary offense” also means a felony offense 
9for which a person is out of custody during the period of time 
10between the pronouncement of judgment and the time the person 
11actually surrenders into custody or is otherwise returned to custody.
12(2) “Secondary
				  offense” means a felony offense alleged to have 
13been committed while the person is released from custody for a 
14primary offense.
15(b) Any person arrested for a secondary offense that was alleged 
16to have been committed while that person was released from 
17custody on a primary offense shall be subject to a penalty 
18enhancement of an additional two years, which shall be served 
19consecutive to any other term imposed by the court.
20(c) The enhancement allegation provided in subdivision (b) 
21shall be pleaded in the information or indictment which alleges 
22the secondary offense, or in the information or indictment of the 
23primary offense if a conviction has already occurred in the 
24secondary offense, and shall be proved as provided by law. The 
25enhancement allegation may be pleaded in a complaint but need 
26not be proved at the preliminary hearing or grand jury hearing.
27(d) Whenever there is a conviction for the secondary offense 
28and the enhancement is proved, and the person is sentenced on the 
29secondary offense prior to the conviction of the primary offense, 
30the imposition of the enhancement shall be stayed pending 
31imposition of the sentence for the primary offense. The stay shall 
32be lifted by the court hearing the primary offense at the time of 
33sentencing for that offense and shall be recorded in the abstract of 
34judgment. If the person is acquitted of the primary offense the stay 
35shall be permanent.
36(e) If the person is convicted of a felony for the primary offense, 
37is sentenced to state prison for the primary offense, and is convicted 
38of a felony for the secondary offense, any sentence for the 
39secondary offense shall be consecutive to the primary sentence 
40and the aggregate term shall be served in the state prison, even if 
P354  1the term for the
				  secondary offense specifies imprisonment in county 
2jail pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170.
3(f) If the person is convicted of a felony for the primary offense, 
4is granted probation for the primary offense, and is convicted of 
5a felony for the secondary offense, any sentence for the secondary 
6offense shall be enhanced as provided in subdivision (b).
7(g) If the primary offense conviction is reversed on appeal, the 
8enhancement shall be suspended pending retrial of that felony. 
9Upon retrial and reconviction, the enhancement shall be reimposed. 
10If the person is no longer in custody for the secondary offense 
11upon reconviction of the primary offense, the court may, at its 
12discretion, reimpose the enhancement and order him or her 
13recommitted to custody.
Section 10295.6 of the Public Contract Code is 
15amended to read:
Sections 10295 and 10297 do not apply to any contract 
17entered into by the Department of Water Resources under Part 3 
18(commencing with Section 11100) of Division 6 or Chapter 8 
19(commencing with Section 12930) of Part 6 of Division 6 of the 
20Water Code for the acquisition, sale, or transmission of power, or 
21for services to facilitate those activities.
Section 20651.7 of the Public Contract Code is 
23amended to read:
(a) For the purposes of bid evaluation and selection 
25pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 20651, when a community 
26college district determines that it can expect long-term savings 
27through the use of life-cycle cost methodology, the use of more 
28sustainable goods and materials, and reduced administrative costs, 
29the community college district may provide for the selection of 
30the lowest responsible bidder on the basis of best value pursuant 
31to policies and procedures adopted by the governing board in 
32accordance with this section.
33(b) For purposes of this section, “best value” means the most 
34advantageous balance of price, quality, service, performance, and 
35other elements, as defined by the governing board, achieved 
36through methods in accordance with this section and
				  determined 
37by objective performance criteria that may include price, features, 
38long-term functionality, life-cycle costs, overall sustainability, and 
39required services.
P355  1(c) A community college district shall consider all of the 
2following when adopting best value policies pursuant to subdivision 
3(a):
4(1) Price and service level proposals that reduce the district’s 
5overall operating costs, including end-of-life expenditures and 
6impact.
7(2) Equipment, services, supplies, and materials standards that 
8support the community college district’s strategic acquisition and 
9management program direction.
10(3) A procedure for protest and resolution.
11(d) A community college district may consider any of
				  the 
12following factors if adopting policies and procedures pursuant to 
13subdivision (c):
14(1) The total cost to the community college district of its 
15purchase, use, and consumption of equipment, supplies, and 
16materials.
17(2) The operational cost or benefit incurred by the community 
18college district as a result of a contract award.
19(3) The added value to the community college district, as defined 
20in the request for proposal, of vendor-added services.
21(4) The quality and effectiveness of equipment, supplies, 
22materials, and services.
23(5) The reliability of delivery and installation schedules.
24(6) The terms and conditions of product
				  warranties and vendor 
25guarantees.
26(7) The financial stability of the vendor.
27(8) The vendor’s quality assurance program.
28(9) The vendor’s experience with the provisions of equipment, 
29supplies, materials, and services within the institutional 
30marketplace.
31(10) The consistency of the vendor’s proposed equipment, 
32supplies, materials, and services with the district’s overall supplies 
33and materials procurement program.
34(11) The economic benefits to the local community, including, 
35but not limited to, job creation and retention.
36(12) The environmental benefits to the local community.
37(e) A community college district awarding a contract under this 
38section shall award a contract to the lowest responsible bidder 
39whose proposal is determined, in writing by the community college 
P356  1district, to be the best value to the community college district based 
2solely on the criteria set forth in the request for proposal.
3(f) The governing board of a community college district shall 
4issue a written notice of intent to award supporting its contract 
5award and stating in detail the basis of the award. The notice of 
6the intent to award and the contract file must be sufficient to satisfy 
7an external audit.
8(g) The governing board of a community college district shall 
9publicly announce its award, identifying the bidder to which the 
10award is made, the price proposal of the contractor awarded the 
11contract, and the overall
				  combined rating on the request for 
12proposal evaluation factors. The announcement shall also include 
13the ranking of the contractor awarded the contract in relation to 
14all other responsive bidders and their respective price proposals 
15and summary of the rationale for the contract award.
16(h) The community college district shall ensure that all 
17businesses have a fair and equitable opportunity to compete for, 
18and participate in, district contracts and shall also ensure that 
19discrimination, as described in subdivision (e) of Section 12751.3 
20of the Public Utilities Code, in the award and performance of 
21contracts does not occur.
22(i) (1) If a community college district elects to purchase 
23equipment, materials, supplies, and services by contract, let in 
24accordance with this section, the community college district shall 
25submit the following information to the Chancellor
				  of the 
26California Community Colleges on or before January 1, 2016:
27(A) The community college district’s policies adopted pursuant 
28to subdivision (a).
29(B) An annual list of district procurements for contracts with a 
30brief description of the contract, the winning bid, the cost, and if 
31the contract was done under best value acquisition policies.
32(C) For a contract awarded under the best value acquisition 
33policies, the bid announcement announcing the bidder to which 
34the award was made, including that bidder’s scoring rating 
35compared to other bidders, the winning contractor’s price proposal, 
36the overall combined rating on the request for proposal evaluation 
37factors, a description of the products, commodities, or services 
38sought, and a summary of the rationale for the contract award.
39(D) For each contract awarded using the best value acquisition 
40policies at least one bid award announcement for a comparably 
P357  1priced contract using the traditional lowest responsible bidder 
2process that specifies the bidder to which the contract was awarded, 
3the amount of the award, and the request for bid for that contract 
4that includes a description of the products, commodities, or services 
5sought for at least one comparably sized contract, to the best value 
6contract being let, awarded pursuant to the traditional lowest 
7responsible bidder process including contracts awarded by the 
8district in the three years prior to the adoption of best value 
9acquisition policies by the district.
10(E) For contracts awarded using best value, a summary of any 
11additional economic benefit other than the price of the contract 
12obtained, including an explanation of whether these benefits were 
13realized as
				  expected.
14(F) The total number of bid protests or protests concerning an 
15aspect of the solicitation, bid, or award of the agreement since the 
16district adopted policies pursuant to subdivision (a) and the number 
17of those protests that occurred under best value.
18(G) A description of any written bid protest or protests 
19concerning an aspect of the solicitation, bid, or award of the 
20agreement including the resolution of the protest for any contract 
21submitted pursuant to this section.
22(2) The Legislative Analyst shall request the chancellor to 
23provide the information specified in paragraph (1) to the Legislative 
24Analyst on or before July 1, 2016. On or before February 1, 2017, 
25the Legislative Analyst shall report to the Legislature on the use 
26of competitive means for obtaining best value procurement by 
27community college
				  districts. The Legislative Analyst shall use the 
28information provided by the chancellor to report all of the 
29following:
30(A) A summary of the overall benefits of best value acquisition.
31(B) A comparison of the overall cost of contracts let under best 
32value acquisition pursuant to this section to similar contracts let 
33under traditional low bid procurement practices.
34(C) An assessment of any benefits or disadvantages of best value 
35procurement practices as compared to bids awarded to the lowest 
36responsible bidder.
37(D) An assessment of whether the use of best value procurement 
38has led to a difference in the number of disputes as compared to 
39contracts awarded using the traditional lowest responsible bidder 
40method.
P358  1(E) An assessment of the policies adopted by the community 
2college districts pursuant to subdivision (a) as well as an assessment 
3of the overall performance criteria used to evaluate the bids and 
4the effectiveness of the methodology.
5(F) Recommendations as to whether the best value at lowest 
6cost acquisition procurement authority should be continued.
7(j) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2018, 
8and as of that date is repealed.
Section 4629.5 of the Public Resources Code is 
10amended to read:
(a) (1) On and after January 1, 2013, there is hereby 
12imposed an assessment on a person who purchases a lumber 
13product or an engineered wood product for the storage, use, or 
14other consumption in this state, at the rate of 1 percent of the sales 
15price.
16(2) A retailer shall charge the person the amount of the 
17assessment as a charge that is separate from, and not included in, 
18any other fee, charge, or other amount paid by the purchaser.
19(3) The retailer shall collect the assessment from the person at 
20the time of sale, and may retain an amount equal to the amount of 
21reimbursement, as determined by the State Board of Equalization 
22pursuant to regulations, for any costs associated with
				  the collection 
23of the assessment, to be taken on the first return or next consecutive 
24returns until the entire reimbursement amount is retained. For 
25purposes of this paragraph, the State Board of Equalization may 
26adopt emergency regulations pursuant to Section 11346.1 of the 
27Government Code. The adoption of any regulation pursuant to this 
28paragraph shall be deemed to be an emergency and necessary for 
29the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and safety, 
30and general welfare.
31(b) The retailer shall separately state the amount of the 
32assessment imposed under this section on the sales receipt given 
33by the retailer to the person at the time of sale.
34(c) The State Board of Equalization shall administer and collect 
35the assessment imposed by this section pursuant to the Fee 
36Collection Procedures Law (Part 30 (commencing with Section 
3755001) of Division 2 of the Revenue and
				  Taxation Code) with 
38those changes as may be necessary to conform to the provisions 
39of this article. For purposes of this section, the references in the 
P359  1Fee Collection Procedures Law to “fee” shall include the 
2assessment imposed by this section.
3(d) (1) The assessment is required to be collected by a retailer 
4and any amount unreturned to the person who paid an amount in 
5excess of the assessment, but was collected from the person under 
6the representation by the retailer that it was owed as an assessment, 
7constitutes debts owed by the retailer to this state.
8(2) Every person who purchases a lumber product or an 
9engineered wood product for storage, use, or other consumption 
10in this state is liable for the assessment until it has been paid to 
11this state, except that payment to a retailer relieves the person from 
12further liability for the assessment. Any assessment
				  collected from 
13a person that has not been remitted to the State Board of 
14Equalization shall be a debt owed to the state by the retailer 
15required to collect and remit the assessment. Nothing in this part 
16shall impose any obligation upon a retailer to take any legal action 
17to enforce the collection of the assessment imposed by this section.
18(e) Except as provided in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a), the 
19State Board of Equalization may prescribe, adopt, and enforce 
20regulations relating to the administration and enforcement of this 
21section, including, but not limited to, collections, reporting, refunds, 
22and appeals.
23(f) (1) The assessment imposed by this section is due and 
24payable to the State Board of Equalization quarterly on or before 
25the last day of the month next succeeding each quarterly period.
26(2) On or before the last day of the month following each 
27quarterly period, a return for the preceding quarterly period shall 
28be filed with the State Board of Equalization using electronic 
29media, in the form prescribed by the State Board of Equalization. 
30Returns shall be authenticated in a form or pursuant to methods, 
31as prescribed by the State Board of Equalization.
32(g) For purposes of this section, all of the following shall apply:
33(1) “Purchase” has the same meaning as that term is defined in 
34Section 6010 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.
35(2) “Retailer” has the same meaning as that term is defined in 
36Section 6015 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.
37(3) “Sales price” has the same meaning as that term is defined 
38in Section 6011 of the
				  Revenue and Taxation Code.
39(4) “Storage” has the same meaning as that term is defined in 
40Section 6008 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.
P360  1(5) “Use” has the same meaning as that term is defined in 
2Section 6009 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.
3(h) (1) Every person required to pay the assessment imposed 
4under this article shall register with the State Board of Equalization. 
5Every application for registration shall be made in a form 
6prescribed by the State Board of Equalization and shall set forth 
7the name under which the applicant transacts or intends to transact 
8business, the location of his or her place or places of business, and 
9such other information as the State Board of Equalization may 
10require. An application for registration shall be authenticated in a 
11form or pursuant to methods as may be
				  prescribed by the State 
12Board of Equalization.
13(2) An application for registration filed pursuant to this section 
14may be filed using electronic media as prescribed by the State 
15Board of Equalization.
16(3) Electronic media includes, but is not limited to, computer 
17modem, magnetic media, optical disc, facsimile machine, or 
18telephone.
Section 4629.9 of the Public Resources Code is 
20amended to read:
(a) On or before January 10, 2013, and on each January 
2210 thereafter in conjunction with the 2014-15 Governor’s Budget 
23and each Governor’s Budget thereafter, the Secretary of the Natural 
24Resources Agency, in consultation with the Secretary for 
25Environmental Protection, shall submit to the Joint Legislative 
26Budget Committee a report on the activities of all state 
27departments, agencies, and boards relating to forest and timberland 
28regulation. This report shall include, at a minimum, all of the 
29following:
30(1) A listing, by organization, of the proposed total costs 
31associated with the review, approval, and inspection of timber 
32harvest plans and associated permits.
33(2) The number of timber harvest plans,
				  and acreage covered 
34by the plans, reviewed in the 2011-12 fiscal year, or the most 
35recent fiscal year.
36(3) To the extent feasible, a listing of activities, personnel, and 
37funding, by department, for the forest practice program for 
382012-13, or the most recent fiscal year, and the preceding 10 fiscal 
39years.
P361  1(4) The number of staff in each organization dedicated fully or 
2partially to (A) review of timber harvest plans, and (B) other 
3forestry-related activities, by geographical location in the state.
4(5) The costs of other forestry-related activities undertaken.
5(6) A summary of any process improvements identified by the 
6administration as part of ongoing review of the timber harvest 
7process, including data and technology improvement needs.
8(7) Workload analysis for the forest practice program in each 
9organization.
10(8) In order to assess efficiencies in the program and the 
11effectiveness of spending, a set of measures for, and a plan for 
12collection of data on, the program, including, but not limited to:
13(A) The number of timber harvest plans reviewed.
14(B) Average time for plan review.
15(C) Number of field inspections per inspector.
16(D) Number of acres under active plans.
17(E) Number of violations.
18(F) Evaluating ecological performance.
19(b) A report required to be submitted pursuant to subdivision 
20(a) shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the 
21Government Code.
Section 6224.5 of the Public Resources Code is 
23amended to read:
(a) If, as of January 1, 2013, a person is in violation 
25of subdivision (a) of Section 6224.3, that person shall not be subject 
26to a penalty pursuant to that section, if the person, on or before 
27July 1, 2013, remedies the violation or submits to the commission 
28a completed lease application, including the payment of all fees 
29and costs. The remedy may include, but is not limited to, entering 
30into an appropriate lease with the commission or adequately 
31removing the structure or facility.
32(b) A person shall not be subject to a penalty or order pursuant 
33to Section 6224.3, if the person submits a notice to the commission 
34that a structure or facility owned by that person is potentially in 
35violation of subdivision (a) of Section 6224.3 and the person, 
36within six months from
				  the date the notice is received by the 
37commission, remedies the violation or submits to the commission 
38a completed lease application, including the payment of all fees 
39and costs. This subdivision shall apply only if the potential violator 
40submits a notice to the commission before the commission 
P362  1otherwise receives notice or information regarding the potential 
2violation, or takes action against the violator.
3(c) If any pole, conduit, cable, wire, pipeline, or associated 
4appurtenance that is owned by an electrical corporation, as defined 
5in Section 218 of the Public Utilities Code, or a gas corporation, 
6as defined in Section 222 of the Public Utilities Code, violates 
7subdivision (a) of Section 6224.3, and the electrical or gas 
8corporation can demonstrate that it has not received actual notice 
9that it does not have adequate existing land rights for its structure 
10or facility located on land under the commission’s jurisdiction, the 
11electrical or gas
				  corporation shall not be subject to a penalty or 
12order pursuant to Section 6224.3 if the electrical or gas corporation 
13remedies the violation or submits to the commission a completed 
14lease application, including the payment of all fees and costs, or 
15files with a court of competent jurisdiction a motion to perfect a 
16prescriptive easement within six months from the date the violation 
17is reported or the mistake is discovered.
18(d) The commission may adopt regulations necessary or useful 
19to carry out this section and Sections 6224.3 and 6224.4.
Section 21080.37 of the Public Resources Code is 
21amended to read:
(a) This division does not apply to a project or an 
23activity to repair, maintain, or make minor alterations to an existing 
24roadway if all of the following conditions are met:
25(1) The project is carried out by a city or county with a 
26population of less than 100,000 persons to improve public safety.
27(2) (A) The project does not cross a waterway.
28(B) For purposes of this paragraph, “waterway” means a bay, 
29estuary, lake, pond, river, slough, or a perennial, intermittent, or 
30ephemeral stream, lake, or estuarine-marine shoreline.
31(3) The project involves
				  negligible or no expansion of an 
32existing use beyond that existing at the time of the lead agency’s 
33determination.
34(4) The roadway is not a state roadway.
35(5) (A) The site of the project does not contain wetlands or 
36riparian areas and does not have significant value as a wildlife 
37habitat, and the project does not harm any species protected by the 
38federal Endangered Species Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C. Sec. 1531 et 
39seq.), the Native Plant Protection Act (Chapter 10 (commencing 
40with Section 1900) of Division 2 of the Fish and Game Code), or 
P363  1the California Endangered Species Act (Chapter 1.5 (commencing 
2with Section 2050) of Division 3 of the Fish and Game Code), and 
3the project does not cause the destruction or removal of any species 
4protected by a local ordinance.
5(B) For the purposes of this paragraph:
6(i) “Riparian areas” mean those areas transitional between 
7terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems and that are distinguished by 
8gradients in biophysical conditions, ecological processes, and biota. 
9A riparian area is an area through which surface and subsurface 
10hydrology connect waterbodies with their adjacent uplands. A 
11riparian area includes those portions of terrestrial ecosystems that 
12significantly influence exchanges of energy and matter with aquatic 
13ecosystems. A riparian area is adjacent to perennial, intermittent, 
14and ephemeral streams, lakes, and estuarine-marine shorelines.
15(ii) “Significant value as a wildlife habitat” includes wildlife 
16habitat of national, statewide, regional, or local importance; habitat 
17for species protected by the federal Endangered Species Act of 
181973 (16 U.S.C. Sec. 1531, et seq.), the California Endangered 
19Species Act (Chapter 1.5
				  (commencing with Section 2050) of 
20Division 3 of the Fish and Game Code), or the Native Plant 
21Protection Act (Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 1900) of 
22Division 2 of the Fish and Game Code); habitat identified as 
23candidate, fully protected, sensitive, or species of special status 
24by local, state, or federal agencies; or habitat essential to the 
25movement of resident or migratory wildlife.
26(iii) “Wetlands” has the same meaning as in the United States 
27Fish and Wildlife Service Manual, Part 660 FW 2 (June 21, 1993).
28(iv) “Wildlife habitat” means the ecological communities upon 
29which wild animals, birds, plants, fish, amphibians, and 
30invertebrates depend for their conservation and protection.
31(6) The project does not impact cultural resources.
32(7) The
				  roadway does not affect scenic resources, as provided 
33pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 21084.
34(b) Prior to determining that a project is exempt pursuant to this 
35section, the lead agency shall do both of the following:
36(1) Include measures in the project to mitigate potential 
37vehicular traffic and safety impacts and bicycle and pedestrian 
38safety impacts.
39(2) Hold a noticed public hearing on the project to hear and 
40respond to public comments. The hearing on the project may be 
P364  1conducted with another noticed lead agency public hearing. 
2Publication of the notice shall be no fewer times than required by 
3Section 6061 of the Government Code, by the public agency in a 
4newspaper of general circulation in the area.
5(c) For purposes of this section, “roadway”
				  means a roadway 
6as defined pursuant to Section 530 of the Vehicle Code and the 
7previously graded and maintained shoulder that is within a roadway 
8right-of-way of no more than five feet from the edge of the 
9roadway.
10(d) Whenever a local agency determines that a project is not 
11subject to this division pursuant to this section, and it approves or 
12determines to carry out that project, the local agency shall file a 
13notice with the Office of Planning and Research, and with the 
14county clerk in the county in which the project will be located in 
15the manner specified in subdivisions (b) and (c) of Section 21152.
16(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2016, 
17and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that 
18is enacted before January 1, 2016, deletes or extends that date.
Section 21080.5 of the Public Resources Code is 
20amended to read:
(a) Except as provided in Section 21158.1, when the 
22regulatory program of a state agency requires a plan or other written 
23documentation containing environmental information and 
24complying with paragraph (3) of subdivision (d) to be submitted 
25in support of an activity listed in subdivision (b), the plan or other 
26written documentation may be submitted in lieu of the 
27environmental impact report required by this division if the 
28Secretary of the Resources Agency has certified the regulatory 
29program pursuant to this section.
30(b) This section applies only to regulatory programs or portions 
31thereof that involve either of the following:
32(1) The issuance to a person of a lease, permit, license, 
33certificate, or
				  other entitlement for use.
34(2) The adoption or approval of standards, rules, regulations, 
35or plans for use in the regulatory program.
36(c) A regulatory program certified pursuant to this section is 
37exempt from Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 21100), Chapter 
384 (commencing with Section 21150), and Section 21167, except 
39as provided in Article 2 (commencing with Section 21157) of 
40Chapter 4.5.
P365  1(d) To qualify for certification pursuant to this section, a 
2regulatory program shall require the utilization of an 
3interdisciplinary approach that will ensure the integrated use of 
4the natural and social sciences in decisionmaking and that shall 
5meet all of the following criteria:
6(1) The enabling legislation of the regulatory program does both 
7of the following:
8(A) Includes protection of the environment among its principal 
9purposes.
10(B) Contains authority for the administering agency to adopt 
11rules and regulations for the protection of the environment, guided 
12by standards set forth in the enabling legislation.
13(2) The rules and regulations adopted by the administering 
14agency for the regulatory program do all of the following:
15(A) Require that an activity will not be approved or adopted as 
16proposed if there are feasible alternatives or feasible mitigation 
17measures available that would substantially lessen a significant 
18adverse effect that the activity may have on the environment.
19(B) Include guidelines for the orderly evaluation of proposed
20
				  activities and the preparation of the plan or other written 
21documentation in a manner consistent with the environmental 
22protection purposes of the regulatory program.
23(C) Require the administering agency to consult with all public 
24agencies that have jurisdiction, by law, with respect to the proposed 
25activity.
26(D) Require that final action on the proposed activity include 
27the written responses of the issuing authority to significant 
28environmental points raised during the evaluation process.
29(E) Require the filing of a notice of the decision by the 
30administering agency on the proposed activity with the Secretary 
31of the Resources Agency. Those notices shall be available for 
32public inspection, and a list of the notices shall be posted on a 
33weekly basis in the Office of the Resources Agency. Each list shall 
34remain posted
				  for a period of 30 days.
35(F) Require notice of the filing of the plan or other written 
36documentation to be made to the public and to a person who 
37requests, in writing, notification. The notification shall be made 
38in a manner that will provide the public or a person requesting 
39notification with sufficient time to review and comment on the 
40filing.
P366  1(3) The plan or other written documentation required by the 
2regulatory program does both of the following:
3(A) Includes a description of the proposed activity with 
4alternatives to the activity, and mitigation measures to minimize 
5any significant adverse effect on the environment of the activity.
6(B) Is available for a reasonable time for review and comment 
7by other public agencies and the general public.
8(e) (1) The Secretary of the Resources Agency shall certify a 
9regulatory program that the secretary determines meets all the 
10qualifications for certification set forth in this section, and withdraw 
11certification on determination that the regulatory program has been 
12altered so that it no longer meets those qualifications. Certification 
13and withdrawal of certification shall occur only after compliance 
14with Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of 
15Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
16(2) In determining whether or not a regulatory program meets 
17the qualifications for certification set forth in this section, the 
18inquiry of the secretary shall extend only to the question of whether 
19the regulatory program meets the generic requirements of 
20subdivision (d). The inquiry may not extend to individual decisions 
21to be reached under the regulatory
				  program, including the nature 
22of specific alternatives or mitigation measures that might be 
23proposed to lessen any significant adverse effect on the 
24environment of the activity.
25(3) If the secretary determines that the regulatory program 
26submitted for certification does not meet the qualifications for 
27certification set forth in this section, the secretary shall adopt 
28findings setting forth the reasons for the determination.
29(f) After a regulatory program has been certified pursuant to 
30this section, a proposed change in the program that could affect 
31compliance with the qualifications for certification specified in 
32subdivision (d) may be submitted to the Secretary of the Resources 
33Agency for review and comment. The scope of the secretary’s 
34review shall extend only to the question of whether the regulatory 
35program meets the generic requirements of subdivision (d). The 
36review may not
				  extend to individual decisions to be reached under 
37the regulatory program, including specific alternatives or mitigation 
38measures that might be proposed to lessen any significant adverse 
39effect on the environment of the activity. The secretary shall have 
4030 days from the date of receipt of the proposed change to notify 
P367  1the state agency whether the proposed change will alter the 
2regulatory program so that it no longer meets the qualification for 
3certification established in this section and will result in a 
4withdrawal of certification as provided in this section.
5(g) An action or proceeding to attack, review, set aside, void, 
6or annul a determination or decision of a state agency approving 
7or adopting a proposed activity under a regulatory program that 
8has been certified pursuant to this section on the basis that the plan 
9or other written documentation prepared pursuant to paragraph (3) 
10of subdivision (d) does not comply with this section shall
				  be 
11commenced not later than 30 days from the date of the filing of 
12notice of the approval or adoption of the activity.
13(h) (1) An action or proceeding to attack, review, set aside, 
14void, or annul a determination of the Secretary of the Resources 
15Agency to certify a regulatory program pursuant to this section on 
16the basis that the regulatory program does not comply with this 
17section shall be commenced within 30 days from the date of 
18certification by the secretary.
19(2) In an action brought pursuant to paragraph (1), the inquiry 
20shall extend only to whether there was a prejudicial abuse of 
21discretion by the secretary. Abuse of discretion is established if 
22the secretary has not proceeded in a manner required by law or if 
23the determination is not supported by substantial evidence.
24(i) For purposes of
				  this section, a county agricultural 
25commissioner is a state agency.
26(j) For purposes of this section, an air quality management 
27district or air pollution control district is a state agency, except 
28that the approval, if any, by a district of a nonattainment area plan 
29is subject to this section only if, and to the extent that, the approval 
30adopts or amends rules or regulations.
31(k) (1) The secretary, by July 1, 2004, shall develop a protocol 
32for reviewing the prospective application of certified regulatory 
33programs to evaluate the consistency of those programs with the 
34requirements of this division. Following the completion of the 
35development of the protocol, the secretary shall provide a report 
36to the Senate Committee on Environmental Quality and the 
37Assembly Committee on Natural Resources regarding the need 
38for a grant of additional statutory authority
				  authorizing the secretary 
39to undertake a review of the certified regulatory programs.
P368  1(2) The secretary may update the protocol, and may update the 
2report provided to the legislative committees pursuant to paragraph 
3(1) and provide, in compliance with Section 9795 of the 
4Government Code, the updated report to those committees if 
5additional statutory authority is needed.
6(3) The secretary shall provide a significant opportunity for 
7public participation in developing or updating the protocol 
8described in paragraph (1) or (2), including, but not limited to, at 
9least two public meetings with interested parties. A notice of each 
10meeting shall be provided at least 10 days prior to the meeting to 
11a person who files a written request for a notice with the agency 
12and to the Senate Committee on Environmental Quality and the 
13Assembly Committee on Natural
				  Resources.
Section 21084 of the Public Resources Code is 
15amended to read:
(a) The guidelines prepared and adopted pursuant to 
17Section 21083 shall include a list of classes of projects that have 
18been determined not to have a significant effect on the environment 
19and that shall be exempt from this division. In adopting the 
20guidelines, the Secretary of the Natural Resources Agency shall 
21make a finding that the listed classes of projects referred to in this 
22section do not have a significant effect on the environment.
23(b) A project’s greenhouse gas emissions shall not, in and of 
24themselves, be deemed to cause an exemption adopted pursuant 
25to subdivision (a) to be inapplicable if the project complies with 
26all applicable regulations or requirements adopted to implement 
27statewide, regional, or local plans consistent with Section 15183.5 
28of Title
				  14 of the California Code of Regulations.
29(c) A project that may result in damage to scenic resources, 
30including, but not limited to, trees, historic buildings, rock 
31outcroppings, or similar resources, within a highway designated 
32as an official state scenic highway, pursuant to Article 2.5 
33(commencing with Section 260) of Chapter 2 of Division 1 of the 
34Streets and Highways Code, shall not be exempted from this 
35division pursuant to subdivision (a). This subdivision does not 
36apply to improvements as mitigation for a project for which a 
37negative declaration has been approved or an environmental impact 
38report has been certified.
39(d) A project located on a site that is included on any list 
40compiled pursuant to Section 65962.5 of the Government Code 
P369  1shall not be exempted from this division pursuant to subdivision 
2(a).
3(e) A project that may cause a substantial adverse change in the 
4significance of a historical resource, as specified in Section 
521084.1, shall not be exempted from this division pursuant to 
6subdivision (a).
Section 72410 of the Public Resources Code is 
8amended to read:
(a) Unless the context otherwise requires, the 
10definitions set forth in this section govern this division.
11(b) “Board” means the State Water Resources Control Board.
12(c) “Commission” means the State Lands Commission.
13(d) “Graywater” means drainage from dishwasher, shower, 
14laundry, bath, and washbasin drains, but does not include drainage 
15from toilets, urinals, hospitals, or cargo spaces.
16(e) “Hazardous waste” has the meaning set forth in Section 
1725117 of the Health and Safety Code, but does not include sewage.
18(f) “Large passenger vessel” or “vessel” means a vessel of 300 
19gross registered tons or greater that is engaged in the carrying of 
20passengers for hire, excluding all of the following vessels:
21(1) Vessels without berths or overnight accommodations for 
22passengers.
23(2) Noncommercial vessels, warships, vessels operated by 
24nonprofit entities as determined by the Internal Revenue Service, 
25and vessels operated by the state, the United States, or a foreign 
26government.
27(3) Oceangoing ships, as defined in subdivision (j).
28(g) “Marine waters of the state” means waters within the area 
29bounded by the mean high tide line to the three-mile state waters 
30limit, from the Oregon border to the Mexican border.
31(h) “Marine sanctuary” means marine waters of the state in the 
32Channel Islands National Marine Sanctuary, Cordell Bank National 
33Marine Sanctuary, Gulf of the Farallones National Marine 
34Sanctuary, or Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary.
35(i) “Medical waste” means medical waste subject to regulation 
36pursuant to Part 14 (commencing with Section 117600) of Division 
37104 of the Health and Safety Code.
38(j) “Oceangoing ship” means a private, commercial, government, 
39or military vessel of 300 gross registered tons or more calling on 
40California ports or places.
P370 1(k) “Oil” has the meaning set forth in Section 8750.
2(l) “Oily bilgewater” includes bilgewater that contains used 
3lubrication oils, oil sludge and slops, fuel and oil sludge, used oil, 
4used
				  fuel and fuel filters, and oily waste.
5(m) “Operator” has the meaning set forth in Section 651 of the 
6Harbors and Navigation Code.
7(n) “Other waste” means photography laboratory chemicals, 
8dry cleaning chemicals, or medical waste.
9(o) “Owner” has the meaning set forth in Section 651 of the 
10Harbors and Navigation Code.
11(p) “Release” means discharging or disposing of wastes into 
12the environment.
13(q) “Sewage” has the meaning set forth in Section 775.5 of the 
14Harbors and Navigation Code, including material that has been 
15collected or treated through a marine sanitation device as that term 
16is used in Section 312 of the federal Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 
17Sec. 1322) or material that is a byproduct
				  of sewage treatment.
18(r) “Sewage sludge” has the meaning set forth in Section 122.2 
19of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
20(s) “Sufficient holding tank capacity” means a holding tank of 
21sufficient capacity to contain sewage and graywater while the 
22oceangoing ship is within the marine waters of the state.
23(t) “Waste” means hazardous waste and other waste.
Section 2827.10 of the Public Utilities Code is 
25amended to read:
(a) As used in this section, the following terms have 
27the following meanings:
28(1) “Electrical corporation” means an electrical corporation, as 
29defined in Section 218.
30(2) “Eligible fuel cell electrical generating facility” means a 
31facility that includes the following:
32(A) Integrated powerplant systems containing a stack, tubular 
33array, or other functionally similar configuration used to 
34electrochemically convert fuel to electric energy.
35(B) An inverter and fuel processing system where necessary.
36(C) Other
				  plant equipment, including heat recovery equipment, 
37necessary to support the plant’s operation or its energy conversion.
38(3) (A) “Eligible fuel cell customer-generator” means a 
39customer of an electrical corporation that meets all the following 
40criteria:
P371  1(i) Uses a fuel cell electrical generating facility with a capacity 
2of not more than one megawatt that is located on or adjacent to 
3the customer’s owned, leased, or rented premises, is interconnected 
4and operates in parallel with the electrical grid while the grid is 
5operational or in a grid independent mode when the grid is 
6nonoperational, and is sized to offset part or all of the eligible fuel 
7cell customer-generator’s own electrical requirements.
8(ii) Is the recipient of local, state, or federal funds, or who 
9self-finances projects designed to
				  encourage the development of 
10eligible fuel cell electrical generating facilities.
11(iii) Uses technology the commission has determined will 
12achieve reductions in emissions of greenhouse gases pursuant to 
13subdivision (b), and meets the emission requirements for eligibility 
14for funding set forth in subdivision (c), of Section 379.6.
15(B) For purposes of this paragraph, a person or entity is a 
16customer of the electrical corporation if the customer is physically 
17located within the service territory of the electrical corporation 
18and receives bundled service, distribution service, or transmission 
19service from the electrical corporation.
20(4) “Net energy metering” means measuring the difference 
21between the electricity supplied through the electrical grid and the 
22difference between the electricity generated by an eligible fuel
				  cell 
23electrical generating facility and fed back to the electrical grid over 
24a 12-month period as described in subdivision (e). Net energy 
25metering shall be accomplished using a time-of-use meter capable 
26of registering the flow of electricity in two directions. If the existing 
27electrical meter of an eligible fuel cell customer-generator is not 
28capable of measuring the flow of electricity in two directions, the 
29eligible fuel cell customer-generator shall be responsible for all 
30expenses involved in purchasing and installing a meter that is able 
31to measure electricity flow in two directions. If an additional meter 
32or meters are installed, the net energy metering calculation shall 
33yield a result identical to that of a time-of-use meter.
34(b) (1) Every electrical corporation, not later than March 1, 
352004, shall file with the commission a standard tariff providing 
36for net energy metering for eligible fuel cell
				  customer-generators, 
37consistent with this section. Subject to the limitation in subdivision 
38(f), every electrical corporation shall make this tariff available to 
39eligible fuel cell customer-generators upon request, on a 
40first-come-first-served basis, until the total cumulative rated 
P372  1generating capacity of the eligible fuel cell electrical generating 
2facilities receiving service pursuant to the tariff reaches a level 
3equal to its proportionate share of a statewide limitation of 500 
4megawatts cumulative rated generation capacity served under this 
5section. The proportionate share shall be calculated based on the 
6ratio of the electrical corporation’s peak demand compared to the 
7total statewide peak demand.
8(2) To continue the growth of the market for onsite electrical 
9generation using fuel cells, the commission may review and 
10incrementally raise the limitation established in paragraph (1) on 
11the total cumulative rated generating capacity of the
				  eligible fuel 
12cell electrical generating facilities receiving service pursuant to 
13the tariff in paragraph (1).
14(c) In determining the eligibility for the cumulative rated 
15generating capacity within an electrical corporation’s service 
16territory, preference shall be given to facilities that, at the time of 
17installation, are located in a community with significant exposure 
18to air contaminants or localized air contaminants, or both, 
19including, but not limited to, communities of minority populations 
20or low-income populations, or both, based on the ambient air 
21quality standards established pursuant to Section 39607 of the 
22Health and Safety Code.
23(d) (1) Each net energy metering contract or tariff shall be 
24identical, with respect to rate structure, all retail rate components, 
25and any monthly charges, to the contract or tariff to which the 
26customer would be assigned
				  if the customer was not an eligible 
27fuel cell customer-generator. Any new or additional demand 
28charge, standby charge, customer charge, minimum monthly 
29charge, interconnection charge, or other charge that would increase 
30an eligible fuel cell customer-generator’s costs beyond those of 
31other customers in the rate class to which the eligible fuel cell 
32customer-generator would otherwise be assigned are contrary to 
33the intent of the Legislature in enacting this section, and may not 
34form a part of net energy metering tariffs.
35(2) The commission shall authorize an electrical corporation to 
36charge a fuel cell customer-generator a fee based on the cost to 
37the utility associated with providing interconnection inspection 
38services for that fuel cell customer-generator.
39(e) The net metering calculation shall be made by measuring 
40the difference between the electricity supplied to the eligible
				  fuel 
P373  1cell customer-generator and the electricity generated by the eligible 
2fuel cell customer-generator and fed back to the electrical grid 
3over a 12-month period. The following rules shall apply to the 
4annualized metering calculation:
5(1) The eligible fuel cell customer-generator shall, at the end 
6of each 12-month period following the date of final interconnection 
7of the eligible fuel cell electrical generating facility with an 
8electrical corporation, and at each anniversary date thereafter, be 
9billed for electricity used during that period. The electrical 
10corporation shall determine if the eligible fuel cell 
11customer-generator was a net consumer or a net producer of 
12electricity during that period. For purposes of determining if the 
13eligible fuel cell customer-generator was a net consumer or a net 
14producer of electricity during that period, the electrical corporation 
15shall aggregate the electrical load of the meters located on the 
16property
				  where the eligible fuel cell electrical generating facility 
17is located and on all property adjacent or contiguous to the property 
18on which the facility is located, if those properties are solely 
19owned, leased, or rented by the eligible fuel cell 
20customer-generator. Each aggregated account shall be billed and 
21measured according to a time-of-use rate schedule.
22(2) At the end of each 12-month period, where the electricity 
23supplied during the period by the electrical corporation exceeds 
24the electricity generated by the eligible fuel cell customer-generator 
25during that same period, the eligible fuel cell customer-generator 
26is a net electricity consumer and the electrical corporation shall 
27be owed compensation for the eligible fuel cell 
28customer-generator’s net kilowatthour consumption over that same 
29period. The compensation owed for the eligible fuel cell 
30customer-generator’s consumption shall be calculated as follows:
31(A) The generation charges for any net monthly consumption 
32of electricity shall be calculated according to the terms of the tariff 
33to which the same customer would be assigned to or be eligible 
34for if the customer was not an eligible fuel cell customer-generator. 
35When the eligible fuel cell customer-generator is a net generator 
36during any discrete time-of-use period, the net kilowatthours 
37produced shall be valued at the same price per kilowatthour as the 
38electrical corporation would charge for retail kilowatthour sales 
39for generation, exclusive of any surcharges, during that same 
40time-of-use period. If the eligible fuel cell customer-generator’s 
P374  1time-of-use electrical meter is unable to measure the flow of 
2electricity in two directions, paragraph (4) of subdivision (a) shall 
3apply. All other charges, other than generation charges, shall be 
4calculated in accordance with the eligible fuel cell 
5customer-generator’s applicable tariff and based on the
				  total 
6kilowatthours delivered by the electrical corporation to the eligible 
7fuel cell customer-generator. To the extent that charges for 
8transmission and distribution services are recovered through 
9demand charges in any particular month, no standby reservation 
10charges shall apply in that monthly billing cycle.
11(B) The net balance of moneys owed shall be paid in accordance 
12with the electrical corporation’s normal billing cycle.
13(3) At the end of each 12-month period, where the electricity 
14generated by the eligible fuel cell customer-generator during the 
1512-month period exceeds the electricity supplied by the electrical 
16corporation during that same period, the eligible fuel cell 
17customer-generator is a net electricity producer and the electrical 
18corporation shall retain any excess kilowatthours generated during 
19the prior 12-month period. The eligible fuel cell customer-generator
20
				  shall not be owed any compensation for those excess kilowatthours.
21(4) If an eligible fuel cell customer-generator terminates service 
22with the electrical corporation, the electrical corporation shall 
23reconcile the eligible fuel cell customer-generator’s consumption 
24and production of electricity during any 12-month period.
25(f) No fuel cell electrical generating facility shall be eligible for 
26the tariff unless it commences operation prior to January 1, 2015, 
27unless a later enacted statute, that is chaptered before January 1, 
282015, extends this eligibility commencement date. The tariff shall 
29remain in effect for an eligible fuel cell electrical generating facility 
30that commences operation pursuant to the tariff prior to January 
311, 2015. A fuel cell customer-generator shall be eligible for the 
32tariff established pursuant to this section only for the operating 
33life of the eligible fuel
				  cell electrical generating facility.
Section 2862 of the Public Utilities Code is amended 
35to read:
The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:
37(a) California is heavily dependent on natural gas, importing 
38more than 80 percent of the natural gas it consumes.
P375  1(b) Rising worldwide demand for natural gas and a shrinking 
2supply create rising and unstable prices that can harm California 
3consumers and the economy.
4(c) Natural gas is a fossil fuel and a major source of global 
5warming pollution and the pollutants that cause air pollution, 
6including smog.
7(d) California’s growing population and economy will put a 
8strain on energy supplies and threaten the ability of the state to 
9meet its
				  global warming goals unless specific steps are taken to 
10reduce demand and generate energy cleanly and efficiently.
11(e) Water heating for domestic and industrial use relies almost 
12entirely on natural gas and accounts for a significant percentage 
13of the state’s natural gas consumption.
14(f) Solar water heating systems represent the largest untapped 
15natural gas saving potential remaining in California.
16(g) In addition to financial and energy savings, solar water 
17heating systems can help protect against future gas and electricity 
18shortages and reduce our dependence on foreign sources of energy.
19(h) Solar water heating systems can also help preserve the 
20environment and protect public health by reducing air pollution, 
21including carbon dioxide, a leading global
				  warming gas, and 
22nitrogen oxide, a precursor to smog.
23(i) Growing demand for these technologies will create jobs in 
24California as well as promote greater energy independence, protect 
25consumers from rising energy costs, and result in cleaner air.
26(j) It is in the interest of the State of California to promote solar 
27water heating systems and other technologies that directly reduce 
28demand for natural gas in homes and businesses.
29(k) It is the intent of the Legislature to build a mainstream 
30market for solar water heating systems that directly reduces demand 
31for natural gas in homes, businesses, schools, nonprofit, and 
32government buildings. Toward that end, it is the goal of this article 
33to install at least 200,000 solar water heating systems on homes, 
34businesses, and other buildings or facilities of eligible customer
35
				  classes throughout the state by 2017, thereby lowering prices and 
36creating a self-sufficient market that will sustain itself beyond the 
37life of this program.
38(l) It is the intent of the Legislature that the solar water heating 
39system incentives created by this article should be a cost-effective 
40investment by gas customers. Gas customers will recoup the cost 
P376  1of their investment through lower prices as a result of avoiding 
2purchases of natural gas.
3(m) It is the intent of the Legislature that this article will 
4encourage the cost-effective deployment of solar heating systems 
5in both residential and commercial markets and in each end-use 
6application sector in a balanced manner. It is the intent of the 
7Legislature that the commission monitor and adjust incentives 
8created by this article so that they are cost-effective investments 
9sufficient to significantly increase markets and promote
				  market 
10transformation. It is the intent of the Legislature that the 
11commission ensure that increased, uniform growth in each market 
12sector is achieved through program incentives or structure 
13adjustments that prevent overutilization of program resources by 
14any single sector.
Section 5142 of the Public Utilities Code is amended 
16to read:
(a) Except as provided in Section 5133, a household 
18goods carrier in compliance with this chapter has a lien on used 
19household goods and personal effects to secure payment of the 
20amount specified in subdivision (b) for transportation and 
21additional services ordered by the consignor. A lien does not attach 
22to food, medicine, or medical devices, items used to treat or assist 
23an individual with a disability, or items used for the care of a minor 
24child.
25(b) (1) The amount secured by the lien is the maximum total 
26dollar amount for the transportation of the household goods and 
27personal effects and any additional services (including any bona 
28fide change order permitted under the commission’s tariffs) that 
29is set forth clearly and conspicuously in
				  writing adjacent to the 
30space reserved for the signature of the consignor and that is agreed 
31to by the consignor before any goods or personal effects are moved 
32from their location or any additional services are performed.
33(2) The dollar amount for the transportation of household goods 
34and personal effects and additional services may not be preprinted 
35on any form, shall be just and reasonable, and shall be established 
36in good faith by the household goods carrier based on the specific 
37circumstances of the services to be performed.
38(c) Upon tender to the household goods carrier of the amount 
39specified in subdivision (b), the lien is extinguished, and the 
P377  1household goods carrier shall release all household goods and 
2personal effects to the consignee.
3(d) A household goods carrier may enforce the lien on household 
4goods
				  and personal effects provided in this section except as to 
5any goods that the carrier voluntarily delivers or unjustifiably 
6refuses to deliver. The lien shall be enforced in the manner 
7provided in this section and Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 
89601) of Division 9 of the Commercial Code for the enforcement 
9of a security interest in consumer goods in a consumer transaction. 
10To the extent of any conflict between this section and that Chapter 
116, this section shall prevail. Every act required in connection with 
12enforcing the lien shall be performed in good faith and in a 
13commercially reasonable manner.
14(e) The household goods carrier shall provide a notification of 
15disposition at least 30 days prior to any disposition to each 
16consignor and consignee by personal delivery, or in the alternative, 
17by first-class and certified mail, postage prepaid and return receipt 
18requested, at the address last known by the carrier and at the 
19destination address,
				  and by electronic mail if an electronic mail 
20address is known to the carrier. If any of the required recipients 
21of notice are married to each other, and according to the carrier’s 
22records, reside at the same address, one notice addressed to both 
23shall be sufficient. Within 14 days after a disposition, the carrier 
24shall provide to the consignors any surplus funds from the 
25disposition and an accounting, without charge, of the proceeds of 
26the disposition.
27(f) Any person having possession or control of household goods 
28or personal effects, who knows, or through the exercise of 
29reasonable care should know, that the household goods carrier has 
30been tendered the amount specified in subdivision (b), shall release 
31the household goods and personal effects to the consignor or 
32consignee, upon the request of the consignor or consignee. If the 
33person fails to release the household goods and personal effects 
34to the consignor or consignee, any peace officer, as
				  defined in 
35subdivision (c) of Section 5133, may take custody of the household 
36goods and personal effects and release them to the consignor or 
37consignee.
38(g) This section shall not affect any rights, if any, of a household 
39goods carrier to claim additional amounts, on an unsecured basis, 
40or of a consignor or consignee to make or contest any claim, and 
P378  1tender of payment of the amount specified in subdivision (b) is 
2not a waiver of claims by the consignor or consignee.
3(h) Any person injured by a violation of this section may bring 
4an action for the recovery of the greater of one thousand dollars 
5($1,000) or actual damages, injunctive or other equitable relief, 
6reasonable attorney’s fees and costs, and exemplary damages of 
7not less than three times the amount of actual damages for a willful 
8violation.
9(i) Any waiver of this section shall be void and unenforceable.
10(j) Notwithstanding any other law, this section exclusively 
11establishes and provides for a household goods carrier’s lien on 
12used household goods and personal effects to secure payment for 
13transportation and additional services ordered by the consignor.
14(k) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the 
15following meanings:
16(1) “Consignor” means the person named in the bill of lading 
17as the person from whom the household goods and personal effects 
18have been received for shipment and that person’s agent.
19(2) “Consignee” means the person named in the bill of lading 
20to whom or to whose order the household goods carrier is required 
21to make delivery as provided in the bill of lading and that person’s
22
				  agent.
23(l) Any document required by this section may be in an 
24electronic form, if agreed upon by the carrier and the customer.
Section 5143 of the Public Utilities Code is amended 
26to read:
(a) For purposes of this section, the following terms 
28have the following meanings:
29(1) “Consignor” means the person named in the bill of lading 
30as the person from whom the household goods and personal effects 
31have been received for shipment and that person’s agent.
32(2) “Consignee” means the person named in the bill of lading 
33to whom or to whose order the household goods carrier is required 
34to make delivery as provided in the bill of lading and that person’s 
35agent.
36(b) Any household goods carrier engaged in the business of 
37transportation of used household goods and personal effects by 
38motor vehicle over any public highway in this state
				  shall provide 
39each consignor with a completed copy of the notice set forth in 
40this section. The notice shall be printed in at least 12-point type, 
P379  1except the title and first two paragraphs which shall be printed in 
2boldface type, and provided to each consignor at least three days 
3prior to the date scheduled for the transportation of household 
4goods or personal effects. If the consignor requests services on a 
5date that is less than three days before the scheduled date for 
6transportation of the household goods or personal effects, the 
7carrier shall provide the notice as soon as practicable, but in no 
8event may the carrier commence any services until the consignor 
9has signed and received a signed copy of the notice. The carrier 
10shall obtain sufficient information from the consignor to fill out 
11the form and shall include the correct maximum amount and a 
12sufficient description of services that will be performed. The carrier 
13shall retain a copy of the notice, signed by the consignor, for at 
14least three years from
				  the date the notice was signed by the 
15consignor.
16(c) Any waiver of the requirements of this section is void and 
17unenforceable.
18(d) The “Not To Exceed” amount set forth in the notice and the 
19agreement between the household goods carrier and the consignor 
20shall be the maximum total dollar amount for which the consignor 
21may be liable for the transportation of household goods and 
22personal effects and any additional services ordered by the 
23consignor (including any bona fide change order permitted under 
24the commission’s rules and tariffs) and agreed to by the consignor 
25before any goods or personal effects are moved from their location 
26or any other services are performed.
27(e) A household goods carrier may provide the notice set forth 
28in this section either as a separate document or by including it as 
29the centerfold of the
				  informational booklet that the household 
30goods carrier is required to provide the consignor under the 
31commission’s tariffs. If the household goods carrier provides the 
32notice as part of the informational booklet, the booklet shall contain 
33a tab that extends beyond the edge of the booklet at the place where 
34the notice is included. The statement “Important Notice” shall be 
35printed on the tab in at least 12-point boldface type. In addition, 
36the statement “Customer Must Read And Sign The Important 
37Notice In The Middle Of This Booklet Before A Move Can Begin” 
38shall be set forth in 14-point boldface type on the front cover of 
39the booklet.
P380  1(f) The notice provided the consignor shall be in the following 
2form:
6“IT IS VERY IMPORTANT THAT YOU ONLY AGREE TO A 
7“NOT TO EXCEED” AMOUNT THAT YOU THINK IS A 
8PROPER
				  AND REASONABLE FEE FOR THE SERVICES YOU 
9ARE REQUESTING. THE “NOT TO EXCEED” AMOUNT THIS 
10MOVER IS REQUESTING IS $______________________ to 
11perform the following services:
12_____________________________________________________________________
13______________________________________________________________________
14______________________________________________________________________.
15
16“IF YOU DO NOT AGREE TO THE “NOT TO EXCEED” 
17AMOUNT LISTED OR THE DESCRIPTION OF SERVICES, 
18YOU HAVE THE RIGHT TO REFUSE THE MOVER’S 
19SERVICE AT NO CHARGE TO YOU.
20“If you request additional or different services at the time of the 
21move, you may be asked to complete a Change Order which will 
22set forth your agreement to pay for additional fees for those newly 
23requested services. If you agree to the additional charges on that 
24Change Order, those charges may be added to the “NOT TO 
25EXCEED” amount
				  set forth above. If you do not agree to the 
26amounts listed in the Change Order, you should not sign it and 
27may refuse the mover’s services.
28“A mover cannot refuse to release your goods once you have paid 
29the “NOT TO EXCEED” amount for the transportation of your 
30goods and personal effects and any additional services that you 
31have agreed to in writing. The “NOT TO EXCEED” amount must 
32be reasonable.
33“A mover cannot, under any circumstances, withhold food, 
34medicine, medical devices, items to treat or assist a disabled person, 
35or items used for care of a minor child. An unlicensed mover has 
36no right to withhold your goods for any reason including claims 
37that you have not adequately paid for services rendered.
38“For additional information or to confirm whether a mover is 
   
 
   .
   “I have completed this form and provided the consumer (shipper) with a copy of this notice. “I have been provided with a copy of this form.  
39licensed by the California Public Utilities Commission, please
				  call 
40the Public Utilities Commission toll free at: 
P381 11
 
  
 
  
 
 
 
 
 
insert toll-free number 
 
 
“Signed ___________________________Dated____________________
 
 
“Signed ___________________________Dated___________________”
12(g) Any document required by this section may be in an 
13electronic form, if agreed upon by the carrier and the customer.
Section 9506 of the Public Utilities Code is amended 
15to read:
(a) A local publicly owned electric utility shall report 
17to the Energy Commission regarding the energy storage system 
18procurement targets and policies adopted by the governing board 
19pursuant to paragraph (2) of, and report any modifications made 
20to those targets as a result of a reevaluation undertaken pursuant 
21to paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) of Section 2836.
22(b) By January 1, 2017, a local publicly owned electric utility 
23shall submit a report to the Energy Commission demonstrating 
24that it has complied with the energy storage system procurement 
25targets and policies adopted by the governing board pursuant to 
26subdivision (b) of Section 2836.
27(c) By January 1, 2021, a local publicly owned electric
				  utility 
28shall submit a report to the Energy Commission demonstrating 
29that it has complied with the energy storage system procurement 
30targets and policies adopted by the governing board pursuant to 
31subdivision (b) of Section 2836.
32(d) The Energy Commission shall ensure that a copy of each 
33report or plan required by subdivisions (b) and (c), with any 
34confidential information redacted, is available on the Energy 
35Commission’s Internet Web site, or on an Internet Web site 
36maintained by the local publicly owned electric utility that can be 
37accessed from the Energy Commission’s Internet Web site.
38(e) A summary of the reports required by this section shall be 
39included as part of each integrated energy policy report required 
40pursuant to Section 25302 of the Public Resources Code.
Section 185035 of the Public Utilities Code is 
2amended to read:
(a) The authority shall establish an independent peer 
4review group for the purpose of reviewing the planning, 
5engineering, financing, and other elements of the authority’s plans 
6and issuing an analysis of the appropriateness and accuracy of the 
7authority’s assumptions and an analysis of the viability of the 
8authority’s financing plan, including the funding plan for each 
9corridor required pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 2704.08 
10of the Streets and Highways Code.
11(b) The peer review group shall include all of the following:
12(1) Two individuals with experience in the construction or 
13operation of high-speed trains in Europe, Asia, or both, designated 
14by the
				  Treasurer.
15(2) Two individuals, one with experience in engineering and 
16construction of high-speed trains and one with experience in project 
17finance, designated by the Controller.
18(3) One representative from a financial services or financial 
19consulting firm who shall not have been a contractor or 
20subcontractor of the authority for the previous three years, 
21designated by the Director of Finance.
22(4) One representative with experience in environmental 
23planning, designated by the Secretary of Business, Transportation 
24and Housing.
25(5) Two expert representatives from agencies providing intercity 
26or commuter passenger train services in California, designated by 
27the Secretary of Business, Transportation and Housing.
28(c) The peer review group shall evaluate the authority’s funding 
29plans and prepare its independent judgment as to the feasibility 
30and reasonableness of the plans, appropriateness of assumptions, 
31analyses, and estimates, and any other observations or evaluations 
32it deems necessary.
33(d) The authority shall provide the peer review group any and 
34all information that the peer review group may request to carry 
35out its responsibilities.
36(e) The peer review group shall report its findings and 
37conclusions to the Legislature no later than 60 days after receiving 
38the plans.
Section 2188.6 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, 
2as amended by Section 79 of Chapter 181 of the Statutes of 2012, 
3is amended to read:
(a) Unless a request for exemption has been recorded 
5pursuant to subdivision (d), prior to the creation of a condominium 
6as defined in Section 783 of the Civil Code, the county assessor 
7may separately assess each individual unit which is shown on the 
8condominium plan of a proposed condominium project when all 
9of the following documents have been recorded as required by 
10law:
11(1) A subdivision final map or parcel map, as described in 
12Sections 66434 and 66445, respectively, of the Government Code.
13(2) A condominium plan, as defined in Section 4120 of the Civil 
14Code.
15(3) A declaration, as defined in Section 4135 of the Civil Code.
16(b) The tax due on each individual unit shall constitute a lien 
17solely on that unit.
18(c) The lien created pursuant to this section shall be a lien on 
19an undivided interest in a portion of real property coupled with a 
20separate interest in space called a unit as described in Section 4125 
21of the Civil Code.
22(d) The record owner of the real property may record with the 
23condominium plan a request that the real property be exempt from 
24separate assessment pursuant to this section. If a request for 
25exemption is recorded, separate assessment of a condominium unit 
26shall be made only in accordance with Section 2188.3.
27(e) This section shall become operative on January 1, 1990, and 
28shall apply to condominium projects for which a condominium 
29plan is recorded after that
				  date.
Section 7285.3 of the Revenue and Taxation Code
31 is amended to read:
The combined rate of all taxes imposed in any county 
33pursuant to this chapter and pursuant to Part 1.6 (commencing 
34with Section 7251) shall not exceed the rate specified in Section 
357251.1.
Section 17276.20 of the Revenue and Taxation Code
37 is amended to read:
Except as provided in Sections 17276.1, 17276.2, 
3917276.4, 17276.5, 17276.6, and 17276.7, the deduction provided 
P384  1by Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to net 
2operating loss deduction, shall be modified as follows:
3(a) (1) Net operating losses attributable to taxable years 
4beginning before January 1, 1987, shall not be allowed.
5(2) A net operating loss shall not be carried forward to any 
6taxable year beginning before January 1, 1987.
7(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2) and (3), the 
8provisions of Section 172(b)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, 
9relating to amount of carrybacks and carryovers,
				  shall be modified 
10so that the applicable percentage of the entire amount of the net 
11operating loss for any taxable year shall be eligible for carryover 
12to any subsequent taxable year. For purposes of this subdivision, 
13the applicable percentage shall be:
14(A) Fifty percent for any taxable year beginning before January 
151, 2000.
16(B) Fifty-five percent for any taxable year beginning on or after 
17January 1, 2000, and before January 1, 2002.
18(C) Sixty percent for any taxable year beginning on or after 
19January 1, 2002, and before January 1, 2004.
20(D) One hundred percent for any taxable year beginning on or 
21after January 1, 2004.
22(2) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net operating loss in any
23
				  taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, and who 
24operates a new business during that taxable year, each of the 
25following shall apply to each loss incurred during the first three 
26taxable years of operating the new business:
27(A) If the net operating loss is equal to or less than the net loss 
28from the new business, 100 percent of the net operating loss shall 
29be carried forward as provided in subdivision (d).
30(B) If the net operating loss is greater than the net loss from the 
31new business, the net operating loss shall be carried over as 
32follows:
33(i) With respect to an amount equal to the net loss from the new 
34business, 100 percent of that amount shall be carried forward as 
35provided in subdivision (d).
36(ii) With respect to the portion of the net
				  operating loss that 
37exceeds the net loss from the new business, the applicable 
38percentage of that amount shall be carried forward as provided in 
39subdivision (d).
P385  1(C) For purposes of Section 172(b)(2) of the Internal Revenue 
2Code, the amount described in clause (ii) of subparagraph (B) shall 
3be absorbed before the amount described in clause (i) of 
4subparagraph (B).
5(3) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net operating loss in any 
6taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, and who 
7operates an eligible small business during that taxable year, each 
8of the following shall apply:
9(A) If the net operating loss is equal to or less than the net loss 
10from the eligible small business, 100 percent of the net operating 
11loss shall be carried forward to the taxable years specified in 
12subdivision (d).
13(B) If the net operating loss is greater than the net loss from the 
14eligible small business, the net operating loss shall be carried over 
15as follows:
16(i) With respect to an amount equal to the net loss from the 
17eligible small business, 100 percent of that amount shall be carried 
18forward as provided in subdivision (d).
19(ii) With respect to that portion of the net operating loss that 
20exceeds the net loss from the eligible small business, the applicable 
21percentage of that amount shall be carried forward as provided in 
22subdivision (d).
23(C) For purposes of Section 172(b)(2) of the Internal Revenue 
24Code, the amount described in clause (ii) of subparagraph (B) shall 
25be absorbed before the amount described in clause (i) of 
26subparagraph (B).
27(4) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net operating loss in a 
28taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, and who 
29operates a business that qualifies as both a new business and an 
30eligible small business under this section, that business shall be 
31treated as a new business for the first three taxable years of the 
32new business.
33(5) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net operating loss in a 
34taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, and who 
35operates more than one business, and more than one of those 
36businesses qualifies as either a new business or an eligible small 
37business under this section, paragraph (2) shall be applied first, 
38except that if there is any remaining portion of the net operating 
39loss after application of clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of that 
40paragraph, paragraph (3) shall be applied to the remaining portion 
P386  1of the net operating loss as though that
				  remaining portion of the 
2net operating loss constituted the entire net operating loss.
3(6) For purposes of this section, the term “net loss” means the 
4amount of net loss after application of Sections 465 and 469 of the 
5Internal Revenue Code.
6(c) Section 172(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to 
7years to which the loss may be carried, is modified as follows:
8(1) Net operating loss carrybacks shall not be allowed for any 
9net operating losses attributable to taxable years beginning before 
10January 1, 2013.
11(2) A net operating loss attributable to taxable years beginning 
12on or after January 1, 2013, shall be a net operating loss carryback 
13to each of the two taxable years preceding the taxable year of the 
14loss in lieu of the number of years provided
				  therein.
15(A) For a net operating loss attributable to a taxable year 
16beginning on or after January 1, 2013, and before January 1, 2014, 
17the amount of carryback to any taxable year shall not exceed 50 
18percent of the net operating loss.
19(B) For a net operating loss attributable to a taxable year 
20beginning on or after January 1, 2014, and before January 1, 2015, 
21the amount of carryback to any taxable year shall not exceed 75 
22percent of the net operating loss.
23(C) For a net operating loss attributable to a taxable year 
24beginning on or after January 1, 2015, the amount of carryback to 
25any taxable year shall not exceed 100 percent of the net operating 
26loss.
27(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (2), Section 172(b)(1)(B) of the 
28Internal Revenue Code, relating to
				  special rules for REITs, and 
29Section 172(b)(1)(E) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to 
30excess interest loss, and Section 172(h) of the Internal Revenue 
31Code, relating to corporate equity reduction interest losses, shall 
32apply as provided.
33(4) A net operating loss carryback shall not be carried back to 
34any taxable year beginning before January 1, 2011.
35(d) (1) (A) For a net operating loss for any taxable year 
36beginning on or after January 1, 1987, and before January 1, 2000, 
37Section 172(b)(1)(A)(ii) of the Internal Revenue Code is modified 
38to substitute “five taxable years” in lieu of “20 taxable years” 
39except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (2) and (3).
P387  1(B) For a net operating loss for any taxable year beginning on 
2or after January 1, 2000, and before January 1,
				  2008, Section 
3172(b)(1)(A)(ii) of the Internal Revenue Code is modified to 
4substitute “10 taxable years” in lieu of “20 taxable years.”
5(2) For any taxable year beginning before January 1, 2000, in 
6the case of a “new business,” the “five taxable years” in paragraph 
7(1) shall be modified to read as follows:
8(A) “Eight taxable years” for a net operating loss attributable 
9to the first taxable year of that new business.
10(B) “Seven taxable years” for a net operating loss attributable 
11to the second taxable year of that new business.
12(C) “Six taxable years” for a net operating loss attributable to 
13the third taxable year of that new business.
14(3) For any carryover of a net operating loss for which
				  a 
15deduction is denied by Section 17276.3, the carryover period 
16specified in this subdivision shall be extended as follows:
17(A) By one year for a net operating loss attributable to taxable 
18years beginning in 1991.
19(B) By two years for a net operating loss attributable to taxable 
20years beginning prior to January 1, 1991.
21(4) The net operating loss attributable to taxable years beginning 
22on or after January 1, 1987, and before January 1, 1994, shall be 
23a net operating loss carryover to each of the 10 taxable years 
24following the year of the loss if it is incurred by a taxpayer that is 
25under the jurisdiction of the court in a Title 11 or similar case at 
26any time during the income year. The loss carryover provided in 
27the preceding sentence shall not apply to any loss incurred after 
28the date the taxpayer is no longer under
				  the jurisdiction of the court 
29in a Title 11 or similar case.
30(e) For purposes of this section:
31(1) “Eligible small business” means any trade or business that 
32has gross receipts, less returns and allowances, of less than one 
33million dollars ($1,000,000) during the taxable year.
34(2) Except as provided in subdivision (f), “new business” means 
35any trade or business activity that is first commenced in this state 
36on or after January 1, 1994.
37(3) “Title 11 or similar case” shall have the same meaning as 
38in Section 368(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.
P388  1(4) In the case of any trade or business activity conducted by a 
2partnership or “S” corporation paragraphs (1) and (2) shall be 
3applied to the
				  partnership or “S” corporation.
4(f) For purposes of this section, in determining whether a trade 
5or business activity qualifies as a new business under paragraph 
6(2) of subdivision (e), the following rules shall apply:
7(1) In any case where a taxpayer purchases or otherwise acquires 
8all or any portion of the assets of an existing trade or business 
9(irrespective of the form of entity) that is doing business in this 
10state (within the meaning of Section 23101), the trade or business 
11thereafter conducted by the taxpayer (or any related person) shall 
12not be treated as a new business if the aggregate fair market value 
13of the acquired assets (including real, personal, tangible, and 
14intangible property) used by the taxpayer (or any related person) 
15in the conduct of its trade or business exceeds 20 percent of the 
16aggregate fair market value of the total assets of the trade or 
17business
				  being conducted by the taxpayer (or any related person). 
18For purposes of this paragraph only, the following rules shall apply:
19(A) The determination of the relative fair market values of the 
20acquired assets and the total assets shall be made as of the last day 
21of the first taxable year in which the taxpayer (or any related 
22person) first uses any of the acquired trade or business assets in 
23its business activity.
24(B) Any acquired assets that constituted property described in 
25Section 1221(1) of the Internal Revenue Code in the hands of the 
26transferor shall not be treated as assets acquired from an existing 
27trade or business, unless those assets also constitute property 
28described in Section 1221(1) of the Internal Revenue Code in the 
29hands of the acquiring taxpayer (or related person).
30(2) In any case where a taxpayer
				  (or any related person) is 
31engaged in one or more trade or business activities in this state, or 
32has been engaged in one or more trade or business activities in this 
33state within the preceding 36 months (“prior trade or business 
34activity”), and thereafter commences an additional trade or business 
35activity in this state, the additional trade or business activity shall 
36only be treated as a new business if the additional trade or business 
37activity is classified under a different division of the Standard 
38Industrial Classification (SIC) Manual published by the United 
39States Office of Management and Budget, 1987 edition, than are 
P389  1any of the taxpayer’s (or any related person’s) current or prior 
2trade or business activities.
3(3) In any case where a taxpayer, including all related persons, 
4is engaged in trade or business activities wholly outside of this 
5state and the taxpayer first commences doing business in this state 
6(within the meaning of Section
				  23101) after December 31, 1993 
7(other than by purchase or other acquisition described in paragraph 
8(1)), the trade or business activity shall be treated as a new business 
9under paragraph (2) of subdivision (e).
10(4) In any case where the legal form under which a trade or 
11business activity is being conducted is changed, the change in form 
12shall be disregarded and the determination of whether the trade or 
13business activity is a new business shall be made by treating the 
14taxpayer as having purchased or otherwise acquired all or any 
15portion of the assets of an existing trade or business under the rules 
16of paragraph (1).
17(5) “Related person” shall mean any person that is related to 
18the taxpayer under either Section 267 or 318 of the Internal 
19Revenue Code.
20(6) “Acquire” shall include any gift, inheritance, transfer incident
21
				  to divorce, or any other transfer, whether or not for consideration.
22(7) (A) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 1997, 
23the term “new business” shall include any taxpayer that is engaged 
24in biopharmaceutical activities or other biotechnology activities 
25that are described in Codes 2833 to 2836, inclusive, of the Standard 
26Industrial Classification (SIC) Manual published by the United 
27States Office of Management and Budget, 1987 edition, and as 
28further amended, and that has not received regulatory approval for 
29any product from the Food and Drug Administration.
30(B) For purposes of this paragraph:
31(i) “Biopharmaceutical activities” means those activities that 
32use organisms or materials derived from organisms, and their 
33cellular, subcellular, or molecular components, in order to provide
34
				  pharmaceutical products for human or animal therapeutics and 
35diagnostics. Biopharmaceutical activities make use of living 
36organisms to make commercial products, as opposed to 
37pharmaceutical activities that make use of chemical compounds 
38to produce commercial products.
39(ii) “Other biotechnology activities” means activities consisting 
40of the application of recombinant DNA technology to produce 
P390  1commercial products, as well as activities regarding pharmaceutical 
2delivery systems designed to provide a measure of control over 
3the rate, duration, and site of pharmaceutical delivery.
4(g) In computing the modifications under Section 172(d)(2) of 
5the Internal Revenue Code, relating to capital gains and losses of 
6taxpayers other than corporations, the exclusion provided by 
7Section 18152.5 shall not be allowed.
8(h) Notwithstanding any provisions of this section to the 
9contrary, a deduction shall be allowed to a “qualified taxpayer” as 
10provided in Sections 17276.1, 17276.2, 17276.4, 17276.5, 17276.6, 
11and 17276.7.
12(i) The Franchise Tax Board may prescribe appropriate 
13regulations to carry out the purposes of this section, including any 
14regulations necessary to prevent the avoidance of the purposes of 
15this section through splitups, shell corporations, partnerships, tiered 
16ownership structures, or otherwise.
17(j) The Franchise Tax Board may reclassify any net operating 
18loss carryover determined under either paragraph (2) or (3) of 
19subdivision (b) as a net operating loss carryover under paragraph 
20(1) of subdivision (b) upon a showing that the reclassification is 
21necessary to prevent evasion of the purposes of this section.
22(k) Except as otherwise provided, the amendments made by 
23Chapter 107 of the Statutes of 2000 shall apply to net operating 
24losses for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2000.
Section 18152.5 of the Revenue and Taxation Code
26 is amended to read:
(a) For purposes of this part, gross income shall not 
28include 50 percent of any gain from the sale or exchange of 
29qualified small business stock held for more than five years.
30(b) (1) If the taxpayer has eligible gain for the taxable year 
31from one or more dispositions of stock issued by any corporation, 
32the aggregate amount of the gain from dispositions of stock issued 
33by the corporation which may be taken into account under 
34subdivision (a) for the taxable year shall not exceed the greater of 
35either of the following:
36(A) Ten million dollars ($10,000,000) reduced by the aggregate 
37amount of eligible gain taken into account by the taxpayer
				  under 
38subdivision (a) for prior taxable years and attributable to 
39dispositions of stock issued by the corporation.
P391  1(B) Ten times the aggregate adjusted bases of qualified small 
2business stock issued by the corporation and disposed of by the 
3taxpayer during the taxable year. For purposes of this subparagraph, 
4the adjusted basis of any stock shall be determined without regard 
5to any addition to the basis after the date on which the stock was 
6originally issued.
7(2) For purposes of this subdivision, the term “eligible gain” 
8means any gain from the sale or exchange of qualified small 
9business stock held for more than five years.
10(3) (A) In the case of a married individual filing a separate 
11return, subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) shall be applied by 
12substituting five million dollars ($5,000,000) for
				  ten million dollars 
13($10,000,000).
14(B) In the case of a married taxpayer filing a joint return, the 
15amount of gain taken into account under subdivision (a) shall be 
16allocated equally between the spouses for purposes of applying 
17this subdivision to subsequent taxable years.
18(C) For purposes of this subdivision, marital status shall be 
19determined under Section 7703 of the Internal Revenue Code.
20(c) For purposes of this section:
21(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the term 
22“qualified small business stock” means any stock in a C corporation 
23which is originally issued after August 10, 1993, if both of the 
24following apply:
25(A) As of the date of issuance, the corporation is a
				  qualified 
26small business.
27(B) Except as provided in subdivisions (f) and (h), the stock is 
28acquired by the taxpayer at its original issue (directly or through 
29an underwriter) in either of the following manners:
30(i) In exchange for money or other property (not including 
31stock).
32(ii) As compensation for services provided to the corporation 
33(other than services performed as an underwriter of the stock).
34(2) (A) Stock in a corporation shall not be treated as qualified 
35small business stock unless, during substantially all of the 
36taxpayer’s holding period for the stock, the corporation meets the 
37active business requirements of subdivision (e) and the corporation 
38is a C corporation.
39(B) (i) Notwithstanding subdivision (e), a corporation shall be 
40treated as meeting the active business requirements of subdivision 
P392  1(e) for any period during which the corporation qualifies as a 
2specialized small business investment company.
3(ii) For purposes of clause (i), the term “specialized small 
4business investment company” means any eligible corporation (as 
5defined in paragraph (4) of subdivision (e)) that is licensed to 
6operate under former Section 301(d) of the federal Small Business 
7Investment Act of 1958 (as in effect on May 13, 1993).
8(3) (A) Stock acquired by the taxpayer shall not be treated as 
9qualified small business stock if, at any time during the four-year 
10period beginning on the date two years before the issuance of the 
11stock, the corporation issuing the stock purchased (directly or 
12indirectly) any of its
				  stock from the taxpayer or from a related 
13person (within the meaning of Section 267(b) or 707(b)) to the 
14taxpayer.
15(B) Stock issued by a corporation shall not be treated as qualified 
16small business stock if, during the two-year period beginning on 
17the date one year before the issuance of the stock, the corporation 
18made one or more purchases of its stock with an aggregate value 
19(as of the time of the respective purchases) exceeding 5 percent 
20of the aggregate value of all of its stock as of the beginning of the 
21two-year period.
22(C) If any transaction is treated under Section 304(a) of the 
23Internal Revenue Code as a distribution in redemption of the stock 
24of any corporation, for purposes of subparagraphs (A) and (B), the 
25corporation shall be treated as purchasing an amount of its stock 
26equal to the amount treated as a distribution in redemption of the 
27stock of the corporation under
				  Section 304(a) of the Internal 
28Revenue Code.
29(d) For purposes of this section:
30(1) The term “qualified small business” means any domestic 
31corporation (as defined in Section 7701(a)(4) of the Internal 
32Revenue Code) which is a C corporation if all of the following 
33apply:
34(A) The aggregate gross assets of the corporation (or any 
35predecessor thereof) at all times on or after July 1, 1993, and before 
36the issuance did not exceed fifty million dollars ($50,000,000).
37(B) The aggregate gross assets of the corporation immediately 
38after the issuance (determined by taking into account amounts 
39received in the issuance) do not exceed fifty million dollars 
40($50,000,000).
P393  1(C) At least 80 percent of the
				  corporation’s payroll, as measured 
2by total dollar value, is attributable to employment located within 
3California.
4(D) The corporation agrees to submit those reports to the 
5Franchise Tax Board and to shareholders as the Franchise Tax 
6Board may require to carry out the purposes of this section.
7(2) (A) For purposes of paragraph (1), the term “aggregate 
8gross assets” means the amount of cash and the aggregate adjusted 
9basis of other property held by the corporation.
10(B) For purposes of subparagraph (A), the adjusted basis of any 
11property contributed to the corporation (or other property with a 
12basis determined in whole or in part by reference to the adjusted 
13basis of property so contributed) shall be determined as if the basis 
14of the property contributed to the corporation immediately after 
15the
				  contribution was equal to its fair market value as of the time 
16of the contribution.
17(3) (A) All corporations which are members of the same 
18parent-subsidiary controlled group shall be treated as one 
19corporation for purposes of this subdivision.
20(B) For purposes of subparagraph (A), the term 
21“parent-subsidiary controlled group” means any controlled group 
22of corporations as defined in Section 1563(a)(1) of the Internal 
23Revenue Code, except that both of the following shall apply:
24(i) “More than 50 percent” shall be substituted for “at least 80 
25percent” each place it appears in Section 1563(a)(1) of the Internal 
26Revenue Code.
27(ii) Section 1563(a)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not 
28apply.
29(e) (1) For purposes of paragraph (2) of subdivision (c), the 
30requirements of this subdivision are met by a corporation for any 
31period if during that period both of the following apply:
32(A) At least 80 percent (by value) of the assets of the corporation 
33are used by the corporation in the active conduct of one or more 
34qualified trades or businesses in California.
35(B) The corporation is an eligible corporation.
36(2) For purposes of paragraph (1), if, in connection with any 
37future qualified trade or business, a corporation is engaged in:
38(A) Startup activities described in Section 195(c)(1)(A) of the 
39Internal Revenue Code,
P394  1(B) Activities resulting in the payment or incurring of 
2expenditures which may be treated as research and experimental 
3expenditures under Section 174 of the Internal Revenue Code, or
4(C) Activities with respect to in-house research expenses 
5described in Sectionbegin delete 41(b)(2)end deletebegin insert 41(b)(4)end insert of the Internal Revenue 
6Code, then assets used in those activities shall be treated as used 
7in the active conduct of a qualified trade or business. Any 
8determination under this paragraph shall be made without regard 
9to whether a corporation has any gross income from those activities 
10at the time of the determination.
11(3) For purposes of this subdivision, the term “qualified trade 
12or business” means any
				  trade or business other than any of the 
13following:
14(A) Any trade or business involving the performance of services 
15in the fields of health, law, engineering, architecture, accounting, 
16actuarial science, performing arts, consulting, athletics, financial 
17services, brokerage services, or any trade or business where the 
18principal asset of the trade or business is the reputation or skill of 
19one or more of its employees.
20(B) Any banking, insurance, financing, leasing, investing, or 
21similar business.
22(C) Any farming business (including the business of raising or 
23harvesting trees).
24(D) Any business involving the production or extraction of 
25products of a character with respect to which a deduction is 
26allowable under Section 613 or 613A of the Internal Revenue
27
				  Code.
28(E) Any business of operating a hotel, motel, restaurant, or 
29similar business.
30(4) For purposes of this subdivision, the term “eligible 
31corporation” means any domestic corporation, except that the term 
32shall not include any of the following:
33(A) A DISC or former DISC.
34(B) A corporation with respect to which an election under 
35Section 936 of the Internal Revenue Code is in effect or which has 
36a direct or indirect subsidiary with respect to which the election 
37is in effect.
38(C) A regulated investment company, real estate investment 
39trust (REIT), or real estate mortgage investment conduit (REMIC).
40(D) A cooperative.
P395  1(5) (A) For purposes of this subdivision, stock and debt in any 
2subsidiary corporation shall be disregarded and the parent 
3corporation shall be deemed to own its ratable share of the 
4subsidiary’s assets, and to conduct its ratable share of the 
5subsidiary’s activities.
6(B) A corporation shall be treated as failing to meet the 
7requirements of paragraph (1) for any period during which more 
8than 10 percent of the value of its assets (in excess of liabilities) 
9consists of stock or securities in other corporations which are not 
10subsidiaries of the corporation (other than assets described in 
11paragraph (6)).
12(C) For purposes of this paragraph, a corporation shall be 
13considered a subsidiary if the parent owns more than 50 percent 
14of the combined voting power of all classes of stock entitled to 
15vote, or more
				  than 50 percent in value of all outstanding stock, of 
16the corporation.
17(6) For purposes of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1), the 
18following assets shall be treated as used in the active conduct of 
19a qualified trade or business:
20(A) Assets that are held as a part of the reasonably required 
21working capital needs of a qualified trade or business of the 
22corporation.
23(B) Assets that are held for investment and are reasonably 
24expected to be used within two years to finance research and 
25experimentation in a qualified trade or business or increases in 
26working capital needs of a qualified trade or business. For periods 
27after the corporation has been in existence for at least two years, 
28in no event may more than 50 percent of the assets of the 
29corporation qualify as used in the active conduct of a qualified 
30trade or business
				  by reason of this paragraph.
31(7) A corporation shall not be treated as meeting the 
32requirements of paragraph (1) for any period during which more 
33than 10 percent of the total value of its assets consists of real 
34property that is not used in the active conduct of a qualified trade 
35or business. For purposes of the preceding sentence, the ownership 
36of, dealing in, or renting of, real property shall not be treated as 
37the active conduct of a qualified trade or business.
38(8) For purposes of paragraph (1), rights to computer software 
39that produces active business computer software royalties (within 
40the meaning of Section 543(d)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code) 
P396  1shall be treated as an asset used in the active conduct of a trade or 
2business.
3(9) A corporation shall not be treated as meeting the 
4requirements of paragraph (1)
				  for any period during which more 
5than 20 percent of the corporation’s total payroll expense is 
6attributable to employment located outside of California.
7(f) If any stock in a corporation is acquired solely through the 
8conversion of other stock in the corporation that is qualified small 
9business stock in the hands of the taxpayer, both of the following 
10shall apply:
11(1) The stock so acquired shall be treated as qualified small 
12business stock in the hands of the taxpayer.
13(2) The stock so acquired shall be treated as having been held 
14during the period during which the converted stock was held.
15(g) (1) If any amount included in gross income by reason of 
16holding an interest in a pass-thru entity meets the requirements of 
17paragraph (2),
				  then both of the following shall apply:
18(A) The amount shall be treated as gain described in subdivision 
19(a).
20(B) For purposes of applying subdivision (b), the amount shall 
21be treated as gain from a disposition of stock in the corporation 
22issuing the stock disposed of by the pass-thru entity and the 
23taxpayer’s proportionate share of the adjusted basis of the pass-thru 
24entity in the stock shall be taken into account.
25(2) An amount meets the requirements of this paragraph if both 
26of the following apply:
27(A) The amount is attributable to gain on the sale or exchange 
28by the pass-thru entity of stock that is qualified small business 
29stock in the hands of the entity (determined by treating the entity 
30as an individual) and that was held by that entity for more
				  than 
31five years.
32(B) The amount is includable in the gross income of the taxpayer 
33by reason of the holding of an interest in the entity that was held 
34by the taxpayer on the date on which the pass-thru entity acquired 
35the stock and at all times thereafter before the disposition of the 
36stock by the pass-thru entity.
37(3) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to any amount to the extent 
38the amount exceeds the amount to which paragraph (1) would have 
39applied if the amount was determined by reference to the interest 
P397  1the taxpayer held in the pass-thru entity on the date the qualified 
2small business stock was acquired.
3(4) For purposes of this subdivision, the termbegin delete “pass-throughend delete
4begin insert
				  “pass-thruend insert entity” means any of the following:
5(A) Any partnership.
6(B) Any S corporation.
7(C) Any regulated investment company.
8(D) Any common trust fund.
9(h) For purposes of this section:
10(1) In the case of a transfer described in paragraph (2), the 
11transferee shall be treated as meeting both of the following:
12(A) Having acquired the stock in the same manner as the 
13transferor.
14(B) Having held the stock during any continuous period 
15immediately preceding the
				  transfer during which it was held (or 
16treated as held under this subdivision) by the transferor.
17(2) A transfer is described in this subdivision if the transfer is 
18any of the following:
19(A) By gift.
20(B) At death.
21(C) From a partnership to a partner of stock with respect to 
22which requirements similar to the requirements of subdivision (g) 
23are met at the time of the transfer (without regard to the five-year 
24holding period requirement).
25(3) Rules similar to the rules of Section 1244(d)(2) of the 
26Internal Revenue Code shall apply for purposes of this section.
27(4) (A) In the case of a transaction described in
				  Section 351 of 
28the Internal Revenue Code or a reorganization described in Section 
29368 of the Internal Revenue Code, if qualified small business stock 
30is exchanged for other stock that would not qualify as qualified 
31small business stock but for this subparagraph, the other stock 
32shall be treated as qualified small business stock acquired on the 
33date on which the exchanged stock was acquired.
34(B) This section shall apply to gain from the sale or exchange 
35of stock treated as qualified small business stock by reason of 
36subparagraph (A) only to the extent of the gain that would have 
37been recognized at the time of the transfer described in 
38subparagraph (A) if Section 351 or 368 of the Internal Revenue 
39Code had not applied at that time. The preceding sentence shall 
40not apply if the stock that is treated as qualified small business 
P398  1stock by reason of subparagraph (A) is issued by a corporation 
2that (as of the time of the transfer described in
				  subparagraph (A)) 
3is a qualified small business.
4(C) For purposes of this paragraph, stock treated as qualified 
5small business stock under subparagraph (A) shall be so treated 
6for subsequent transactions or reorganizations, except that the 
7limitation of subparagraph (B) shall be applied as of the time of 
8the first transfer to which the limitation applied (determined after 
9the application of the second sentence of subparagraph (B)).
10(D) In the case of a transaction described in Section 351 of the 
11Internal Revenue Code, this paragraph shall apply only if 
12immediately after the transaction the corporation issuing the stock 
13owns directly or indirectly stock representing control (within the 
14meaning of Section 368(c) of the Internal Revenue Code) of the 
15corporation whose stock was exchanged.
16(i) For purposes of this section:
17(1) In the case where the taxpayer transfers property (other than 
18money or stock) to a corporation in exchange for stock in the 
19corporation, both of the following shall apply:
20(A) The stock shall be treated as having been acquired by the 
21taxpayer on the date of the exchange.
22(B) The basis of the stock in the hands of the taxpayer shall in 
23no event be less than the fair market value of the property 
24exchanged.
25(2) If the adjusted basis of any qualified small business stock 
26is adjusted by reason of any contribution to capital after the date 
27on which the stock was originally issued, in determining the 
28amount of the adjustment by reason of the contribution, the basis 
29of the contributed property shall in no event be treated as less than 
30its fair
				  market value on the date of the contribution.
31(j) (1) If the taxpayer has an offsetting short position with 
32respect to any qualified small business stock, subdivision (a) shall 
33not apply to any gain from the sale or exchange of the stock unless 
34both of the following apply:
35(A) The stock was held by the taxpayer for more than five years 
36as of the first day on which there was such a short position.
37(B) The taxpayer elects to recognize gain as if the stock was 
38sold on that first day for its fair market value.
P399  1(2) For purposes of paragraph (1), the taxpayer shall be treated 
2as having an offsetting short position with respect to any qualified 
3small business stock if any of the following apply:
4(A) The taxpayer has made a short sale of substantially identical 
5property.
6(B) The taxpayer has acquired an option to sell substantially 
7identical property at a fixed price.
8(C) To the extent provided in regulations, the taxpayer has 
9entered into any other transaction that substantially reduces the 
10risk of loss from holding the qualified small business stock. For 
11purposes of the preceding sentence, any reference to the taxpayer 
12shall be treated as including a reference to any person who is 
13related (within the meaning of Section 267(b) or 707(b) of the 
14Internal Revenue Code) to the taxpayer.
15(k) The Franchise Tax Board may prescribe those regulations 
16as may be appropriate to carry out the purposes of this section, 
17including regulations to prevent the
				  avoidance of the purposes of 
18this section through splitups, shell corporations, partnerships, or 
19otherwise.
20(l) It is the intent of the Legislature that, in construing this 
21section, any regulations that may be promulgated by the Secretary 
22of the Treasury under Section 1202(k) of the Internal Revenue 
23Code shall apply to the extent that those regulations do not conflict 
24with this section or with any regulations that may be promulgated 
25by the Franchise Tax Board.
Section 18738 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, 
27as added by Section 1 of Chapter 228 of the Statutes of 2012, is 
28amended to
		  read:
(a) All moneys transferred to the California YMCA 
30Youth and Government Fund pursuant to Section 18736, upon 
31appropriation by the Legislature, shall be allocated as follows:
32(1) To the Franchise Tax Board, the Controller, and the State 
33Department of Education for reimbursement of all costs incurred 
34by the Franchise Tax Board, the Controller, and the State 
35Department of Education in connection with their duties under 
36this article.
37(2) The balance to the State Department of Education for 
38distribution as follows:
39(A) If the California YMCA Youth and Government Fund 
40collects contributions of less than three hundred thousand dollars 
P400  1($300,000),
				  all funds shall be distributed to the California YMCA 
2Youth and Government Program.
3(B) If the California YMCA Youth and Government Fund 
4collects contributions in excess of three hundred thousand dollars 
5($300,000), the balance of the fund shall be distributed as follows:
6(i) To provide an annual grant of ten thousand dollars ($10,000) 
7to each of the following nonprofit civic youth organizations in 
8order to operate civic education and mock legislative programs:
9(I) African American Leaders for Tomorrow Program.
10(II) Asian Pacific Youth Leadership Project.
11(III) Chicano Latino Youth Leadership Project.
12(ii) (I) All remaining funds shall be distributed to the California 
13YMCA Youth and Government Program.
14(II) The California YMCA Youth and Government Board of 
15Directors may award additional nonprofit civic youth organizations 
16a grant of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000) each in order to 
17operate civic education and mock legislative programs. Grants 
18shall be administered by the California YMCA Youth and 
19Government Board of Directors, who shall be responsible for 
20developing criteria, evaluating applications, and awarding grants 
21to eligible organizations.
22(b) All moneys allocated pursuant to subdivision (a) may be 
23carried over from the year in which they were received.
24(c) Funds distributed to the California YMCA Youth and 
25Government Program, the African American Leaders for Tomorrow 
26Program, the Asian Pacific
				  Youth Leadership Project, the Chicano 
27Latino Youth Leadership Project, and any other nonprofit civic 
28youth organizations awarded a grant pursuant to clause (i) of 
29subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) shall be used 
30to support program participation by underserved students and for 
31direct program-related expenses.
32(d) The funds distributed to the California YMCA Youth and 
33Government Program by the State Department of Education shall 
34be used exclusively for program-related expenses.
Section 23685 of the Revenue and Taxation Code
36 is amended to read:
(a) (1) For taxable years beginning on or after January 
381, 2011, there shall be allowed to a qualified taxpayer a credit 
39against the “tax,” as defined in Section 23036, in an amount equal 
40to the applicable percentage, as specified in paragraph (4), of the 
P401  1qualified expenditures for the production of a qualified motion 
2picture in California.
3(2) The credit shall be allowed for the taxable year in which the 
4California Film Commission issues the credit certificate pursuant 
5to subdivision (g) for the qualified motion picture, and shall be for 
6the applicable percentage of all qualified expenditures paid or 
7incurred by the qualified taxpayer in all taxable years for that 
8qualified motion picture.
9(3) The amount of the credit allowed to a qualified taxpayer 
10shall be limited to the amount specified in the credit certificate 
11issued to the qualified taxpayer by the California Film Commission 
12pursuant to subdivision (g).
13(4) For purposes of paragraphs (1) and (2), the applicable 
14percentage shall be:
15(A) Twenty percent of the qualified expenditures attributable 
16to the production of a qualified motion picture in California.
17(B) Twenty-five percent of the qualified expenditures 
18attributable to the production of a qualified motion picture in 
19California where the qualified motion picture is a television series 
20that relocated to California or an independent film.
21(b) For purposes of this section:
22(1) “Ancillary product” means any article for sale to the public 
23that contains a portion of, or any element of, the qualified motion 
24picture.
25(2) “Budget” means an estimate of all expenses paid or incurred 
26during the production period of a qualified motion picture. It shall 
27be the same budget used by the qualified taxpayer and production 
28company for all qualified motion picture purposes.
29(3) “Clip use” means a use of any portion of a motion picture, 
30other than the qualified motion picture, used in the qualified motion 
31picture.
32(4) “Credit certificate” means the certificate issued by the 
33California Film Commission pursuant to subparagraph (C) of 
34paragraph (2) of subdivision (g).
35(5) (A) “Employee fringe benefits” means the amount allowable 
36as a deduction under this part to the qualified taxpayer involved 
37in the production of the qualified motion picture, exclusive of any 
38amounts contributed by employees, for any year during the 
39production period with respect to any of the following:
P402  1(i) Employer contributions under any pension, profit-sharing, 
2annuity, or similar plan.
3(ii) Employer-provided coverage under any accident or health 
4plan for employees.
5(iii) The employer’s cost of life or disability insurance provided 
6to employees.
7(B) Any amount treated as wages under clause (i) of 
8subparagraph (A) of paragraph (18) shall not be taken into account 
9under this paragraph.
10(6) “Independent film” means a motion picture with a minimum 
11budget of one million dollars ($1,000,000) and a maximum budget 
12of ten million dollars ($10,000,000) that is produced by a company 
13that is not publicly traded and publicly traded companies do not 
14own, directly or indirectly, more than 25 percent of the producing 
15company.
16(7) “Licensing” means any grant of rights to distribute the 
17qualified motion picture, in whole or in part.
18(8) “New use” means any use of a motion picture in a medium 
19other than the medium for which it was initially created.
20(9) (A) “Postproduction” means the final activities in a qualified 
21motion picture’s production, including editing, foley recording, 
22automatic dialogue replacement, sound editing, scoring and music 
23editing, beginning and end credits,
				  negative cutting, negative 
24processing and duplication, the addition of sound and visual effects, 
25soundmixing, film-to-tape transfers, encoding, and color correction.
26(B) “Postproduction” does not include the manufacture or 
27shipping of release prints.
28(10) “Preproduction” means the process of preparation for actual 
29physical production which begins after a qualified motion picture 
30has received a firm agreement of financial commitment, or is 
31greenlit, with, for example, the establishment of a dedicated 
32production office, the hiring of key crew members, and includes, 
33but is not limited to, activities that include location scouting and 
34execution of contracts with vendors of equipment and stage space.
35(11) “Principal photography” means the phase of production 
36during which the motion picture is actually shot, as
				  distinguished 
37from preproduction and postproduction.
38(12) “Production period” means the period beginning with 
39preproduction and ending upon completion of postproduction.
P403  1(13) “Qualified entity” means a personal service corporation as 
2defined in Section 269A(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, a 
3payroll services corporation, or any entity receiving qualified wages 
4with respect to services performed by a qualified individual.
5(14) (A) “Qualified individual” means any individual who 
6performs services during the production period in an activity related 
7to the production of a qualified motion picture.
8(B) “Qualified individual” shall not include either of the 
9following:
10(i) Any individual related to the qualified taxpayer as described 
11in subparagraph (A), (B), or (C) of Section 51(i)(1) of the Internal 
12Revenue Code.
13(ii) Any 5-percent owner, as defined in Section 416(i)(1)(B) of 
14the Internal Revenue Code, of the qualified taxpayer.
15(15) (A) “Qualified motion picture” means a motion picture 
16that is produced for distribution to the general public, regardless 
17of medium, that is one of the following:
18(i) A feature with a minimum production budget of one million 
19dollars ($1,000,000) and a maximum production budget of 
20seventy-five million dollars ($75,000,000).
21(ii) A movie of the week or miniseries with a minimum 
22production budget of five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000).
23(iii) A new television series produced in California with a 
24minimum production budget of one million dollars ($1,000,000) 
25licensed for original distribution on basic cable.
26(iv) An independent film.
27(v) A television series that relocated to California.
28(B) To qualify as a “qualified motion picture,” all of the 
29following conditions shall be satisfied:
30(i) At least 75 percent of the production days occur wholly in 
31California or 75 percent of the production budget is incurred for 
32payment for services performed within the state and the purchase 
33or rental of property used within the state.
34(ii) Production of the qualified motion
				  picture is completed 
35within 30 months from the date on which the qualified taxpayer’s 
36application is approved by the California Film Commission. For 
37purposes of this section, a qualified motion picture is “completed” 
38when the process of postproduction has been finished.
P404  1(iii) The copyright for the motion picture is registered with the 
2United States Copyright Office pursuant to Title 17 of the United 
3States Code.
4(iv) Principal photography of the qualified motion picture 
5commences after the date on which the application is approved by 
6the California Film Commission, but no later than 180 days after 
7the date of that approval.
8(C) For the purposes of subparagraph (A), in computing the 
9total wages paid or incurred for the production of a qualified 
10motion picture, all amounts paid or incurred by all persons or 
11entities
				  that share in the costs of the qualified motion picture shall 
12be aggregated.
13(D) “Qualified motion picture” shall not include commercial 
14advertising, music videos, a motion picture produced for private 
15noncommercial use, such as weddings, graduations, or as part of 
16an educational course and made by students, a news program, 
17current events or public events program, talk show, game show, 
18sporting event or activity, awards show, telethon or other 
19production that solicits funds, reality television program, clip-based 
20programming if more than 50 percent of the content is comprised 
21of licensed footage, documentaries, variety programs, daytime 
22dramas, strip shows, one-half hour (air time) episodic television 
23shows, or any production that falls within the recordkeeping 
24requirements of Section 2257 of Title 18 of the United States Code.
25(16) “Qualified expenditures” means amounts paid or
				  incurred 
26to purchase or lease tangible personal property used within this 
27state in the production of a qualified motion picture and payments, 
28including qualified wages, for services performed within this state 
29in the production of a qualified motion picture.
30(17) (A) “Qualified taxpayer” means a taxpayer who has paid 
31or incurred qualified expenditures and has been issued a credit 
32certificate by the California Film Commission pursuant to 
33subdivision (g).
34(B) (i) In the case of any pass-thru entity, the determination of 
35whether a taxpayer is a qualified taxpayer under this section shall 
36be made at the entity level and any credit under this section is not 
37allowed to the pass-thru entity, but shall be passed through to the 
38partners or shareholders in accordance with applicable provisions 
39of Part 10 (commencing with Section 17001) or Part 11
40
				  (commencing with Section 23001). For purposes of this paragraph, 
P405  1“pass-thru entity” means any entity taxed as a partnership or “S” 
2corporation.
3(ii) In the case of an “S” corporation, the credit allowed under 
4this section shall not be used by an “S” corporation as a credit 
5against a tax imposed under Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 
623800) of Part 11 of Division 2.
7(18) (A) “Qualified wages” means all of the following:
8(i) Any wages subject to withholding under Division 6 
9(commencing with Section 13000) of the Unemployment Insurance 
10Code that were paid or incurred by any taxpayer involved in the 
11production of a qualified motion picture with respect to a qualified 
12individual for services performed on the qualified motion picture 
13production within this state.
14(ii) The portion of any employee fringe benefits paid or incurred 
15by any taxpayer involved in the production of the qualified motion 
16picture that are properly allocable to qualified wage amounts 
17described in clause (i).
18(iii) Any payments made to a qualified entity for services 
19performed in this state by qualified individuals within the meaning 
20of paragraph (14).
21(iv) Remuneration paid to an independent contractor who is a 
22qualified individual for services performed within this state by that 
23qualified individual.
24(B) “Qualified wages” shall not include any of the following:
25(i) Expenses, including wages, related to new use, reuse, clip 
26use, licensing, secondary markets, or residual
				  compensation, or 
27the creation of any ancillary product, including, but not limited to, 
28a soundtrack album, toy, game, trailer, or teaser.
29(ii) Expenses, including wages, paid or incurred with respect to 
30acquisition, development, turnaround, or any rights thereto.
31(iii) Expenses, including wages, related to financing, overhead, 
32marketing, promotion, or distribution of a qualified motion picture.
33(iv) Expenses, including wages, paid per person per qualified 
34motion picture for writers, directors, music directors, music 
35composers, music supervisors, producers, and performers, other 
36than background actors with no scripted lines.
37(19) “Residual compensation” means supplemental 
38compensation paid at the time that a motion picture is exhibited 
39through new use,
				  reuse, clip use, or in secondary markets, as 
40distinguished from payments made during production.
P406  1(20) “Reuse” means any use of a qualified motion picture in the 
2same medium for which it was created, following the initial use 
3in that medium.
4(21) “Secondary markets” means media in which a qualified 
5motion picture is exhibited following the initial media in which it 
6is exhibited.
7(22) “Television series that relocated to California” means a 
8television series, without regard to episode length or initial media 
9exhibition, that filmed all of its prior season or seasons outside of 
10California and for which the taxpayer certifies that the credit 
11provided pursuant to this section is the primary reason for 
12relocating to California.
13(c) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (i) of Section 23036, in 
14the case where the credit allowed by this section exceeds the 
15taxpayer’s tax liability computed under this part, a qualified 
16taxpayer may elect to assign any portion of the credit allowed 
17under this section to one or more affiliated corporations for each 
18taxable year in which the credit is allowed. For purposes of this 
19subdivision, “affiliated corporation” has the meaning provided in 
20subdivision (b) of Section 25110, as that section was amended by 
21Chapter 881 of the Statutes of 1993, as of the last day of the taxable 
22year in which the credit is allowed, except that “100 percent” is 
23substituted for “more than 50 percent” wherever it appears in the 
24section, and “voting common stock” is substituted for “voting 
25stock” wherever it appears in the section.
26(2) The election provided in paragraph (1):
27(A) May be based on
				  any method selected by the qualified 
28taxpayer that originally receives the credit.
29(B) Shall be irrevocable for the taxable year the credit is allowed, 
30once made.
31(C) May be changed for any subsequent taxable year if the 
32election to make the assignment is expressly shown on each of the 
33returns of the qualified taxpayer and the qualified taxpayer’s 
34affiliated corporations that assign and receive the credits.
35(D) Shall be reported to the Franchise Tax Board, in the form 
36and manner specified by the Franchise Tax Board, along with all 
37required information regarding the assignment of the credit, 
38including the corporation number, the federal employer 
39identification number, or other taxpayer identification number of 
40the assignee, and the amount of the credit assigned.
P407  1(3) (A) Notwithstanding any other law, a qualified taxpayer 
2may sell any credit allowed under this section that is attributable 
3to an independent film, as defined in paragraph (6) of subdivision 
4(b), to an unrelated party.
5(B) The qualified taxpayer shall report to the Franchise Tax 
6Board prior to the sale of the credit, in the form and manner 
7specified by the Franchise Tax Board, all required information 
8regarding the purchase and sale of the credit, including the social 
9security or other taxpayer identification number of the unrelated 
10party to whom the credit has been sold, the face amount of the 
11credit sold, and the amount of consideration received by the 
12qualified taxpayer for the sale of the credit.
13(4) In the case where the credit allowed under this section 
14exceeds the “tax,” the excess credit may be carried over to reduce 
15the “tax” in the
				  following taxable year, and succeeding five taxable 
16years, if necessary, until the credit has been exhausted.
17(5) A credit shall not be sold pursuant to this subdivision to 
18more than one taxpayer, nor may the credit be resold by the 
19unrelated party to another taxpayer or other party.
20(6) A party that has been assigned or acquired tax credits under 
21this paragraph shall be subject to the requirements of this section.
22(7) In no event may a qualified taxpayer assign or sell any tax 
23credit to the extent the tax credit allowed by this section is claimed 
24on any tax return of the qualified taxpayer.
25(8) In the event that both the taxpayer originally allocated a 
26credit under this section by the California Film Commission and 
27a taxpayer to whom the credit has
				  been sold both claim the same 
28amount of credit on their tax returns, the Franchise Tax Board may 
29disallow the credit of either taxpayer, so long as the statute of 
30limitations upon assessment remains open.
31(9) Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of 
32Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code does not apply to 
33any standard, criterion, procedure, determination, rule, notice, or 
34guideline established or issued by the Franchise Tax Board 
35pursuant to this subdivision.
36(10) Subdivision (i) of Section 23036 shall not apply to any 
37credit sold pursuant to this subdivision.
38(11) For purposes of this subdivision:
P408  1(A) An affiliated corporation or corporations that are assigned 
2a credit pursuant to paragraph (1) shall be treated as a qualified
3
				  taxpayer pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a).
4(B) The unrelated party or parties that purchase a credit pursuant 
5to paragraph (3) shall be treated as a qualified taxpayer pursuant 
6to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a).
7(d) No credit shall be allowed pursuant to this section unless 
8the qualified taxpayer provides the following to the California 
9Film Commission:
10(1) Identification of each qualified individual.
11(2) The specific start and end dates of production.
12(3) The total wages paid.
13(4) The amount of qualified wages paid to each qualified 
14individual.
15(5) The copyright registration number, as reflected on the 
16certificate of registration issued under the authority of Section 410 
17of Title 17 of the United States Code, relating to registration of 
18claim and issuance of certificate. The registration number shall be 
19provided on the return claiming the credit.
20(6) The total amounts paid or incurred to purchase or lease 
21tangible personal property used in the production of a qualified 
22motion picture.
23(7) Information to substantiate its qualified expenditures.
24(8) Information required by the California Film Commission 
25under regulations promulgated pursuant to subdivision (g) 
26necessary to verify the amount of credit claimed.
27(e) The California Film Commission may prescribe rules and 
28regulations to
				  carry out the purposes of this section including any 
29rules and regulations necessary to establish procedures, processes, 
30requirements, and rules identified in or required to implement this 
31section. The regulations shall include provisions to set aside a 
32percentage of annual credit allocations for independent films.
33(f) If the qualified taxpayer fails to provide the copyright 
34registration number as required in paragraph (5) of subdivision 
35(d), the credit shall be disallowed and assessed and collected under 
36Section 19051 until the procedures are satisfied.
37(g) For purposes of this section, the California Film Commission 
38shall do the following:
39(1) On or after July 1, 2009, and before July 1, 2017, allocate 
40tax credits to applicants.
P409  1(A) Establish a
				  procedure for applicants to file with the 
2California Film Commission a written application, on a form jointly 
3prescribed by the California Film Commission and the Franchise 
4Tax Board for the allocation of the tax credit. The application shall 
5include, but not be limited to, the following information:
6(i) The budget for the motion picture production.
7(ii) The number of production days.
8(iii) A financing plan for the production.
9(iv) The diversity of the workforce employed by the applicant, 
10including, but not limited to, the ethnic and racial makeup of the 
11individuals employed by the applicant during the production of 
12the qualified motion picture, to the extent possible.
13(v) All members of a
				  combined reporting group, if known at 
14the time of the application.
15(vi) Financial information, if available, including, but not limited 
16to, the most recently produced balance sheets, annual statements 
17of profits and losses, audited or unaudited financial statements, 
18summary budget projections or results, or the functional equivalent 
19of these documents of a partnership or owner of a single member 
20limited liability company that is disregarded pursuant to Section 
2123038. The information provided pursuant to this clause shall be 
22confidential and shall not be subject to public disclosure.
23(vii) The names of all partners in a partnership not publicly 
24traded or the names of all members of a limited liability company 
25classified as a partnership not publicly traded for California income 
26tax purposes that have a financial interest in the applicant’s 
27qualified motion picture. The information
				  provided pursuant to 
28this clause shall be confidential and shall not be subject to public 
29disclosure.
30(viii) Detailed narratives, for use only by the Legislative 
31Analyst’s Office in conducting a study of the effectiveness of this 
32credit, that describe the extent to which the credit is expected to 
33influence or affect filming and other business location decisions, 
34hiring decisions, salary decisions, and any other financial matters 
35of the applicant.
36(ix) Any other information deemed relevant by the California 
37Film Commission or the Franchise Tax Board.
38(B) Establish criteria, consistent with the requirements of this 
39section, for allocating tax credits.
P410  1(C) Determine and designate applicants who meet the 
2requirements of this section.
3(D) Process and approve, or reject, all applications on a 
4first-come-first-served basis.
5(E) Subject to the annual cap established as provided in 
6subdivision (i), allocate an aggregate amount of credits under this 
7section and Section 17053.85, and allocate any carryover of 
8unallocated credits from prior years.
9(2) Certify tax credits allocated to qualified taxpayers.
10(A) Establish a verification procedure for the amount of qualified 
11expenditures paid or incurred by the applicant, including, but not 
12limited to, updates to the information in subparagraph (A) of 
13paragraph (1) of subdivision (g).
14(B) Establish audit requirements that must be satisfied before 
15a credit certificate may be issued by
				  the California Film 
16Commission.
17(C) (i) Establish a procedure for a qualified taxpayer to report 
18to the California Film Commission, prior to the issuance of a credit 
19certificate, the following information:
20(I) If readily available, a list of the states, provinces, or other 
21jurisdictions in which any member of the applicant’s combined 
22reporting group in the same business unit as the qualified taxpayer 
23that, in the preceding calendar year, has produced a qualified 
24motion picture intended for release in the United States market. 
25For purposes of this clause, “qualified motion picture” shall not 
26include any episodes of a television series that were complete or 
27in production prior to July 1, 2009.
28(II) Whether a qualified motion picture described in subclause 
29(I) was awarded any financial incentive by
				  the state, province, or 
30other jurisdiction that was predicated on the performance of 
31primary principal photography or postproduction in that location.
32(ii) The California Film Commission may provide that the report 
33required by this subparagraph be filed in a single report provided 
34on a calendar year basis for those qualified taxpayers that receive 
35multiple credit certificates in a calendar year.
36(D) Issue a credit certificate to a qualified taxpayer upon 
37completion of the qualified motion picture reflecting the credit 
38amount allocated after qualified expenditures have been verified 
39under this section. The amount of credit shown in the credit 
P411  1certificate shall not exceed the amount of credit allocated to that 
2qualified taxpayer pursuant to this section.
3(3) Obtain, when possible, the following information from
4
				  applicants that do not receive an allocation of credit:
5(A) Whether the qualified motion picture that was the subject 
6of the application was completed.
7(B) If completed, in which state or foreign jurisdiction was the 
8primary principal photography completed.
9(C) Whether the applicant received any financial incentives 
10from the state or foreign jurisdiction to make the qualified motion 
11picture in that location.
12(4) Provide the Legislative Analyst’s Office, upon request, any 
13or all application materials or any other materials received from, 
14or submitted by, the applicants, in electronic format when available, 
15including, but not limited to, information provided pursuant to 
16clauses (i) to (ix), inclusive, of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1).
17(5) The information provided to the California Film Commission 
18pursuant to this section shall constitute confidential tax information 
19for purposes of Article 2 (commencing with Section 19542) of 
20Chapter 7 of Part 10.2.
21(h) (1) The California Film Commission shall annually provide 
22the Legislative Analyst’s Office, the Franchise Tax Board, and the 
23board with a list of qualified taxpayers and the tax credit amounts 
24allocated to each qualified taxpayer by the California Film 
25Commission. The list shall include the names and taxpayer 
26identification numbers, including taxpayer identification numbers 
27of each partner or shareholder, as applicable, of the qualified 
28taxpayer.
29(2) (A) Notwithstanding paragraph (5) of subdivision (g), the 
30California Film Commission shall annually post on
				  its Internet 
31Web site and make available for public release the following:
32(i) A table which includes all of the following information: a 
33list of qualified taxpayers and the tax credit amounts allocated to 
34each qualified taxpayer by the California Film Commission, the 
35number of production days in California the qualified taxpayer 
36represented in its application would occur, the number of California 
37jobs that the qualified taxpayer represented in its application would 
38be directly created by the production, and the total amount of 
39qualified expenditures expected to be spent by the production.
P412  1(ii) A narrative staff summary describing the production of the 
2qualified taxpayer as well as background information regarding 
3the qualified taxpayer contained in the qualified taxpayer’s 
4application for the credit.
5(B) Nothing in
				  this subdivision shall be construed to make the 
6information submitted by an applicant for a tax credit under this 
7section a public record.
8(i) (1) The aggregate amount of credits that may be allocated 
9in any fiscal year pursuant to this section and Section 17053.85 
10shall be an amount equal to the sum of all of the following:
11(A) One hundred million dollars ($100,000,000) in credits for 
12the 2009-10 fiscal year and each fiscal year thereafter, through 
13and including the 2016-17 fiscal year.
14(B) The unused allocation credit amount, if any, for the 
15preceding fiscal year.
16(C) The amount of previously allocated credits not certified.
17(2) If the amount of credits applied for
				  in any particular fiscal 
18year exceeds the aggregate amount of tax credits authorized to be 
19allocated under this section, such excess shall be treated as having 
20been applied for on the first day of the subsequent fiscal year. 
21However, credits may not be allocated from a fiscal year other 
22than the fiscal year in which the credit was originally applied for 
23or the immediately succeeding fiscal year.
24(3) Notwithstanding the foregoing, the California Film 
25Commission shall set aside up to ten million dollars ($10,000,000) 
26of tax credits each fiscal year for independent films allocated in 
27accordance with rules and regulations developed pursuant to 
28subdivision (e).
29(4) Any act that reduces the amount that may be allocated 
30pursuant to paragraph (1) constitutes a change in state taxes for 
31the purpose of increasing revenues within the meaning of Section 
323 of Article XIII A of the California Constitution and may be passed 
33by not less than two-thirds of all Members elected to each of the 
34two houses of the Legislature.
35(j) The California Film Commission shall have the authority to 
36allocate tax credits in accordance with this section and in 
37accordance with any regulations prescribed pursuant to subdivision 
38(e) upon adoption.
Section 24416.20 of the Revenue and Taxation Code
40 is amended to read:
Except as provided in Sections 24416.1, 24416.2, 
224416.4, 24416.5, 24416.6, and 24416.7, a net operating loss 
3deduction shall be allowed in computing net income under Section 
424341 and shall be determined in accordance with Section 172 of 
5the Internal Revenue Code, except as otherwise provided.
6(a) (1) Net operating losses attributable to taxable years 
7beginning before January 1, 1987, shall not be allowed.
8(2) A net operating loss shall not be carried forward to any 
9taxable year beginning before January 1, 1987.
10(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2) and (3), the 
11provisions of Section 172(b)(2) of the
				  Internal Revenue Code, 
12relating to amount of carrybacks and carryovers, shall be modified 
13so that the applicable percentage of the entire amount of the net 
14operating loss for any taxable year shall be eligible for carryover 
15to any subsequent taxable year. For purposes of this subdivision, 
16the applicable percentage shall be:
17(A) Fifty percent for any taxable year beginning before January 
181, 2000.
19(B) Fifty-five percent for any taxable year beginning on or after 
20January 1, 2000, and before January 1, 2002.
21(C) Sixty percent for any taxable year beginning on or after 
22January 1, 2002, and before January 1, 2004.
23(D) One hundred percent for any taxable year beginning on or 
24after January 1, 2004.
25(2) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net operating loss in any 
26taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, and who 
27operates a new business during that taxable year, each of the 
28following shall apply to each loss incurred during the first three 
29taxable years of operating the new business:
30(A) If the net operating loss is equal to or less than the net loss 
31from the new business, 100 percent of the net operating loss shall 
32be carried forward as provided in subdivision (e).
33(B) If the net operating loss is greater than the net loss from the 
34new business, the net operating loss shall be carried over as 
35follows:
36(i) With respect to an amount equal to the net loss from the new 
37business, 100 percent of that amount shall be carried forward as 
38provided in subdivision (e).
39(ii) With respect to the portion of the net operating loss that 
40exceeds the net loss from the new business, the applicable 
P414  1percentage of that amount shall be carried forward as provided in 
2subdivision (d).
3(C) For purposes of Section 172(b)(2) of the Internal Revenue 
4Code, the amount described in clause (ii) of subparagraph (B) shall 
5be absorbed before the amount described in clause (i) of 
6subparagraph (B).
7(3) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net operating loss in any 
8taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, and who 
9operates an eligible small business during that taxable year, each 
10of the following shall apply:
11(A) If the net operating loss is equal to or less than the net loss 
12from the eligible small business, 100 percent of the net
				  operating 
13loss shall be carried forward to the taxable years specified in 
14paragraph (1) of subdivision (e).
15(B) If the net operating loss is greater than the net loss from the 
16eligible small business, the net operating loss shall be carried over 
17as follows:
18(i) With respect to an amount equal to the net loss from the 
19eligible small business, 100 percent of that amount shall be carried 
20forward as provided in subdivision (e).
21(ii) With respect to that portion of the net operating loss that 
22exceeds the net loss from the eligible small business, the applicable 
23percentage of that amount shall be carried forward as provided in 
24subdivision (e).
25(C) For purposes of Section 172(b)(2) of the Internal Revenue 
26Code, the amount described in clause (ii) of
				  subparagraph (B) shall 
27be absorbed before the amount described in clause (i) of 
28subparagraph (B).
29(4) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net operating loss in a 
30taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, and who 
31operates a business that qualifies as both a new business and an 
32eligible small business under this section, that business shall be 
33treated as a new business for the first three taxable years of the 
34new business.
35(5) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net operating loss in a 
36taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, and who 
37operates more than one business, and more than one of those 
38businesses qualifies as either a new business or an eligible small 
39business under this section, paragraph (2) shall be applied first, 
40except that if there is any remaining portion of the net operating 
P415  1loss after application of clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph
2
				  (2), paragraph (3) shall be applied to the remaining portion of the 
3net operating loss as though that remaining portion of the net 
4operating loss constituted the entire net operating loss.
5(6) For purposes of this section, “net loss” means the amount 
6of net loss after application of Sections 465 and 469 of the Internal 
7Revenue Code.
8(c) For any taxable year in which the taxpayer has in effect a 
9water’s-edge election under Section 25110, the deduction of a net 
10operating loss carryover shall be denied to the extent that the net 
11operating loss carryover was determined by taking into account 
12the income and factors of an affiliated corporation in a combined 
13report whose income and apportionment factors would not have 
14been taken into account if a water’s-edge election under Section 
1525110 had been in effect for the taxable year in which the loss was 
16incurred.
17(d) Section 172(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to 
18years to which the loss may be carried, is modified as follows:
19(1) Net operating loss carrybacks shall not be allowed for any 
20net operating losses attributable to taxable years beginning before 
21January 1, 2013.
22(2) A net operating loss attributable to taxable years beginning 
23on or after January 1, 2013, shall be a net operating loss carryback 
24to each of the two taxable years preceding the taxable year of the 
25loss in lieu of the number of years provided therein.
26(A) For a net operating loss attributable to a taxable year 
27beginning on or after January 1, 2013, and before January 1, 2014, 
28the amount of carryback to any taxable year shall not exceed 50 
29percent of the net operating loss.
30(B) For a net operating loss attributable to a taxable year 
31beginning on or after January 1, 2014, and before January 1, 2015, 
32the amount of carryback to any taxable year shall not exceed 75 
33percent of the net operating loss.
34(C) For a net operating loss attributable to a taxable year 
35beginning on or after January 1, 2015, the amount of carryback to 
36any taxable year shall not exceed 100 percent of the net operating 
37loss.
38(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (2), Section 172(b)(1)(B) of the 
39Internal Revenue Code, relating to special rules for REITs, and 
40Section 172(b)(1)(E) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to 
P416  1excess interest loss, and Section 172(h) of the Internal Revenue 
2Code, relating to corporate equity reduction interest losses, shall 
3apply as provided.
4(4) A net operating loss carryback shall not be carried back to 
5any taxable year beginning before January 1, 2011.
6(e) (1) (A) For a net operating loss for any taxable year 
7beginning on or after January 1, 1987, and before January 1, 2000, 
8Section 172(b)(1)(A)(ii) of the Internal Revenue Code is modified 
9to substitute “five taxable years” in lieu of “20 years” except as 
10otherwise provided in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4).
11(B) For a net operating loss for any income year beginning on 
12or after January 1, 2000, and before January 1, 2008, Section 
13172(b)(1)(A)(ii) of the Internal Revenue Code is modified to 
14substitute “10 taxable years” in lieu of “20 taxable years.”
15(2) For any income year beginning before January 1, 2000, in 
16the case of a “new business,” the “five
				  taxable years” referred to 
17in paragraph (1) shall be modified to read as follows:
18(A) “Eight taxable years” for a net operating loss attributable 
19to the first taxable year of that new business.
20(B) “Seven taxable years” for a net operating loss attributable 
21to the second taxable year of that new business.
22(C) “Six taxable years” for a net operating loss attributable to 
23the third taxable year of that new business.
24(3) For any carryover of a net operating loss for which a 
25deduction is denied by Section 24416.3, the carryover period 
26specified in this subdivision shall be extended as follows:
27(A) By one year for a net operating loss attributable to taxable 
28years beginning in 1991.
29(B) By two years for a net operating loss attributable to taxable 
30years beginning prior to January 1, 1991.
31(4) The net operating loss attributable to taxable years beginning 
32on or after January 1, 1987, and before January 1, 1994, shall be 
33a net operating loss carryover to each of the 10 taxable years 
34following the year of the loss if it is incurred by a corporation that 
35was either of the following:
36(A) Under the jurisdiction of the court in a Title 11 or similar 
37case at any time prior to January 1, 1994. The loss carryover 
38provided in the preceding sentence shall not apply to any loss 
39incurred in an income year after the taxable year during which the 
P417  1corporation is no longer under the jurisdiction of the court in a 
2Title 11 or similar case.
3(B) In
				  receipt of assets acquired in a transaction that qualifies 
4as a tax-free reorganization under Section 368(a)(1)(G) of the 
5Internal Revenue Code.
6(f) For purposes of this section:
7(1) “Eligible small business” means any trade or business that 
8has gross receipts, less returns and allowances, of less than one 
9million dollars ($1,000,000) during the income year.
10(2) Except as provided in subdivision (g), “new business” means 
11any trade or business activity that is first commenced in this state 
12on or after January 1, 1994.
13(3) “Title 11 or similar case” shall have the same meaning as 
14in Section 368(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.
15(4) In the case of any trade or business activity conducted by
				  a 
16partnership or an “S” corporation, paragraphs (1) and (2) shall be 
17applied to the partnership or “S” corporation.
18(g) For purposes of this section, in determining whether a trade 
19or business activity qualifies as a new business under paragraph 
20(2) of subdivision (e), the following rules shall apply:
21(1) In any case where a taxpayer purchases or otherwise acquires 
22all or any portion of the assets of an existing trade or business 
23(irrespective of the form of entity) that is doing business in this 
24state (within the meaning of Section 23101), the trade or business 
25thereafter conducted by the taxpayer (or any related person) shall 
26not be treated as a new business if the aggregate fair market value 
27of the acquired assets (including real, personal, tangible, and 
28intangible property) used by the taxpayer (or any related person) 
29in the conduct of its trade or business exceeds 20 percent
				  of the 
30aggregate fair market value of the total assets of the trade or 
31business being conducted by the taxpayer (or any related person). 
32For purposes of this paragraph only, the following rules shall apply:
33(A) The determination of the relative fair market values of the 
34acquired assets and the total assets shall be made as of the last day 
35of the first taxable year in which the taxpayer (or any related 
36person) first uses any of the acquired trade or business assets in 
37its business activity.
38(B) Any acquired assets that constituted property described in 
39Section 1221(1) of the Internal Revenue Code in the hands of the 
40transferor shall not be treated as assets acquired from an existing 
P418  1trade or business, unless those assets also constitute property 
2described in Section 1221(1) of the Internal Revenue Code in the 
3hands of the acquiring taxpayer (or related person).
4(2) In any case where a taxpayer (or any related person) is 
5engaged in one or more trade or business activities in this state, or 
6has been engaged in one or more trade or business activities in this 
7state within the preceding 36 months (“prior trade or business 
8activity”), and thereafter commences an additional trade or business 
9activity in this state, the additional trade or business activity shall 
10only be treated as a new business if the additional trade or business 
11activity is classified under a different division of the Standard 
12Industrial Classification (SIC) Manual published by the United 
13States Office of Management and Budget, 1987 edition, than are 
14any of the taxpayer’s (or any related person’s) current or prior 
15trade or business activities.
16(3) In any case where a taxpayer, including all related persons, 
17is engaged in trade or business activities wholly outside of this 
18state
				  and the taxpayer first commences doing business in this state 
19(within the meaning of Section 23101) after December 31, 1993 
20(other than by purchase or other acquisition described in paragraph 
21(1)), the trade or business activity shall be treated as a new business 
22under paragraph (2) of subdivision (e).
23(4) In any case where the legal form under which a trade or 
24business activity is being conducted is changed, the change in form 
25shall be disregarded and the determination of whether the trade or 
26business activity is a new business shall be made by treating the 
27taxpayer as having purchased or otherwise acquired all or any 
28portion of the assets of an existing trade or business under the rules 
29of paragraph (1).
30(5) “Related person” shall mean any person that is related to 
31the taxpayer under either Section 267 or 318 of the Internal 
32Revenue Code.
33(6) “Acquire” shall include any transfer, whether or not for 
34consideration.
35(7) (A) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 1997, 
36the term “new business” shall include any taxpayer that is engaged 
37in biopharmaceutical activities or other biotechnology activities 
38that are described in Codes 2833 to 2836, inclusive, of the Standard 
39Industrial Classification (SIC) Manual published by the United 
40States Office of Management and Budget, 1987 edition, and as 
P419  1further amended, and that has not received regulatory approval for 
2any product from the Food and Drug Administration.
3(B) For purposes of this paragraph:
4(i) “Biopharmaceutical activities” means those activities that 
5use organisms or materials derived from organisms, and their
6
				  cellular, subcellular, or molecular components, in order to provide 
7pharmaceutical products for human or animal therapeutics and 
8diagnostics. Biopharmaceutical activities make use of living 
9organisms to make commercial products, as opposed to 
10pharmaceutical activities that make use of chemical compounds 
11to produce commercial products.
12(ii) “Other biotechnology activities” means activities consisting 
13of the application of recombinant DNA technology to produce 
14commercial products, as well as activities regarding pharmaceutical 
15delivery systems designed to provide a measure of control over 
16the rate, duration, and site of pharmaceutical delivery.
17(h) For purposes of corporations whose net income is determined 
18under Chapter 17 (commencing with Section 25101), Section 
1925108 shall apply to each of the following:
20(1) The
				  amount of net operating loss incurred in any taxable 
21year that may be carried forward to another taxable year.
22(2) The amount of any loss carry forward that may be deducted 
23in any taxable year.
24(i) The provisions of Section 172(b)(1)(D) of the Internal 
25Revenue Code, relating to bad debt losses of commercial banks, 
26shall not be applicable.
27(j) The Franchise Tax Board may prescribe appropriate 
28regulations to carry out the purposes of this section, including any 
29regulations necessary to prevent the avoidance of the purposes of 
30this section through splitups, shell corporations, partnerships, tiered 
31ownership structures, or otherwise.
32(k) The Franchise Tax Board may reclassify any net operating 
33loss carryover determined under either paragraph (2) or (3) of
34
				  subdivision (b) as a net operating loss carryover under paragraph 
35(1) of subdivision (b) upon a showing that the reclassification is 
36necessary to prevent evasion of the purposes of this section.
37(l) Except as otherwise provided, the amendments made by 
38Chapter 107 of the Statutes of 2000 shall apply to net operating 
39losses for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2000.
Section 24900 of the Revenue and Taxation Code
2 is amended and renumbered to read:
(a) The Franchise Tax Board may include in the gross 
5income of the taxpayer (or a member of the taxpayer’s combined 
6reporting group) in that taxable year the taxpayer’s pro rata share 
7(or the pro rata share of a member of the taxpayer’s combined 
8reporting group) of any of those insurers’ current earnings and 
9profits in that taxable year, but not to exceed an amount equal to 
10the specific insurer’s net income attributable to investment income 
11for that year minus that insurer’s net written premiums received 
12in that same taxable year, if all of the following apply:
13(1) For any taxable year an insurer is a member of a taxpayer’s 
14commonly controlled group.
15(2) The ratio of the five-year average net written premiums to 
16the five-year average total income of all insurers in the commonly 
17controlled group is equal to or less than 0.10 (or, for taxable years 
18beginning on or after January 1, 2008, 0.15).
19(3) The accumulation of earnings and profits of the insurers in 
20the commonly controlled group had a substantial purpose of 
21avoidance of taxes on, according to, or measured by income, of 
22this state or any other state.
23The amount so included shall be treated as a dividend received 
24from an insurance company during the taxable year, and to the 
25extent applicable, Section 24410 shall apply to that amount.
26(b) If the insurer members of the commonly controlled group 
27constitute a predominantly captive insurance group (as defined in 
28paragraph (6) of subdivision (e)), then the ratio described in 
29subdivision (a) shall be 0.40.
30(c) To the extent that amounts are included in the gross income 
31of a taxpayer (or a member of the taxpayer’s combined reporting 
32group) pursuant to subdivision (a), those amounts shall not again 
33be considered as investment income in the application of the ratio 
34described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).
35(d) The amounts included in gross income under subdivision 
36(a) shall not again be included in gross income when subsequent 
37distributions are made to the taxpayer (or a member of the 
38taxpayer’s combined reporting group), or another taxpayer that 
39acquires an interest in the stock of the taxpayer (or a
				  member of 
40the taxpayer’s combined reporting group with respect to which 
P421  1subdivision (a) was applied), or any successor or assign of the 
2respective taxpayers (or a member of the taxpayer’s combined 
3reporting group) described in this subdivision. For purposes of 
4applying this subdivision, distributions from an insurer shall be 
5considered first made from amounts included under subdivision 
6(a).
7(e) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall 
8apply:
9(1) Except as otherwise provided, the phrases “net written 
10premiums,” “five-year average net written premiums” and the 
11“five-year average total income” shall each have the same meaning, 
12respectively, as applicable for purposes of subdivision (c) of 
13Section 24410, whether or not a dividend is actually received from 
14any insurer member of the taxpayer’s commonly controlled group 
15in that taxable year.
16(2) “Net income attributable to investment income” means net 
17income of the insurer multiplied by a ratio, the numerator of which 
18is the insurer’s gross investment income from interest, dividends 
19(other than dividends from members of the taxpayer’s commonly 
20controlled group), rent, and realized gains or losses, and the 
21denominator of which is the insurer’s gross income (other than 
22dividends from members of the taxpayer’s commonly controlled 
23group) from all sources. In the application of the preceding 
24sentence, if an insurer is required to file a Statutory Annual 
25Statement pursuant to the Annual Statement Instructions and 
26Accounting Practices and Procedures Manual promulgated by the 
27National Association of Insurance Commissioners, “net income” 
28means net income required to be reported in the insurer’s Statutory 
29Annual Statement.
30(3) An insurer is any insurer within the meaning of
				  Section 28 
31of Article XIII of the California Constitution, whether or not the 
32insurer is engaged in business in California.
33(4) The phrase “commonly controlled group” shall have the 
34same meaning as that phrase has under Section 25105.
35(5) The phrase “combined reporting group” means those 
36corporations whose income is required to be included in the same 
37combined report pursuant to Section 25101 or 25110.
38(6) A “predominantly captive insurance group” means the 
39insurer members of a commonly controlled group where the 
40insurers receive more than 50 percent of their net written premiums 
P422  1(without regard to the weighting factors in paragraph (1) of 
2subdivision (e) of Section 24410) from members of the commonly 
3controlled group or the ratios in clause (i) or clause (ii) of 
4subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (d)
				  of Section 
524410 is greater than 50 percent. The provisions of paragraph (4) 
6of subdivision (d) of Section 24410 shall apply for purposes of 
7this paragraph.
8(7) (A) The taxpayer’s “pro rata share” of the current earnings 
9and profits of an insurer member of a commonly controlled group 
10is the amount that would have been received as a dividend by the 
11taxpayer (or a member of the taxpayer’s combined reporting group) 
12if both of the following apply:
13(i) The insurer had directly distributed its current earnings and 
14profits with respect to its stock held by the taxpayer (or member 
15of the taxpayer’s combined reporting group).
16(ii) In the case of an insurer holding the stock of another insurer, 
17all other insurer members of the taxpayer’s commonly controlled 
18group had distributed the same current earnings
				  and profits with 
19respect to their stock, in the same taxable year, until amounts were 
20received as a dividend by the taxpayer (or a member of the 
21taxpayer’s combined reporting group) from an insurer member of 
22the commonly controlled group.
23(B) In the application of this section, amounts treated as a 
24dividend received by a partnership shall be considered a dividend 
25received by each partner that is a member of the commonly 
26controlled group, either directly or through a series of tiered 
27partnerships.
28(f) The Franchise Tax Board may prescribe those regulations 
29that are appropriate to describe conditions under which the 
30accumulation of earnings and profits of those insurers described 
31in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) do not have the substantial 
32purpose of avoidance of taxes on, according to, or measured by 
33income, of this state or any other state.
34(g) If this section or any portion of this section is held invalid, 
35or the application of this section to any person or circumstance is 
36held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions of the 
37act adding this section, or the provisions of this section that are 
38severable.
Section 1755 of the Unemployment Insurance Code
40 is amended to read:
(a) If any person or employing unit is delinquent in the 
2payment of any contributions, penalties, or interest provided for 
3in this division, the director may, not later than three years after 
4the payment became delinquent or within 10 years after the last 
5entry of a judgment under Article 5 (commencing with Section 
61815) or within 10 years after the last recording or filing of a notice 
7of state tax lien under Section 7171 of the Government Code, 
8collect the delinquency or enforce any liens by levy served either 
9personally or by first-class mail, to all persons having in their 
10possession or under their control any credits or personal property 
11belonging to the delinquent person or employing unit, or owing 
12any debts to the person or employing unit at the time of the receipt 
13of the notice of levy or coming into their possession or
				  under their 
14control for the period of one year from the time of receipt of the 
15notice of levy. Any person upon whom a levy has been served 
16having in his or her possession or under his or her control any 
17credits or personal property belonging to the delinquent person or 
18employing unit or owing any debts to the person or employing 
19unit at the time of the receipt of the levy or coming into his or her 
20possession or under his or her control for the period of one year 
21from the time of receipt of the notice of levy, shall surrender the 
22credits or personal property to the director or pay to the director 
23the amount of any debt owing the delinquent employer within five 
24days of service of the levy, and shall surrender the credits or 
25personal property, or the amount of any debt owing to the 
26delinquent employer coming into his or her possession or under 
27his or her control within one year of receipt of the notice of levy 
28within five days of the date of coming into possession or control 
29of the credits or personal property,
				  or the amount of any debt owing 
30to the delinquent employer is incurred. Any person in possession 
31of any credits or personal property or owing any debts to the 
32delinquent person or employing unit who surrenders the credits or 
33personal property or pays the debts owing the delinquent person 
34or employing unit shall be discharged from any obligation or 
35liability to the delinquent person or employing unit with respect 
36to the credits or personal property surrendered or debts paid to the 
37director.
38(b) (1) If the levy is made on a deposit or credits or personal 
39property in the possession or under the control of a financial 
40institution, the notice of levy shall be served on that financial 
P424  1institution at the same location as legal process is required to be 
2served pursuant to Section 684.115 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 
3and the levy will apply to all credits or personal property in the 
4deposit account only at the time that notice
				  of levy is received by 
5the financial institution.
6(2) For purposes of this section:
7(A) “Deposit account” has the same meaning as in paragraph 
8(29) of subdivision (a) of Section 9102 of the Commercial Code.
9(B) “Financial institution” has the same meaning as in Section 
10481.113 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
11(C) “Legal process” has the same meaning as in Section 482.070 
12of the Code of Civil Procedure.
Section 14211 of the Unemployment Insurance 
14Code is amended to read:
(a) (1) Beginning program year 2012, an amount equal 
16to at least 25 percent of funds available under Title I of the federal 
17Workforce Investment Act of 1998 (Public Law 105-220) provided 
18to local workforce investment boards for adults and dislocated 
19workers shall be spent on workforce training programs. This 
20minimum may be met either by spending 25 percent of those base 
21formula funds on training or by combining a portion of those base 
22formula funds with leveraged funds as specified in subdivision 
23(b).
24(2) Beginning program year 2016, an amount equal to at least 
2530 percent of funds available under Title I of the federal Workforce 
26Investment Act of 1998 (Public Law 105-220) provided to local 
27workforce investment boards for adults and dislocated
				  workers 
28shall be spent on workforce training programs. This minimum may 
29be met either by spending 30 percent of those base formula funds 
30on training or by combining a portion of those base formula funds 
31with leveraged funds as specified in subdivision (b).
32(3) Expenditures that shall count toward the minimum 
33percentage of funds shall include only training services as defined 
34in Section 2864(d)(4)(D) of Title 29 of the United States Code and 
35Sections 663.300 and 663.508 of Title 20 of the Code of Federal 
36Regulations, including all of the following:
37(A) Occupational skills training, including training for 
38nontraditional employment.
39(B) On-the-job training.
P425  1(C) Programs that combine workplace training with related 
2instruction, which may include cooperative
				  education programs.
3(D) Training programs operated by the private sector.
4(E) Skill upgrading and retraining.
5(F) Entrepreneurial training.
6(G) Job readiness training.
7(H) Adult education and literacy activities provided in 
8combination with services described in any of subparagraphs (A) 
9to (G), inclusive.
10(I) Customized training conducted with a commitment by an 
11employer or group of employers to employ an individual upon 
12successful completion of the training.
13(b) (1) Local workforce investment boards may receive a credit 
14of up to 10 percent
				  of their adult and dislocated worker formula 
15fund base allocations for public education and training funds and 
16private resources from industry and from joint labor-management 
17trusts that are leveraged by a local workforce investment board 
18for training services described in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a). 
19This credit may be applied toward the minimum training 
20requirements in paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision (a).
21(A) Leveraged funds that may be applied toward the credit 
22allowed by this subdivision shall only include the following:
23(i) Federal Pell Grants established under Title IV of the federal 
24Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. Sec. 1070 et seq.).
25(ii) Programs authorized by the federal Workforce Investment 
26Act of 1998 (Public Law 105-220).
27(iii) Trade adjustment assistance.
28(iv) Department of Labor National Emergency Grants.
29(v) Match funds from employers, industry, and industry 
30associations.
31(vi) Match funds from joint labor-management trusts.
32(vii) Employment training panel grants.
33(B) Credit for leveraged funds shall only be given if the local 
34workforce investment board keeps records of all training 
35expenditures it chooses to apply to the credit. Training expenditures 
36may only be applied to the credit if the relevant training costs can 
37be independently verified by the Employment Development 
38Department and training participants must be coenrolled in the 
39federal Workforce Investment Act of 1998 performance
				  monitoring 
40system.
P426  1(2) The use of leveraged funds to partially meet the training 
2requirements specified in paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision 
3(a) is the prerogative of a local workforce investment board. Costs 
4arising from the recordkeeping required to demonstrate compliance 
5with the leveraging requirements of this subdivision are the 
6responsibility of the board.
7(c) Beginning program year 2012, the Employment Development 
8Department shall calculate for each local workforce investment 
9board, within six months after the end of the second program year 
10of the two-year period of availability for expenditure of federal 
11Workforce Investment Act of 1998 funds, whether the local 
12workforce investment board met the requirements of subdivision 
13(a). The Employment Development Department shall provide to 
14each local workforce investment board its individual calculations 
15with respect to the
				  expenditure requirements of subdivision (a).
16(d) A local workforce investment area that does not meet the 
17requirements of subdivision (a) shall submit a corrective action 
18plan to the Employment Development Department that provides 
19reasons for not meeting the requirements and describes actions 
20taken to address the identified expenditure deficiencies. A local 
21workforce investment area shall provide a corrective action plan 
22to the Employment Development Department pursuant to this 
23section within 90 days of receiving the calculations described in 
24subdivision (c).
25(e) For the purpose of this section, “program year” has the same 
26meaning as provided in Section 667.100 of Title 20 of the Code 
27of Federal Regulations.
Section 11205 of the Vehicle Code, as amended by 
29Section 456 of Chapter 931 of the Statutes of 1998, is amended to 
30read:
(a) The department shall publish semiannually, or more 
32often as necessary to serve the purposes of this act, a list of all 
33traffic violator schools which are licensed pursuant to this section. 
34The list shall identify classroom facilities within a judicial district 
35that are at a different location from a licensed school’s principal 
36facility. The department shall transmit the list to each municipal 
37court and to each superior court in a county in which there is no 
38municipal court, with a sufficient number of copies to allow the 
39courts to provide one copy to each person referred to a licensed 
40traffic violator school. The department shall, at least semiannually, 
P427  1revise the list to ensure that each court has a current list of all 
2licensed traffic violator schools.
3(b) Each licensed traffic violator school owner shall be permitted 
4one school name per judicial district.
5(c) The referral list shall be organized alphabetically, in sections 
6for each county, and contain subsections for each judicial district 
7within the county. The order of the names within each judicial 
8district shall be random pursuant to a drawing or lottery conducted 
9by the department.
10(d) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (d) of Section 
1142005, the court shall use either the current referral list of traffic 
12violator schools published by the department when it orders a 
13person to complete a traffic violator school pursuant to subdivision 
14(a) or (b) of Section 42005 or, when a court utilizing a nonprofit 
15agency for traffic violator school administration and monitoring 
16services in which all traffic violator
				  schools licensed by the 
17department are allowed the opportunity to participate, a statewide 
18referral list may be published by the nonprofit agency and 
19distributed by the court. The agency shall monitor each classroom 
20location situated within the judicial districts in which that agency 
21provides services to the courts and is represented on its referral 
22list. The monitoring shall occur at least once every 90 days with 
23reports forwarded to the department and the respective courts on 
24a monthly basis.
25(e) The court may charge a traffic violator a fee to defray the 
26costs incurred by the agency for the monitoring reports and services 
27provided to the court. The court may delegate collection of the fee 
28to the agency. Fees shall be approved and regulated by the court. 
29Until December 31, 1996, the fee shall not exceed the actual cost 
30incurred by the agency or five dollars ($5), whichever is less.
Section 12804.11 of the Vehicle Code is amended 
32to read:
(a) To operate firefighting equipment, a driver, 
34including a tiller operator, is required to do either of the following:
35(1) Obtain and maintain a firefighter endorsement issued by the 
36department and obtain and maintain a class C license as described 
37in Section 12804.9, a restricted class A license as described in 
38Section 12804.12, or a noncommercial class B license as described 
39in Section 12804.10.
P428  1(2) Obtain and maintain a class A or B license as described in 
2Section 12804.9 and, as appropriate, for the size and configuration 
3of the firefighting equipment operated.
4(b) To qualify for a firefighter endorsement the driver shall do 
5all
				  of the following:
6(1) (A) Provide to the department proof of current employment 
7as a firefighter or registration as a volunteer firefighter with a fire 
8department and evidence of fire equipment operation training by 
9providing a letter or other indication from the chief of the fire 
10department or his or her designee.
11(B) For purposes of this section, evidence of fire equipment 
12operation training means the applicant has successfully completed 
13Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator 1A taught by an instructor 
14registered with the Office of the State Fire Marshal or fire 
15department driver training that meets all of the following 
16requirements:
17(i) Meets or exceeds the standards outlined in NFPA 1002, 
18Chapter 4 (2008 version) or the Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator 
191A course adopted by the Office of the State Fire
				  Marshal.
20(ii) Prepares the applicant to safely operate the department’s 
21fire equipment that the applicant will be authorized to operate.
22(iii) Includes a classroom (cognitive) portion of at least 16 hours.
23(iv) Includes a manipulative portion of at least 14 hours, which 
24includes directly supervised behind-the-wheel driver training.
25(C) Driver training shall be conducted by a person who is 
26registered with the Office of the State Fire Marshal to instruct a 
27Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator 1A course or a person who meets 
28all of the following criteria:
29(i) Possesses a minimum of five years of fire service experience 
30as an emergency vehicle operator, three of which must be at the 
31rank of engineer
				  or higher.
32(ii) Possesses a valid California class A or B license or a class 
33A or B license restricted to the operation of firefighting equipment.
34(iii) Is certified as a qualified training instructor or training 
35officer by the State of California, the federal government, or a 
36county training officers’ association.
37(2) Pass the written firefighter examination developed by the 
38department with the cooperation of the Office of the State Fire 
39Marshal.
P429  1(3) Upon application and every two years thereafter, submit 
2medical information on a form approved by the department.
3(c) There shall be no additional charge for adding a firefighter 
4endorsement to an original license or when renewing a license.
				  To 
5add a firefighter endorsement to an existing license when not 
6renewing the license, the applicant shall pay the fee for a duplicate 
7license pursuant to Section 14901.
8(d) (1) A driver of firefighting equipment is subject to the 
9requirements of subdivision (a) if both of the following conditions 
10exist:
11(A) The equipment is operated by a person employed as a 
12firefighter by a federal or state agency, by a regularly organized 
13fire department of a city, county, city and county, or district, or by 
14a tribal fire department or registered as a volunteer member of a 
15regularly organized fire department having official recognition of 
16the city, county, city and county, or district in which the department 
17is located, or of a tribal fire department.
18(B) The motor vehicle is used to travel to and from the
				  scene 
19of an emergency situation, or to transport equipment used in the 
20control of an emergency situation, and which is owned, leased, or 
21rented by, or under the exclusive control of, a federal or state 
22agency, a regularly organized fire department of a city, county, 
23city and county, or district, a volunteer fire department having 
24official recognition of the city, county, city and county, or district 
25in which the department is located, or a tribal fire department.
26(2) A driver of firefighting equipment is not required to obtain 
27and maintain a firefighter endorsement pursuant to paragraph (1) 
28of subdivision (a) if the driver is operating the firefighting 
29equipment for training purposes, during a nonemergency, while 
30under the direct supervision of a fire department employee who is 
31properly licensed to operate the equipment and is authorized by 
32the fire department to provide training.
33(e) For purposes of this section, a tiller operator is the driver of 
34the rear free-axle portion of a ladder truck.
35(f) For purposes of this section, “firefighting equipment” means 
36a motor vehicle, that meets the definition of a class A or class B 
37vehicle described in subdivision (b) of Section 12804.9, that is 
38used to travel to and from the scene of an emergency situation, or 
39to transport equipment used in the control of an emergency 
40situation, and that is owned, leased, or rented by, or under the 
P430  1exclusive control of, a federal or state agency, a regularly organized 
2fire department of a city, county, city and county, or district, or a 
3volunteer fire department having official recognition of the city, 
4county, city and county, or district in which the department is 
5located.
6(g) Notwithstanding paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), a regularly 
7organized fire department,
				  having official recognition of the city, 
8county, city and county, or district in which the department is 
9located, may require an employee or a volunteer of the fire 
10department who is a driver or operator of firefighting equipment 
11to hold a class A or B license.
12(h) This section applies to a person hired by a fire department, 
13or to a person renewing a driver’s license, on or after January 1, 
142011.
Section 16028 of the Vehicle Code is amended to 
16read:
(a) Upon the demand of a peace officer pursuant to 
18subdivision (b) or upon the demand of a peace officer or traffic 
19collision investigator pursuant to subdivision (c), every person 
20who drives a motor vehicle upon a highway shall provide evidence 
21of financial responsibility for the vehicle that is in effect at the 
22time the demand is made. The evidence of financial responsibility 
23may be provided using a mobile electronic device. However, a 
24peace officer shall not stop a vehicle for the sole purpose of 
25determining whether the vehicle is being driven in violation of this 
26subdivision.
27(b) If a notice to appear is issued for any alleged violation of 
28this code, except a violation specified in Chapter 9 (commencing 
29with Section 22500) of Division 11 or any local ordinance
				  adopted 
30pursuant to that chapter, the cited driver shall furnish written 
31evidence of financial responsibility or may provide electronic 
32verification of evidence of financial responsibility using a mobile 
33electronic device upon request of the peace officer issuing the 
34citation. The peace officer shall request and write the driver’s 
35evidence of financial responsibility on the notice to appear, except 
36when the peace officer is unable to write the driver’s evidence of 
37financial responsibility on the notice to appear due to an emergency 
38that requires his or her presence elsewhere. If the cited driver fails 
39to provide evidence of financial responsibility at the time the notice 
40to appear is issued, the peace officer may issue the driver a notice 
P431  1to appear for violation of subdivision (a). The notice to appear for 
2violation of subdivision (a) shall be written on the same citation 
3form as the original violation.
4(c) If a peace officer, or a regularly
				  employed and salaried 
5employee of a city or county who has been trained as a traffic 
6collision investigator, is summoned to the scene of an accident 
7described in Section 16000, the driver of a motor vehicle that is 
8in any manner involved in the accident shall furnish written 
9evidence of financial responsibility or may provide electronic 
10verification of evidence of financial responsibility using a mobile 
11electronic device upon the request of the peace officer or traffic 
12collision investigator. If the driver fails to provide evidence of 
13financial responsibility when requested, the peace officer may 
14issue the driver a notice to appear for violation of this subdivision. 
15A traffic collision investigator may cause a notice to appear to be 
16issued for a violation of this subdivision, upon review of that 
17citation by a peace officer.
18(d) (1) If, at the time a notice to appear for a violation of 
19subdivision (a) is issued, the person
				  is driving a motor vehicle 
20owned or leased by the driver’s employer, and the vehicle is being 
21driven with the permission of the employer, this section shall apply 
22to the employer rather than the driver. In that case, a notice to 
23appear shall be issued to the employer rather than the driver, and 
24the driver may sign the notice on behalf of the employer.
25(2) The driver shall notify the employer of the receipt of the 
26notice issued pursuant to paragraph (1) not later than five days 
27after receipt.
28(e) A person issued a notice to appear for a violation of 
29subdivision (a) may personally appear before the clerk of the court, 
30as designated in the notice to appear, and provide written evidence 
31of financial responsibility in a form consistent with Section 16020, 
32showing that the driver was in compliance with that section at the 
33time the notice to appear for violating subdivision (a) was
				  issued. 
34In lieu of the personal appearance, the person may submit by mail 
35to the court written evidence of having had financial responsibility 
36at the time the notice to appear was issued. Upon receipt by the 
37clerk of that written evidence of financial responsibility in a form 
38consistent with Section 16020, further proceedings on the notice 
39to appear for the violation of subdivision (a) shall be dismissed.
P432  1(f) For the purposes of this section, “mobile electronic device” 
2means a portable computing and communication device that has 
3a display screen with touch input or a miniature keyboard.
4(g) For the purposes of this section, when a person provides 
5evidence of financial responsibility using a mobile electronic device 
6to a peace officer, the peace officer shall only view the evidence 
7of financial responsibility and is prohibited from viewing any other 
8content on the mobile electronic
				  device.
9(h) If a person presents a mobile electronic device pursuant to 
10this section, that person assumes all liability for any damage to the 
11mobile electronic device.
Section 23612 of the Vehicle Code is amended to 
13read:
(a) (1) (A) A person who drives a motor vehicle is 
15deemed to have given his or her consent to chemical testing of his 
16or her blood or breath for the purpose of determining the alcoholic 
17content of his or her blood, if lawfully arrested for an offense 
18allegedly committed in violation of Section 23140, 23152, or 
1923153. If a blood or breath test, or both, are unavailable, then 
20paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) applies.
21(B) A person who drives a motor vehicle is deemed to have 
22given his or her consent to chemical testing of his or her blood for 
23the purpose of determining the drug content of his or her blood, if 
24lawfully arrested for an offense allegedly committed in violation 
25of Section 23140, 23152, or 23153. If a blood test
				  is unavailable, 
26the person shall be deemed to have given his or her consent to 
27chemical testing of his or her urine and shall submit to a urine test.
28(C) The testing shall be incidental to a lawful arrest and 
29administered at the direction of a peace officer having reasonable 
30cause to believe the person was driving a motor vehicle in violation 
31of Section 23140, 23152, or 23153.
32(D) The person shall be told that his or her failure to submit to, 
33or the failure to complete, the required chemical testing will result 
34in a fine, mandatory imprisonment if the person is convicted of a 
35violation of Section 23152 or 23153, and (i) the suspension of the 
36person’s privilege to operate a motor vehicle for a period of one 
37year, (ii) the revocation of the person’s privilege to operate a motor 
38vehicle for a period of two years if the refusal occurs within 10 
39years of a separate violation of Section
				  23103 as specified in 
40Section 23103.5, or of Section 23140, 23152, or 23153 of this 
P433  1code, or of Section 191.5 or subdivision (a) of Section 192.5 of 
2the Penal Code that resulted in a conviction, or if the person’s 
3privilege to operate a motor vehicle has been suspended or revoked 
4pursuant to Section 13353, 13353.1, or 13353.2 for an offense that 
5occurred on a separate occasion, or (iii) the revocation of the 
6person’s privilege to operate a motor vehicle for a period of three 
7years if the refusal occurs within 10 years of two or more separate 
8violations of Section 23103 as specified in Section 23103.5, or of 
9Section 23140, 23152, or 23153 of this code, or of Section 191.5 
10or subdivision (a) of Section 192.5 of the Penal Code, or any 
11combination thereof, that resulted in convictions, or if the person’s 
12privilege to operate a motor vehicle has been suspended or revoked 
13two or more times pursuant to Section 13353, 13353.1, or 13353.2 
14for offenses that occurred on separate occasions, or if there is any
15
				  combination of those convictions, administrative suspensions, or 
16revocations.
17(2) (A) If the person is lawfully arrested for driving under the 
18influence of an alcoholic beverage, the person has the choice of 
19whether the test shall be of his or her blood or breath and the officer 
20shall advise the person that he or she has that choice. If the person 
21arrested either is incapable, or states that he or she is incapable, 
22of completing the chosen test, the person shall submit to the 
23remaining test. If a blood or breath test, or both, are unavailable, 
24then paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) applies.
25(B) If the person is lawfully arrested for driving under the 
26influence of any drug or the combined influence of an alcoholic 
27beverage and any drug, the person has the choice of whether the 
28test shall be of his or her blood or breath, and the officer shall 
29advise the person
				  that he or she has that choice.
30(C) A person who chooses to submit to a breath test may also 
31be requested to submit to a blood test if the officer has reasonable 
32cause to believe that the person was driving under the influence 
33of a drug or the combined influence of an alcoholic beverage and 
34a drug and if the officer has a clear indication that a blood test will 
35reveal evidence of the person being under the influence. The officer 
36shall state in his or her report the facts upon which that belief and 
37that clear indication are based. The officer shall advise the person 
38that he or she is required to submit to an additional test. The person 
39shall submit to and complete a blood test. If the person arrested is 
P434  1incapable of completing the blood test, the person shall submit to 
2and complete a urine test.
3(3) If the person is lawfully arrested for an offense allegedly 
4committed in violation
				  of Section 23140, 23152, or 23153, and, 
5because of the need for medical treatment, the person is first 
6transported to a medical facility where it is not feasible to 
7administer a particular test of, or to obtain a particular sample of, 
8the person’s blood or breath, the person has the choice of those 
9tests, including a urine test, that are available at the facility to 
10which that person has been transported. In that case, the officer 
11shall advise the person of those tests that are available at the 
12medical facility and that the person’s choice is limited to those 
13tests that are available.
14(4) The officer shall also advise the person that he or she does 
15not have the right to have an attorney present before stating whether 
16he or she will submit to a test or tests, before deciding which test 
17or tests to take, or during administration of the test or tests chosen, 
18and that, in the event of refusal to submit to a test or tests, the 
19refusal may be used
				  against him or her in a court of law.
20(5) A person who is unconscious or otherwise in a condition 
21rendering him or her incapable of refusal is deemed not to have 
22withdrawn his or her consent and a test or tests may be 
23administered whether or not the person is told that his or her failure 
24to submit to, or the noncompletion of, the test or tests will result 
25in the suspension or revocation of his or her privilege to operate 
26a motor vehicle. A person who is dead is deemed not to have 
27withdrawn his or her consent and a test or tests may be 
28administered at the direction of a peace officer.
29(b) A person who is afflicted with hemophilia is exempt from 
30the blood test required by this section, but shall submit to, and 
31complete, a urine test.
32(c) A person who is afflicted with a heart condition and is using 
33an anticoagulant
				  under the direction of a licensed physician and 
34surgeon is exempt from the blood test required by this section, but 
35shall submit to, and complete, a urine test.
36(d) (1) A person lawfully arrested for an offense allegedly 
37committed while the person was driving a motor vehicle in 
38violation of Section 23140, 23152, or 23153 may request the 
39arresting officer to have a chemical test made of the arrested 
40person’s blood or breath for the purpose of determining the 
P435  1alcoholic content of that person’s blood, and, if so requested, the 
2arresting officer shall have the test performed.
3(2) If a blood or breath test is not available under subparagraph 
4(A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), or under subparagraph (A) 
5of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a), or under paragraph (1) of this 
6subdivision, the person shall submit to the remaining test in order 
7to determine the
				  percent, by weight, of alcohol in the person’s 
8blood. If both the blood and breath tests are unavailable, the person 
9shall be deemed to have given his or her consent to chemical testing 
10of his or her urine and shall submit to a urine test.
11(e) If the person, who has been arrested for a violation of Section 
1223140, 23152, or 23153, refuses or fails to complete a chemical 
13test or tests, or requests that a blood or urine test be taken, the 
14peace officer, acting on behalf of the department, shall serve the 
15notice of the order of suspension or revocation of the person’s 
16privilege to operate a motor vehicle personally on the arrested 
17person. The notice shall be on a form provided by the department.
18(f) If the peace officer serves the notice of the order of 
19suspension or revocation of the person’s privilege to operate a 
20motor vehicle, the peace officer shall take possession of all
				  driver’s 
21licenses issued by this state that are held by the person. The 
22temporary driver’s license shall be an endorsement on the notice 
23of the order of suspension and shall be valid for 30 days from the 
24date of arrest.
25(g) (1) The peace officer shall immediately forward a copy of 
26the completed notice of suspension or revocation form and any 
27driver’s license taken into possession under subdivision (f), with 
28the report required by Section 13380, to the department. If the 
29person submitted to a blood or urine test, the peace officer shall 
30forward the results immediately to the appropriate forensic 
31laboratory. The forensic laboratory shall forward the results of the 
32chemical tests to the department within 15 calendar days of the 
33date of the arrest.
34(2) (A) Notwithstanding any other law, a document containing 
35data prepared and maintained in
				  the governmental forensic 
36laboratory computerized database system that is electronically 
37transmitted or retrieved through public or private computer 
38networks to or by the department is the best available evidence of 
39the chemical test results in all administrative proceedings conducted 
40by the department. In addition, any other official record that is 
P436  1maintained in the governmental forensic laboratory, relates to a 
2chemical test analysis prepared and maintained in the governmental 
3forensic laboratory computerized database system, and is 
4electronically transmitted and retrieved through a public or private 
5computer network to or by the department is admissible as evidence 
6in the department’s administrative proceedings. In order to be 
7admissible as evidence in administrative proceedings, a document 
8described in this subparagraph shall bear a certification by the 
9employee of the department who retrieved the document certifying 
10that the information was received or retrieved directly from the 
11computerized database
				  system of a governmental forensic 
12laboratory and that the document accurately reflects the data 
13received or retrieved.
14(B) Notwithstanding any other law, the failure of an employee 
15of the department to certify under subparagraph (A) is not a public 
16offense.
17(h) A preliminary alcohol screening test that indicates the 
18presence or concentration of alcohol based on a breath sample in 
19order to establish reasonable cause to believe the person was 
20driving a vehicle in violation of Section 23140, 23152, or 23153 
21is a field sobriety test and may be used by an officer as a further 
22investigative tool.
23(i) If the officer decides to use a preliminary alcohol screening 
24test, the officer shall advise the person that he or she is requesting 
25that person to take a preliminary alcohol screening test to assist 
26the officer in determining
				  if that person is under the influence of 
27alcohol or drugs, or a combination of alcohol and drugs. The 
28person’s obligation to submit to a blood, breath, or urine test, as 
29required by this section, for the purpose of determining the alcohol 
30or drug content of that person’s blood, is not satisfied by the person 
31submitting to a preliminary alcohol screening test. The officer shall 
32advise the person of that fact and of the person’s right to refuse to 
33take the preliminary alcohol screening test.
Section 34510.5 of the Vehicle Code is amended to 
35read:
(a) (1) A broker of construction trucking services, 
37as defined in Section 3322 of the Civil Code, shall not furnish 
38construction transportation services to any construction project 
39unless it has secured a surety bond of not less than fifteen thousand 
40dollars ($15,000) executed by an admitted surety insurer. The 
P437  1surety bond shall ensure the payment of the claims of a contracted 
2motor carrier of property in dump truck equipment if the broker 
3fails to pay the contracted motor carrier within the time period 
4specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 3322 of 
5the Civil Code.
6(2) (A) A broker of construction trucking services annually 
7shall provide written evidence of the broker’s valid surety bond 
8to a
				  third-party nonprofit organization that is related to the industry 
9and regularly maintains a published database of bonded brokers 
10or post a current copy of the surety bond on the broker’s Internet 
11Web site.
12(B) When a copy of a surety bond is provided to a third-party 
13nonprofit organization, the broker shall notify the third-party 
14nonprofit organization if at any time the surety bond is cancelled 
15or expired. When a copy of the surety bond is posted on the 
16broker’s Internet Web site, the broker shall remove the copy of 
17the surety bond from his or her Internet Web site if at any time the 
18surety bond is cancelled or expired.
19(C) A third-party nonprofit organization shall not charge a 
20broker for posting evidence of a valid surety bond or limit the 
21posting of the bond only to the organization’s members.
22(D) A third-party
				  nonprofit organization shall not be liable for 
23any damages caused by the publication of any information provided 
24pursuant to this paragraph that is erroneous or outdated.
25(b)  A broker of construction trucking services shall not hire, 
26or otherwise engage the services of, a motor carrier of property to 
27furnish construction transportation services unless the broker 
28provides, prior to the commencement of work each calendar year, 
29written evidence of the broker’s valid surety bond to any person 
30that hires, or otherwise engages the services of, the broker to 
31furnish construction transportation services and also to the hired 
32motor carrier of property.
33(c) A broker of construction trucking services who furnishes 
34construction transportation services in violation of this section is 
35guilty of a misdemeanor and subject to a fine of up to five thousand 
36dollars ($5,000).
37(d) In any civil action brought against a broker of construction 
38trucking services by a motor carrier of property in dump truck 
39equipment with whom the broker contracted during any period of 
40time in which the broker did not have a surety bond in violation 
P438  1of this section, the failure to have the bond shall create a rebuttable 
2presumption that the broker failed to pay to the motor carrier the 
3amount due and owing.
4(e) For purposes of this section, “a broker of construction 
5trucking services” does not include a facility that meets all the 
6following requirements:
7(1) Arranges for transportation services of its product.
8(2) Primarily handles raw materials to produce a new product.
9(3) Is a rock
				  product operation (such as an “aggregate” 
10operation), a hot mixing asphalt plant, or a concrete, concrete 
11product, or Portland cement product manufacturing facility.
12(4) Does not accept a fee for the arrangement.
13(f) For the purposes of this section, “written evidence of the 
14broker’s valid surety bond” includes a copy of the surety bond, a 
15certificate of insurance, a continuation certificate, or other similar 
16documentation originally issued from the surety that includes the 
17surety’s and broker’s name, the bond number, and the effective 
18and expiration dates of the bond.
Section 40000.20 of the Vehicle Code is amended 
20to read:
A third or subsequent violation of Section 23225, 
22relating to the storage of an opened container of an alcoholic 
23beverage, or Section 23223, relating to the possession of an open 
24container of an alcoholic beverage, by a driver of a vehicle used 
25to provide transportation services on a prearranged basis, operating 
26under a valid certificate or permit pursuant to the Passenger 
27Charter-party Carriers’ Act (Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 
285351) of Division 2 of the Public Utilities Code), is a misdemeanor.
Section 85057.5 of the Water Code is amended to 
30read:
(a) “Covered action” means a plan, program, or 
32project as defined pursuant to Section 21065 of the Public 
33Resources Code that meets all of the following conditions:
34(1) Will occur, in whole or in part, within the boundaries of the 
35Delta or Suisun Marsh.
36(2) Will be carried out, approved, or funded by the state or a 
37local public agency.
38(3) Is covered by one or more provisions of the Delta Plan.
39(4) Will have a significant impact on achievement of one or 
40both of the coequal goals or the implementation of 
P439  1government-sponsored flood control programs to reduce risks to 
2people,
				  property, and state interests in the Delta.
3(b) “Covered action” does not include any of the following:
4(1) A regulatory action of a state agency.
5(2) Routine maintenance and operation of the State Water 
6Project or the federal Central Valley Project.
7(3) Regional transportation plans prepared pursuant to Section 
865080 of the Government Code.
9(4) A plan, program, project, or activity within the secondary 
10zone of the Delta that the applicable metropolitan planning 
11organization pursuant to Section 65080 of the Government Code 
12has determined is consistent with either a sustainable communities 
13strategy or an alternative planning strategy that the State Air 
14Resources Board has determined would,
				  if implemented, achieve 
15the greenhouse gas emission reduction targets established by that 
16board pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision 
17(b) of Section 65080 of the Government Code. For purposes of 
18this paragraph, “consistent with” means consistent with the use 
19designation, density, building intensity, transportation plan, and 
20applicable policies specified for the area in the sustainable 
21communities strategy or the alternative planning strategy, as 
22applicable, and any infrastructure necessary to support the plan, 
23program, project, or activity.
24(5) Routine maintenance and operation of a facility located, in 
25whole or in part, in the Delta, that is owned or operated by a local 
26public agency.
27(6) A plan, program, project, or activity that occurs, in whole 
28or in part, in the Delta, if both of the following conditions are met:
29(A) The plan, program, project, or activity is undertaken by a 
30local public agency that is located, in whole or in part, in the Delta.
31(B) Either a notice of determination is filed, pursuant to Section 
3221152 of the Public Resources Code, for the plan, program, project, 
33or activity by, or the plan, program, project, or activity is fully 
34permitted by, September 30, 2009.
35(7) (A) A project within the secondary zone, as defined pursuant 
36to Section 29731 of the Public Resources Code as of January 1, 
372009, for which a notice of approval or determination pursuant to 
38Section 21152 of the Public Resources Code has been filed before 
39the date on which the Delta Plan becomes effective.
P440  1(B) A project for which a notice of approval or determination
2
				  is filed on or after the date on which the final Bay Delta 
3Conservation Plan becomes effective, and before the date on which 
4the Delta Plan becomes effective, is not a covered action but shall 
5be consistent with the Bay Delta Conservation Plan.
6(C) Subparagraphs (A) and (B) do not apply to either of the 
7following:
8(i) A project that is within a Restoration Opportunity Area as 
9shown in Figure 3.1 of Chapter 3: Draft Conservation Strategy of 
10the Bay Delta Conservation Plan, August 3, 2009, or as shown in 
11a final Bay Delta Conservation Plan.
12(ii) A project that is within the alignment of a conveyance 
13facility as shown in Figures 1 to 5, inclusive, of the Final Draft 
14Initial Assessment of Dual Delta Water Conveyance Report, April 
1523, 2008, and in future revisions of this document by the 
16department.
17(8) Leases approved by a special district if all of the following 
18apply:
19(A) The uses proposed by the lease are authorized by the 
20applicable general plan and zoning ordinances of the city where 
21the special district is located.
22(B) The uses proposed by the lease are approved by the city 
23where the special district is located and the city complies with 
24Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 85225) of Part 3, if 
25applicable, prior to approval of the lease by the special district.
26(C) The special district complies with the California 
27Environmental Quality Act (Division 13 (commencing with Section 
2821000) of the Public Resources Code) prior to approving the lease.
29(9) (A) Routine
				  dredging activities that are necessary for 
30maintenance of facilities operated by a special district.
31(B) For purposes of this paragraph, “routine dredging activities” 
32are limited to the following:
33(i) Dredging to maintain the Stockton Deep Water Ship Channel 
34at a depth of 40 feet in the sediment trap at the confluence of the 
35San Joaquin River, between river mile 39.3 to river mile 40.2, and 
36to maintain the remaining Stockton Deep Water Ship Channel at 
37a depth of 35 feet plus two feet of overdredge from river mile 35 
38to river mile 43.
39(ii) Dredging designed to maintain the Sacramento Deep Water 
40Ship Channel at a depth of 30 feet plus two feet of overdredge 
P441  1from river mile 0.0 to river mile 30, and at a depth of 35 feet from 
2river mile 35 to river mile 43.
3(C) Except as provided by this subdivision, it is the intent of 
4the Legislature that this exemption shall not be interpreted or 
5treated as changing or modifying current substantive and procedural 
6regulations applicable to the decision to approve dredging 
7operations.
8(c) For purposes of this section, “special district” means the 
9Port of Stockton or the Port of West Sacramento.
10(d) This section shall not be interpreted to authorize the 
11abrogation of a vested right whether created by statute or by 
12common law.
Section 366.21 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
14 is amended to read:
(a) Every hearing conducted by the juvenile court 
16reviewing the status of a dependent child shall be placed on the 
17appearance calendar. The court shall advise all persons present at 
18the hearing of the date of the future hearing and of their right to 
19be present and represented by counsel.
20(b) Except as provided in Sections 294 and 295, notice of the 
21hearing shall be provided pursuant to Section 293.
22(c) At least 10 calendar days prior to the hearing, the social 
23worker shall file a supplemental report with the court regarding 
24the services provided or offered to the parent or legal guardian to 
25enable him or her to assume custody and the efforts made to 
26achieve legal permanence for the child if efforts to
				  reunify fail, 
27including, but not limited to, efforts to maintain relationships 
28between a child who is 10 years of age or older and has been in 
29out-of-home placement for six months or longer and individuals 
30who are important to the child, consistent with the child’s best 
31interests; the progress made; and, where relevant, the prognosis 
32for return of the child to the physical custody of his or her parent 
33or legal guardian; and shall make his or her recommendation for 
34disposition. If the child is a member of a sibling group described 
35in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 
36361.5, the report and recommendation may also take into account 
37those factors described in subdivision (e) relating to the child’s 
38sibling group. If the recommendation is not to return the child to 
39a parent or legal guardian, the report shall specify why the return 
40of the child would be detrimental to the child. The social worker 
P442  1shall provide the parent or legal guardian, counsel for the child, 
2and any
				  court-appointed child advocate with a copy of the report, 
3including his or her recommendation for disposition, at least 10 
4calendar days prior to the hearing. In the case of a child removed 
5from the physical custody of his or her parent or legal guardian, 
6the social worker shall, at least 10 calendar days prior to the 
7hearing, provide a summary of his or her recommendation for 
8disposition to any foster parents, relative caregivers, and certified 
9foster parents who have been approved for adoption by the State 
10Department of Social Services when it is acting as an adoption 
11agency or by a county adoption agency, community care facility, 
12or foster family agency having the physical custody of the child. 
13The social worker shall include a copy of the Judicial Council 
14Caregiver Information Form (JV-290) with the summary of 
15recommendations to the child’s foster parents, relative caregivers, 
16or foster parents approved for adoption, in the caregiver’s primary 
17language when available, along with information on how to
				  file 
18the form with the court.
19(d) Prior to any hearing involving a child in the physical custody 
20of a community care facility or a foster family agency that may 
21result in the return of the child to the physical custody of his or 
22her parent or legal guardian, or in adoption or the creation of a 
23legal guardianship, or in the case of an Indian child, in consultation 
24with the child’s tribe, tribal customary adoption, the facility or 
25agency shall file with the court a report, or a Judicial Council 
26Caregiver Information Form (JV-290), containing its 
27recommendation for disposition. Prior to the hearing involving a 
28child in the physical custody of a foster parent, a relative caregiver, 
29or a certified foster parent who has been approved for adoption by 
30the State Department of Social Services when it is acting as an 
31adoption agency or by a county adoption agency, the foster parent, 
32relative caregiver, or the certified foster parent who has been 
33approved
				  for adoption by the State Department of Social Services 
34when it is acting as an adoption agency or by a county adoption 
35agency, may file with the court a report containing his or her 
36recommendation for disposition. The court shall consider the report 
37and recommendation filed pursuant to this subdivision prior to 
38determining any disposition.
39(e) At the review hearing held six months after the initial 
40dispositional hearing, but no later than 12 months after the date 
P443  1the child entered foster care as determined in Section 361.49, 
2whichever occurs earlier, after considering the admissible and 
3relevant evidence, the court shall order the return of the child to 
4the physical custody of his or her parent or legal guardian unless 
5the court finds, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the return 
6of the child to his or her parent or legal guardian would create a 
7substantial risk of detriment to the safety, protection, or physical 
8or emotional well-being
				  of the child. The social worker shall have 
9the burden of establishing that detriment. At the hearing, the court 
10shall consider the criminal history, obtained pursuant to paragraph 
11(1) of subdivision (f) of Section 16504.5, of the parent or legal 
12guardian subsequent to the child’s removal to the extent that the 
13criminal record is substantially related to the welfare of the child 
14or the parent’s or guardian’s ability to exercise custody and control 
15regarding his or her child, provided the parent or legal guardian 
16agreed to submit fingerprint images to obtain criminal history 
17information as part of the case plan. The failure of the parent or 
18legal guardian to participate regularly and make substantive 
19progress in court-ordered treatment programs shall be prima facie 
20evidence that return would be detrimental. In making its 
21determination, the court shall review and consider the social 
22worker’s report and recommendations and the report and 
23recommendations of any child advocate appointed pursuant to 
24Section 356.5;
				  and shall consider the efforts or progress, or both, 
25demonstrated by the parent or legal guardian and the extent to 
26which he or she availed himself or herself to services provided, 
27taking into account the particular barriers to an incarcerated, 
28institutionalized, detained, or deported parent’s or legal guardian’s 
29access to those court-mandated services and ability to maintain 
30contact with his or her child.
31Regardless of whether the child is returned to a parent or legal 
32guardian, the court shall specify the factual basis for its conclusion 
33that the return would be detrimental or would not be detrimental. 
34The court also shall make appropriate findings pursuant to 
35subdivision (a) of Section 366; and, where relevant, shall order 
36any additional services reasonably believed to facilitate the return 
37of the child to the custody of his or her parent or legal guardian. 
38The court shall also inform the parent or legal guardian that if the 
39child cannot be returned home by the
				  12-month permanency 
40hearing, a proceeding pursuant to Section 366.26 may be instituted. 
P444  1This section does not apply in a case where, pursuant to Section 
2361.5, the court has ordered that reunification services shall not 
3be provided.
4If the child was under three years of age on the date of the initial 
5removal, or is a member of a sibling group described in 
6subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 
7361.5, and the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that 
8the parent failed to participate regularly and make substantive 
9progress in a court-ordered treatment plan, the court may schedule 
10a hearing pursuant to Section 366.26 within 120 days. If, however, 
11the court finds there is a substantial probability that the child, who 
12was under three years of age on the date of initial removal or is a 
13member of a sibling group described in subparagraph (C) of 
14paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 361.5, may be returned 
15to his or her parent or legal
				  guardian within six months or that 
16reasonable services have not been provided, the court shall continue 
17the case to the 12-month permanency hearing.
18For the purpose of placing and maintaining a sibling group 
19together in a permanent home, the court, in making its 
20determination to schedule a hearing pursuant to Section 366.26 
21for some or all members of a sibling group, as described in 
22subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 
23361.5, shall review and consider the social worker’s report and 
24recommendations. Factors the report shall address, and the court 
25shall consider, may include, but need not be limited to, whether 
26the sibling group was removed from parental care as a group, the 
27closeness and strength of the sibling bond, the ages of the siblings, 
28the appropriateness of maintaining the sibling group together, the 
29detriment to the child if sibling ties are not maintained, the 
30likelihood of finding a permanent home for the sibling group, 
31whether
				  the sibling group is currently placed together in a 
32preadoptive home or has a concurrent plan goal of legal 
33permanency in the same home, the wishes of each child whose 
34age and physical and emotional condition permits a meaningful 
35response, and the best interests of each child in the sibling group. 
36The court shall specify the factual basis for its finding that it is in 
37the best interests of each child to schedule a hearing pursuant to 
38Section 366.26 within 120 days for some or all of the members of 
39the sibling group.
P445  1If the child was removed initially under subdivision (g) of 
2Section 300 and the court finds by clear and convincing evidence 
3that the whereabouts of the parent are still unknown, or the parent 
4has failed to contact and visit the child, the court may schedule a 
5hearing pursuant to Section 366.26 within 120 days. The court 
6shall take into account any particular barriers to a parent’s ability 
7to maintain contact with his or her child due to the parent’s
8
				  incarceration, institutionalization, detention by the United States 
9Department of Homeland Security, or deportation. If the court 
10finds by clear and convincing evidence that the parent has been 
11convicted of a felony indicating parental unfitness, the court may 
12schedule a hearing pursuant to Section 366.26 within 120 days.
13If the child had been placed under court supervision with a 
14previously noncustodial parent pursuant to Section 361.2, the court 
15shall determine whether supervision is still necessary. The court 
16may terminate supervision and transfer permanent custody to that 
17parent, as provided for by paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of 
18Section 361.2.
19In all other cases, the court shall direct that any reunification 
20services previously ordered shall continue to be offered to the 
21parent or legal guardian pursuant to the time periods set forth in 
22subdivision (a) of Section 361.5, provided that the court may 
23modify the terms
				  and conditions of those services.
24If the child is not returned to his or her parent or legal guardian, 
25the court shall determine whether reasonable services that were 
26designed to aid the parent or legal guardian in overcoming the 
27problems that led to the initial removal and the continued custody 
28of the child have been provided or offered to the parent or legal 
29guardian. The court shall order that those services be initiated, 
30continued, or terminated.
31(f) The permanency hearing shall be held no later than 12 
32months after the date the child entered foster care, as that date is 
33determined pursuant to Section 361.49. At the permanency hearing, 
34the court shall determine the permanent plan for the child, which 
35shall include a determination of whether the child will be returned 
36to the child’s home and, if so, when, within the time limits of 
37subdivision (a) of Section 361.5. After considering the relevant 
38and
				  admissible evidence, the court shall order the return of the 
39child to the physical custody of his or her parent or legal guardian 
40unless the court finds, by a preponderance of the evidence, that 
P446  1the return of the child to his or her parent or legal guardian would 
2create a substantial risk of detriment to the safety, protection, or 
3physical or emotional well-being of the child. The social worker 
4shall have the burden of establishing that detriment. At the 
5permanency hearing, the court shall consider the criminal history, 
6obtained pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of Section 
716504.5, of the parent or legal guardian subsequent to the child’s 
8removal to the extent that the criminal record is substantially related 
9to the welfare of the child or the parent’s or legal guardian’s ability 
10to exercise custody and control regarding his or her child, provided 
11that the parent or legal guardian agreed to submit fingerprint images 
12to obtain criminal history information as part of the case plan. The 
13court shall
				  also determine whether reasonable services that were 
14designed to aid the parent or legal guardian to overcome the 
15problems that led to the initial removal and continued custody of 
16the child have been provided or offered to the parent or legal 
17guardian. For each youth 16 years of age and older, the court shall 
18also determine whether services have been made available to assist 
19him or her in making the transition from foster care to independent 
20living. The failure of the parent or legal guardian to participate 
21regularly and make substantive progress in court-ordered treatment 
22programs shall be prima facie evidence that return would be 
23detrimental. In making its determination, the court shall review 
24and consider the social worker’s report and recommendations and 
25the report and recommendations of any child advocate appointed 
26pursuant to Section 356.5, shall consider the efforts or progress, 
27or both, demonstrated by the parent or legal guardian and the extent 
28to which he or she availed himself or herself of
				  services provided, 
29taking into account the particular barriers to an incarcerated, 
30institutionalized, detained, or deported parent’s or legal guardian’s 
31access to those court-mandated services and ability to maintain 
32contact with his or her child, and shall make appropriate findings 
33pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 366.
34Regardless of whether the child is returned to his or her parent 
35or legal guardian, the court shall specify the factual basis for its 
36decision. If the child is not returned to a parent or legal guardian, 
37the court shall specify the factual basis for its conclusion that the 
38return would be detrimental. The court also shall make a finding 
39pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 366. If the child is not 
40returned to his or her parent or legal guardian, the court shall 
P447  1consider, and state for the record, in-state and out-of-state 
2placement options. If the child is placed out of the state, the court 
3shall make a determination whether the out-of-state
				  placement 
4continues to be appropriate and in the best interests of the child.
5(g) If the time period in which the court-ordered services were 
6provided has met or exceeded the time period set forth in 
7subparagraph (A), (B), or (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) 
8of Section 361.5, as appropriate, and a child is not returned to the 
9custody of a parent or legal guardian at the permanency hearing 
10held pursuant to subdivision (f), the court shall do one of the 
11following:
12(1) Continue the case for up to six months for a permanency 
13review hearing, provided that the hearing shall occur within 18 
14months of the date the child was originally taken from the physical 
15custody of his or her parent or legal guardian. The court shall 
16continue the case only if it finds that there is a substantial 
17probability that the child will be returned to the physical custody 
18of his or her parent or legal
				  guardian and safely maintained in the 
19home within the extended period of time or that reasonable services 
20have not been provided to the parent or legal guardian. For the 
21purposes of this section, in order to find a substantial probability 
22that the child will be returned to the physical custody of his or her 
23parent or legal guardian and safely maintained in the home within 
24the extended period of time, the court shall be required to find all 
25of the following:
26(A) That the parent or legal guardian has consistently and 
27regularly contacted and visited with the child.
28(B) That the parent or legal guardian has made significant 
29progress in resolving problems that led to the child’s removal from 
30the home.
31(C) The parent or legal guardian has demonstrated the capacity 
32and ability both to complete the objectives of his or her
				  treatment 
33plan and to provide for the child’s safety, protection, physical and 
34emotional well-being, and special needs.
35For purposes of this subdivision, the court’s decision to continue 
36the case based on a finding or substantial probability that the child 
37will be returned to the physical custody of his or her parent or legal 
38guardian is a compelling reason for determining that a hearing 
39held pursuant to Section 366.26 is not in the best interests of the 
40child.
P448  1The court shall inform the parent or legal guardian that if the 
2child cannot be returned home by the next permanency review 
3hearing, a proceeding pursuant to Section 366.26 may be instituted. 
4The court may not order that a hearing pursuant to Section 366.26 
5be held unless there is clear and convincing evidence that 
6reasonable services have been provided or offered to the parent or 
7legal guardian.
8(2) Continue the case for up to six months for a permanency 
9review hearing, provided that the hearing shall occur within 18 
10months of the date the child was originally taken from the physical 
11custody of his or her parent or legal guardian, if the parent has 
12been arrested and issued an immigration hold, detained by the 
13United States Department of Homeland Security, or deported to 
14his or her country of origin, and the court determines either that 
15there is a substantial probability that the child will be returned to 
16the physical custody of his or her parent or legal guardian and 
17safely maintained in the home within the extended period of time 
18or that reasonable services have not been provided to the parent 
19or legal guardian.
20(3) For purposes of paragraph (2), in order to find a substantial 
21probability that the child will be returned to the physical custody 
22of his or her parent or legal guardian and safely maintained in the 
23home within
				  the extended period of time, the court must find all 
24of the following:
25(A) The parent or legal guardian has consistently and regularly 
26contacted and visited with the child, taking into account any 
27particular barriers to a parent’s ability to maintain contact with his 
28or her child due to the parent’s arrest and receipt of an immigration 
29hold, detention by the United States Department of Homeland 
30Security, or deportation.
31(B) The parent or legal guardian has made significant progress 
32in resolving the problems that led to the child’s removal from the 
33home.
34(C) The parent or legal guardian has demonstrated the capacity 
35or ability both to complete the objectives of his or her treatment 
36plan and to provide for the child’s safety, protection, physical and 
37emotional well-being, and special needs.
38(4) Order that a hearing be held within 120 days, pursuant to 
39Section 366.26, but only if the court does not continue the case to 
40the permanency planning review hearing and there is clear and 
P449  1convincing evidence that reasonable services have been provided 
2or offered to the parents or legal guardians. On and after January 
31, 2012, a hearing pursuant to Section 366.26 shall not be ordered 
4if the child is a nonminor dependent, unless the nonminor 
5dependent is an Indian child and tribal customary adoption is 
6recommended as the permanent plan.
7(5) Order that the child remain in long-term foster care, but only 
8if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence, based upon 
9the evidence already presented to it, including a recommendation 
10by the State Department of Social Services when it is acting as an 
11adoption agency or by a county adoption agency, that there is a 
12compelling reason for
				  determining that a hearing held pursuant to 
13Section 366.26 is not in the best interests of the child because the 
14child is not a proper subject for adoption and has no one willing 
15to accept legal guardianship. For purposes of this section, a 
16recommendation by the State Department of Social Services when 
17it is acting as an adoption agency or by a county adoption agency 
18that adoption is not in the best interests of the child shall constitute 
19a compelling reason for the court’s determination. That 
20recommendation shall be based on the present circumstances of 
21the child and shall not preclude a different recommendation at a 
22later date if the child’s circumstances change. On and after January 
231, 2012, the nonminor dependent’s legal status as an adult is in 
24and of itself a compelling reason not to hold a hearing pursuant to 
25Section 366.26. The court may order that a nonminor dependent 
26who otherwise is eligible pursuant to Section 11403 remain in a 
27planned, permanent living arrangement.
28If the court orders that a child who is 10 years of age or older 
29remain in long-term foster care, the court shall determine whether 
30the agency has made reasonable efforts to maintain the child’s 
31relationships with individuals other than the child’s siblings who 
32are important to the child, consistent with the child’s best interests, 
33and may make any appropriate order to ensure that those 
34relationships are maintained.
35If the child is not returned to his or her parent or legal guardian, 
36the court shall consider, and state for the record, in-state and 
37out-of-state options for permanent placement. If the child is placed 
38out of the state, the court shall make a determination whether the 
39out-of-state placement continues to be appropriate and in the best 
40interests of the child.
P450  1(h) In any case in which the court orders that a hearing pursuant 
2to Section 366.26 shall be
				  held, it shall also order the termination 
3of reunification services to the parent or legal guardian. The court 
4shall continue to permit the parent or legal guardian to visit the 
5child pending the hearing unless it finds that visitation would be 
6detrimental to the child. The court shall make any other appropriate 
7orders to enable the child to maintain relationships with individuals, 
8other than the child’s siblings, who are important to the child, 
9consistent with the child’s best interests. When the court orders a 
10termination of reunification services to the parent or legal guardian, 
11it shall also order that the child’s caregiver receive the child’s birth 
12certificate in accordance with Sections 16010.4 and 16010.5. 
13Additionally, when the court orders a termination of reunification 
14services to the parent or legal guardian, it shall order, when 
15appropriate, that a child who is 16 years of age or older receive 
16his or her birth certificate.
17(i) (1) Whenever a court orders that a hearing pursuant to 
18Section 366.26, including, when, in consultation with the child’s 
19tribe, tribal customary adoption is recommended, shall be held, it 
20shall direct the agency supervising the child and the county 
21adoption agency, or the State Department of Social Services when 
22it is acting as an adoption agency, to prepare an assessment that 
23shall include:
24(A) Current search efforts for an absent parent or parents or 
25legal guardians.
26(B) A review of the amount of and nature of any contact between 
27the child and his or her parents or legal guardians and other 
28members of his or her extended family since the time of placement. 
29Although the extended family of each child shall be reviewed on 
30a case-by-case basis, “extended family” for the purpose of this 
31subparagraph shall include, but not be limited to, the
				  child’s 
32siblings, grandparents, aunts, and uncles.
33(C) An evaluation of the child’s medical, developmental, 
34scholastic, mental, and emotional status.
35(D) A preliminary assessment of the eligibility and commitment 
36of any identified prospective adoptive parent or legal guardian, 
37including the prospective tribal customary adoptive parent, 
38particularly the caretaker, to include a social history including 
39screening for criminal records and prior referrals for child abuse 
40or neglect, the capability to meet the child’s needs, and the 
P451  1understanding of the legal and financial rights and responsibilities 
2of adoption and guardianship. If a proposed guardian is a relative 
3of the minor, the assessment shall also consider, but need not be 
4limited to, all of the factors specified in subdivision (a) of Section 
5361.3 and in Section 361.4.
6(E) The relationship of the child to any identified prospective 
7adoptive parent or legal guardian, the duration and character of 
8the relationship, the degree of attachment of the child to the 
9prospective relative guardian or adoptive parent, the relative’s or 
10adoptive parent’s strong commitment to caring permanently for 
11the child, the motivation for seeking adoption or guardianship, a 
12statement from the child concerning placement and the adoption 
13or guardianship, and whether the child, if over 12 years of age, 
14has been consulted about the proposed relative guardianship 
15arrangements, unless the child’s age or physical, emotional, or 
16other condition precludes his or her meaningful response, and if 
17so, a description of the condition.
18(F) A description of efforts to be made to identify a prospective 
19adoptive parent or legal guardian, including, but not limited to, 
20child-specific recruitment and listing on an adoption exchange 
21within
				  the state or out of the state.
22(G) An analysis of the likelihood that the child will be adopted 
23if parental rights are terminated.
24(H) In the case of an Indian child, in addition to subparagraphs 
25(A) to (G), inclusive, an assessment of the likelihood that the child 
26will be adopted, when, in consultation with the child’s tribe, a 
27tribal customary adoption, as defined in Section 366.24, is 
28recommended. If tribal customary adoption is recommended, the 
29assessment shall include an analysis of both of the following:
30(i) Whether tribal customary adoption would or would not be 
31detrimental to the Indian child and the reasons for reaching that 
32conclusion.
33(ii) Whether the Indian child cannot or should not be returned 
34to the home of the Indian parent or Indian
				  custodian and the reasons 
35for reaching that conclusion.
36(2) (A) A relative caregiver’s preference for legal guardianship 
37over adoption, if it is due to circumstances that do not include an 
38unwillingness to accept legal or financial responsibility for the 
39child, shall not constitute the sole basis for recommending removal 
P452  1of the child from the relative caregiver for purposes of adoptive 
2placement.
3(B) Regardless of his or her immigration status, a relative 
4caregiver shall be given information regarding the permanency 
5options of guardianship and adoption, including the long-term 
6benefits and consequences of each option, prior to establishing 
7legal guardianship or pursuing adoption. If the proposed permanent 
8plan is guardianship with an approved relative caregiver for a 
9minor eligible for aid under the Kin-GAP Program, as provided 
10for in Article 4.7 (commencing
				  with Section 11385) of Chapter 2 
11of Part 3 of Division 9, the relative caregiver shall be informed 
12about the terms and conditions of the negotiated agreement 
13pursuant to Section 11387 and shall agree to its execution prior to 
14the hearing held pursuant to Section 366.26. A copy of the executed 
15negotiated agreement shall be attached to the assessment.
16(j) If, at any hearing held pursuant to Section 366.26, a 
17guardianship is established for the minor with an approved relative 
18caregiver, and juvenile court dependency is subsequently 
19dismissed, the minor shall be eligible for aid under the Kin-GAP 
20Program, as provided for in Article 4.5 (commencing with Section 
2111360) or Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 11385), as 
22applicable, of Chapter 2 of Part 3 of Division 9.
23(k) As used in this section, “relative” means an adult who is 
24related to the minor by blood, adoption, or affinity
				  within the fifth 
25degree of kinship, including stepparents, stepsiblings, and all 
26relatives whose status is preceded by the words “great,” 
27“great-great,” or “grand,” or the spouse of any of those persons 
28even if the marriage was terminated by death or dissolution. If the 
29proposed permanent plan is guardianship with an approved relative 
30caregiver for a minor eligible for aid under the Kin-GAP Program, 
31as provided for in Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 11385) 
32of Chapter 2 of Part 3 of Division 9, “relative” as used in this 
33section has the same meaning as “relative” as defined in 
34subdivision (c) of Section 11391.
35(l) For purposes of this section, evidence of any of the following 
36circumstances may not, in and of itself, be deemed a failure to 
37provide or offer reasonable services:
38(1) The child has been placed with a foster family that is eligible 
39to adopt a child, or has been
				  placed in a preadoptive home.
P453  1(2) The case plan includes services to make and finalize a 
2permanent placement for the child if efforts to reunify fail.
3(3) Services to make and finalize a permanent placement for 
4the child, if efforts to reunify fail, are provided concurrently with 
5services to reunify the family.
6(m) The implementation and operation of the amendments to 
7subdivisions (c) and (g) enacted at the 2005-06 Regular Session 
8shall be subject to appropriation through the budget process and 
9by phase, as provided in Section 366.35.
Section 366.22 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
11 is amended to read:
(a) When a case has been continued pursuant to 
13paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (g) of Section 366.21, the 
14permanency review hearing shall occur within 18 months after the 
15date the child was originally removed from the physical custody 
16of his or her parent or legal guardian. After considering the 
17admissible and relevant evidence, the court shall order the return 
18of the child to the physical custody of his or her parent or legal 
19guardian unless the court finds, by a preponderance of the evidence, 
20that the return of the child to his or her parent or legal guardian 
21would create a substantial risk of detriment to the safety, protection, 
22or physical or emotional well-being of the child. The social worker 
23shall have the burden of establishing that detriment. At the 
24permanency review hearing, the court shall consider the criminal
25
				  history, obtained pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of 
26Section 16504.5, of the parent or legal guardian subsequent to the 
27child’s removal, to the extent that the criminal record is 
28substantially related to the welfare of the child or the parent’s or 
29legal guardian’s ability to exercise custody and control regarding 
30his or her child, provided that the parent or legal guardian agreed 
31to submit fingerprint images to obtain criminal history information 
32as part of the case plan. The failure of the parent or legal guardian 
33to participate regularly and make substantive progress in 
34court-ordered treatment programs shall be prima facie evidence 
35that return would be detrimental. In making its determination, the 
36court shall review and consider the social worker’s report and 
37recommendations and the report and recommendations of any child 
38advocate appointed pursuant to Section 356.5; shall consider the 
39efforts or progress, or both, demonstrated by the parent or legal 
40guardian and the extent to which he or she
				  availed himself or 
P454  1herself of services provided, taking into account the particular 
2barriers of an incarcerated or institutionalized parent’s or legal 
3guardian’s access to those court-mandated services and ability to 
4maintain contact with his or her child; and shall make appropriate 
5findings pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 366.
6Whether or not the child is returned to his or her parent or legal 
7guardian, the court shall specify the factual basis for its decision. 
8If the child is not returned to a parent or legal guardian, the court 
9shall specify the factual basis for its conclusion that return would 
10be detrimental. If the child is not returned to his or her parent or 
11legal guardian, the court shall consider, and state for the record, 
12in-state and out-of-state options for the child’s permanent 
13placement. If the child is placed out of the state, the court shall 
14make a determination whether the out-of-state placement continues 
15to be appropriate and in the best
				  interests of the child.
16Unless the conditions in subdivision (b) are met and the child is 
17not returned to a parent or legal guardian at the permanency review 
18hearing, the court shall order that a hearing be held pursuant to 
19Section 366.26 in order to determine whether adoption, or, in the 
20case of an Indian child, in consultation with the child’s tribe, tribal 
21customary adoption, guardianship, or long-term foster care is the 
22most appropriate plan for the child. On and after January 1, 2012, 
23a hearing pursuant to Section 366.26 shall not be ordered if the 
24child is a nonminor dependent, unless the nonminor dependent is 
25an Indian child, and tribal customary adoption is recommended as 
26the permanent plan. However, if the court finds by clear and 
27convincing evidence, based on the evidence already presented to 
28it, including a recommendation by the State Department of Social 
29Services when it is acting as an adoption agency or by a county 
30adoption agency, that there is a
				  compelling reason, as described 
31in paragraph (5) of subdivision (g) of Section 366.21, for 
32determining that a hearing held under Section 366.26 is not in the 
33best interests of the child because the child is not a proper subject 
34for adoption and has no one willing to accept legal guardianship, 
35the court may, only under these circumstances, order that the child 
36remain in long-term foster care. On and after January 1, 2012, the 
37nonminor dependent’s legal status as an adult is in and of itself a 
38compelling reason not to hold a hearing pursuant to Section 366.26. 
39The court may order that a nonminor dependent who otherwise is 
40eligible pursuant to Section 11403 remain in a planned, permanent 
P455  1living arrangement. If the court orders that a child who is 10 years 
2of age or older remain in long-term foster care, the court shall 
3determine whether the agency has made reasonable efforts to 
4maintain the child’s relationships with individuals other than the 
5child’s siblings who are important to the child, consistent with the
6
				  child’s best interests, and may make any appropriate order to ensure 
7that those relationships are maintained. The hearing shall be held 
8no later than 120 days from the date of the permanency review 
9hearing. The court shall also order termination of reunification 
10services to the parent or legal guardian. The court shall continue 
11to permit the parent or legal guardian to visit the child unless it 
12finds that visitation would be detrimental to the child. The court 
13shall determine whether reasonable services have been offered or 
14provided to the parent or legal guardian. For purposes of this 
15subdivision, evidence of any of the following circumstances shall 
16not, in and of themselves, be deemed a failure to provide or offer 
17reasonable services:
18(1) The child has been placed with a foster family that is eligible 
19to adopt a child, or has been placed in a preadoptive home.
20(2) The case plan
				  includes services to make and finalize a 
21permanent placement for the child if efforts to reunify fail.
22(3) Services to make and finalize a permanent placement for 
23the child, if efforts to reunify fail, are provided concurrently with 
24services to reunify the family.
25(b) If the child is not returned to a parent or legal guardian at 
26the permanency review hearing and the court determines by clear 
27and convincing evidence that the best interests of the child would 
28be met by the provision of additional reunification services to a 
29parent or legal guardian who is making significant and consistent 
30progress in a court-ordered residential substance abuse treatment 
31program, or a parent recently discharged from incarceration, 
32institutionalization, or the custody of the United States Department 
33of Homeland Security and making significant and consistent 
34progress in establishing a safe home for the
				  child’s return, the court 
35may continue the case for up to six months for a subsequent 
36permanency review hearing, provided that the hearing shall occur 
37within 24 months of the date the child was originally taken from 
38the physical custody of his or her parent or legal guardian. The 
39court shall continue the case only if it finds that there is a 
40substantial probability that the child will be returned to the physical 
P456  1custody of his or her parent or legal guardian and safely maintained 
2in the home within the extended period of time or that reasonable 
3services have not been provided to the parent or legal guardian. 
4For the purposes of this section, in order to find a substantial 
5probability that the child will be returned to the physical custody 
6of his or her parent or legal guardian and safely maintained in the 
7home within the extended period of time, the court shall be required 
8to find all of the following:
9(1) That the parent or legal guardian has
				  consistently and 
10regularly contacted and visited with the child.
11(2) That the parent or legal guardian has made significant and 
12consistent progress in the prior 18 months in resolving problems 
13that led to the child’s removal from the home.
14(3) The parent or legal guardian has demonstrated the capacity 
15and ability both to complete the objectives of his or her substance 
16abuse treatment plan as evidenced by reports from a substance 
17abuse provider as applicable, or complete a treatment plan 
18postdischarge from incarceration, institutionalization, or detention, 
19or following deportation to his or her country of origin and his or 
20her return to the United States, and to provide for the child’s safety, 
21protection, physical and emotional well-being, and special needs.
22For purposes of this subdivision, the court’s decision to continue 
23the case based
				  on a finding or substantial probability that the child 
24will be returned to the physical custody of his or her parent or legal 
25guardian is a compelling reason for determining that a hearing 
26held pursuant to Section 366.26 is not in the best interests of the 
27child.
28The court shall inform the parent or legal guardian that if the 
29child cannot be returned home by the subsequent permanency 
30review hearing, a proceeding pursuant to Section 366.26 may be 
31instituted. The court may not order that a hearing pursuant to 
32Section 366.26 be held unless there is clear and convincing 
33evidence that reasonable services have been provided or offered 
34to the parent or legal guardian.
35(c) (1) Whenever a court orders that a hearing pursuant to 
36Section 366.26, including when a tribal customary adoption is 
37recommended, shall be held, it shall direct the agency supervising 
38the child and the county adoption
				  agency, or the State Department 
39of Social Services when it is acting as an adoption agency, to 
40prepare an assessment that shall include:
P457 1(A) Current search efforts for an absent parent or parents.
2(B) A review of the amount of and nature of any contact between 
3the child and his or her parents and other members of his or her 
4extended family since the time of placement. Although the 
5extended family of each child shall be reviewed on a case-by-case 
6basis, “extended family” for the purposes of this subparagraph 
7shall include, but not be limited to, the child’s siblings, 
8grandparents, aunts, and uncles.
9(C) An evaluation of the child’s medical, developmental, 
10scholastic, mental, and emotional status.
11(D)  A preliminary assessment of the eligibility and
				  commitment 
12of any identified prospective adoptive parent or legal guardian, 
13particularly the caretaker, to include a social history including 
14screening for criminal records and prior referrals for child abuse 
15or neglect, the capability to meet the child’s needs, and the 
16understanding of the legal and financial rights and responsibilities 
17of adoption and guardianship. If a proposed legal guardian is a 
18relative of the minor, the assessment shall also consider, but need 
19not be limited to, all of the factors specified in subdivision (a) of 
20Section 361.3 and Section 361.4.
21(E) The relationship of the child to any identified prospective 
22adoptive parent or legal guardian, the duration and character of 
23the relationship, the degree of attachment of the child to the 
24prospective relative guardian or adoptive parent, the relative’s or 
25adoptive parent’s strong commitment to caring permanently for 
26the child, the motivation for seeking adoption or legal
				  guardianship, 
27a statement from the child concerning placement and the adoption 
28or legal guardianship, and whether the child, if over 12 years of 
29age, has been consulted about the proposed relative guardianship 
30arrangements, unless the child’s age or physical, emotional, or 
31other condition precludes his or her meaningful response, and if 
32so, a description of the condition.
33(F) An analysis of the likelihood that the child will be adopted 
34if parental rights are terminated.
35(G) In the case of an Indian child, in addition to subparagraphs 
36(A) to (F), inclusive, an assessment of the likelihood that the child 
37will be adopted, when, in consultation with the child’s tribe, a 
38tribal customary adoption, as defined in Section 366.24, is 
39recommended. If tribal customary adoption is recommended, the 
40assessment shall include an analysis of both of the following:
P458  1(i) Whether tribal customary adoption would or would not be 
2detrimental to the Indian child and the reasons for reaching that 
3conclusion.
4(ii) Whether the Indian child cannot or should not be returned 
5to the home of the Indian parent or Indian custodian and the reasons 
6for reaching that conclusion.
7(2) (A) A relative caregiver’s preference for legal guardianship 
8over adoption, if it is due to circumstances that do not include an 
9unwillingness to accept legal or financial responsibility for the 
10child, shall not constitute the sole basis for recommending removal 
11of the child from the relative caregiver for purposes of adoptive 
12placement.
13(B) Regardless of his or her immigration status, a relative 
14caregiver shall be given information
				  regarding the permanency 
15options of guardianship and adoption, including the long-term 
16benefits and consequences of each option, prior to establishing 
17legal guardianship or pursuing adoption. If the proposed permanent 
18plan is guardianship with an approved relative caregiver for a 
19minor eligible for aid under the Kin-GAP Program, as provided 
20for in Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 11385) of Chapter 2 
21of Part 3 of Division 9, the relative caregiver shall be informed 
22about the terms and conditions of the negotiated agreement 
23pursuant to Section 11387 and shall agree to its execution prior to 
24the hearing held pursuant to Section 366.26. A copy of the executed 
25negotiated agreement shall be attached to the assessment.
26(d) This section shall become operative January 1, 1999. If at 
27any hearing held pursuant to Section 366.26, a legal guardianship 
28is established for the minor with an approved relative caregiver, 
29and juvenile court dependency is
				  subsequently dismissed, the minor 
30shall be eligible for aid under the Kin-GAP Program, as provided 
31for in Article 4.5 (commencing with Section 11360) or Article 4.7 
32(commencing with Section 11385), as applicable, of Chapter 2 of 
33Part 3 of Division 9.
34(e) As used in this section, “relative” means an adult who is 
35related to the child by blood, adoption, or affinity within the fifth 
36degree of kinship, including stepparents, stepsiblings, and all 
37relatives whose status is preceded by the words “great,” 
38“great-great,” or “grand,” or the spouse of any of those persons 
39even if the marriage was terminated by death or dissolution. If the 
40proposed permanent plan is guardianship with an approved relative 
P459  1caregiver for a minor eligible for aid under the Kin-GAP Program, 
2as provided for in Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 11385) 
3of Chapter 2 of Part 3 of Division 9, “relative” as used in this 
4section has the same meaning as “relative” as defined in
5
				  subdivision (c) of Section 11391.
6(f) The implementation and operation of the amendments to 
7subdivision (a) enacted at the 2005-06 Regular Session shall be 
8subject to appropriation through the budget process and by phase, 
9as provided in Section 366.35.
Section 366.25 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
11 is amended to read:
(a) (1) When a case has been continued pursuant to 
13subdivision (b) of Section 366.22, the subsequent permanency 
14review hearing shall occur within 24 months after the date the 
15child was originally removed from the physical custody of his or 
16her parent or legal guardian. After considering the relevant and 
17admissible evidence, the court shall order the return of the child 
18to the physical custody of his or her parent or legal guardian unless 
19the court finds, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the return 
20of the child to his or her parent or legal guardian would create a 
21substantial risk of detriment to the safety, protection, or physical 
22or emotional well-being of the child. The social worker shall have 
23the burden of establishing that detriment. At the subsequent 
24permanency review hearing, the court shall
				  consider the criminal 
25history, obtained pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of 
26Section 16504.5, of the parent or legal guardian subsequent to the 
27child’s removal to the extent that the criminal record is substantially 
28related to the welfare of the child or parent’s or legal guardian’s 
29ability to exercise custody and control regarding his or her child 
30provided that the parent or legal guardian agreed to submit 
31fingerprint images to obtain criminal history information as part 
32of the case plan. The failure of the parent or legal guardian to 
33participate regularly and make substantive progress in court-ordered 
34treatment programs shall be prima facie evidence that return would 
35be detrimental. In making its determination, the court shall review 
36and consider the social worker’s report and recommendations and 
37the report and recommendations of any child advocate appointed 
38pursuant to Section 356.5; shall consider the efforts or progress, 
39or both, demonstrated by the parent or legal guardian and the extent 
40to
				  which he or she availed himself or herself of services provided; 
P460  1and shall make appropriate findings pursuant to subdivision (a) of 
2Section 366.
3(2) Whether or not the child is returned to his or her parent or 
4legal guardian, the court shall specify the factual basis for its 
5decision. If the child is not returned to a parent or legal guardian, 
6the court shall specify the factual basis for its conclusion that return 
7would be detrimental. If the child is not returned to his or her parent 
8or legal guardian, the court shall consider and state for the record, 
9in-state and out-of-state options for the child’s permanent 
10placement. If the child is placed out of the state, the court shall 
11make a determination whether the out-of-state placement continues 
12to be appropriate and in the best interests of the child.
13(3) If the child is not returned to a parent or legal guardian at 
14the subsequent
				  permanency review hearing, the court shall order 
15that a hearing be held pursuant to Section 366.26 in order to 
16determine whether adoption, or, in the case of an Indian child, 
17tribal customary adoption, guardianship, or long-term foster care 
18is the most appropriate plan for the child. On and after January 1, 
192012, a hearing pursuant to Section 366.26 shall not be ordered if 
20the child is a nonminor dependent, unless the nonminor dependent 
21is an Indian child and tribal customary adoption is recommended 
22as the permanent plan. However, if the court finds by clear and 
23convincing evidence, based on the evidence already presented to 
24it, including a recommendation by the State Department of Social 
25Services when it is acting as an adoption agency or by a county 
26adoption agency, that there is a compelling reason, as described 
27in paragraph (5) of subdivision (g) of Section 366.21, for 
28determining that a hearing held under Section 366.26 is not in the 
29best interest of the child because the child is not a proper subject
30
				  for adoption or, in the case of an Indian child, tribal customary 
31adoption, and has no one willing to accept legal guardianship, then 
32the court may, only under these circumstances, order that the child 
33remain in long-term foster care. On and after January 1, 2012, the 
34nonminor dependent’s legal status as an adult is in and of itself a 
35compelling reason not to hold a hearing pursuant to Section 366.26. 
36The court may order that a nonminor dependent who otherwise is 
37eligible pursuant to Section 11403 remain in a planned, permanent 
38living arrangement. If the court orders that a child who is 10 years 
39of age or older remain in long-term foster care, the court shall 
40determine whether the agency has made reasonable efforts to 
P461  1maintain the child’s relationships with individuals other than the 
2child’s siblings who are important to the child, consistent with the 
3child’s best interests, and may make any appropriate order to ensure 
4that those relationships are maintained. The hearing shall be held 
5no later than 120 days
				  from the date of the subsequent permanency 
6review hearing. The court shall also order termination of 
7reunification services to the parent or legal guardian. The court 
8shall continue to permit the parent or legal guardian to visit the 
9child unless it finds that visitation would be detrimental to the 
10child. The court shall determine whether reasonable services have 
11been offered or provided to the parent or legal guardian. For 
12purposes of this paragraph, evidence of any of the following 
13circumstances shall not, in and of themselves, be deemed a failure 
14to provide or offer reasonable services:
15(A) The child has been placed with a foster family that is eligible 
16to adopt a child, or has been placed in a preadoptive home.
17(B) The case plan includes services to make and finalize a 
18permanent placement for the child if efforts to reunify fail.
19(C) Services to make and finalize a permanent placement for 
20the child, if efforts to reunify fail, are provided concurrently with 
21services to reunify the family.
22(b) (1) Whenever a court orders that a hearing pursuant to 
23Section 366.26 shall be held, it shall direct the agency supervising 
24the child and the county adoption agency, or the State Department 
25of Social Services when it is acting as an adoption agency, to 
26prepare an assessment that shall include:
27(A) Current search efforts for an absent parent or parents.
28(B) A review of the amount of, and nature of, any contact 
29between the child and his or her parents and other members of his 
30or her extended family since the time of placement. Although the 
31extended family of each child shall
				  be reviewed on a case-by-case 
32basis, “extended family” for the purposes of this paragraph shall 
33include, but not be limited to, the child’s siblings, grandparents, 
34aunts, and uncles.
35(C) An evaluation of the child’s medical, developmental, 
36scholastic, mental, and emotional status.
37(D) A preliminary assessment of the eligibility and commitment 
38of any identified prospective adoptive parent or legal guardian, 
39including a prospective tribal customary adoptive parent, 
40particularly the caretaker, to include a social history including 
P462  1screening for criminal records and prior referrals for child abuse 
2or neglect, the capability to meet the child’s needs, and the 
3understanding of the legal and financial rights and responsibilities 
4of adoption and guardianship. If a proposed legal guardian is a 
5relative of the minor, the assessment shall also consider, but need 
6not be limited to, all of the
				  factors specified in subdivision (a) of 
7Section 361.3 and in Section 361.4.
8(E) The relationship of the child to any identified prospective 
9adoptive parent or legal guardian, including a prospective tribal 
10customary adoptive parent, the duration and character of the 
11relationship, the degree of attachment of the child to the prospective 
12relative guardian or adoptive parent, the relative’s or adoptive 
13parent’s strong commitment to caring permanently for the child, 
14the motivation for seeking adoption or legal guardianship, a 
15statement from the child concerning placement and the adoption 
16or legal guardianship, and whether the child, if over 12 years of 
17age, has been consulted about the proposed relative guardianship 
18arrangements, unless the child’s age or physical, emotional, or 
19other condition precludes his or her meaningful response, and if 
20so, a description of the condition.
21(F) An
				  analysis of the likelihood that the child will be adopted 
22if parental rights are terminated.
23(G) In the case of an Indian child, in addition to subparagraphs 
24(A) to (F), inclusive, an assessment of the likelihood that the child 
25will be adopted, when, in consultation with the child’s tribe, a 
26tribal customary adoption, as defined in Section 366.24, is 
27recommended. If tribal customary adoption is recommended, the 
28assessment shall include an analysis of both of the following:
29(i) Whether tribal customary adoption would or would not be 
30detrimental to the Indian child and the reasons for reaching that 
31conclusion.
32(ii) Whether the Indian child cannot or should not be returned 
33to the home of the Indian parent or Indian custodian and the reasons 
34for reaching that conclusion.
35(2) (A) A relative caregiver’s preference for legal guardianship 
36over adoption, if it is due to circumstances that do not include an 
37unwillingness to accept legal or financial responsibility for the 
38child, shall not constitute the sole basis for recommending removal 
39of the child from the relative caregiver for purposes of adoptive 
40placement.
P463  1(B) Regardless of his or her immigration status, a relative 
2caregiver shall be given information regarding the permanency 
3options of guardianship and adoption, including the long-term 
4benefits and consequences of each option, prior to establishing 
5legal guardianship or pursuing adoption. If the proposed permanent 
6plan is guardianship with an approved relative caregiver for a 
7minor eligible for aid under the Kin-GAP Program, as provided 
8for in Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 11385) of Chapter 2 
9of Part 3 of Division 9, the
				  relative caregiver shall be informed 
10about the terms and conditions of the negotiated agreement 
11pursuant to Section 11387 and shall agree to its execution prior to 
12the hearing held pursuant to Section 366.26. A copy of the executed 
13negotiated agreement shall be attached to the assessment.
14(c) If, at any hearing held pursuant to Section 366.26, a 
15guardianship is established for the minor with an approved relative 
16caregiver, and juvenile court dependency is subsequently 
17dismissed, the minor shall be eligible for aid under the Kin-GAP 
18Program, as provided for in Article 4.5 (commencing with Section 
1911360) or Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 11385), as 
20applicable, of Chapter 2 of Part 3 of Division 9.
21(d) As used in this section, “relative” means an adult who is 
22related to the minor by blood, adoption, or affinity within the fifth 
23degree of kinship, including stepparents,
				  stepsiblings, and all 
24relatives whose status is preceded by the words “great,” 
25“great-great,” or “grand,” or the spouse of any of those persons 
26even if the marriage was terminated by death or dissolution. If the 
27proposed permanent plan is guardianship with an approved relative 
28caregiver for a minor eligible for aid under the Kin-GAP Program, 
29as provided in Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 11385) of 
30Chapter 2 of Part 3 of Division 9, “relative” as used in this section 
31has the same meaning as “relative” as defined in subdivision (c) 
32of Section 11391.
33(e) The implementation and operation of subdivision (a) enacted 
34at the 2005-06 Regular Session shall be subject to appropriation 
35through the budget process and by phase, as provided in Section 
36366.35.
Section 4141 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
38 is amended to read:
(a) (1) Each state hospital shall update its injury and 
40illness prevention plan at least once a year to include necessary 
P464  1safeguards to prevent workplace safety hazards in connection with 
2workplace violence associated with patient assaults on employees.
3(2) Updated injury and illness prevention plans shall address, 
4but shall not be limited to, all of the following:
5(A) Control of physical access throughout the hospital and 
6grounds.
7(B) Alarm systems.
8(C) Presence of security personnel.
9(D) Training.
10(E) Buddy systems.
11(F) Communication.
12(G) Emergency responses.
13(3) (A) The department shall submit the updated injury and 
14illness prevention plans to the Legislature every two years.
15(B) (i) The requirement for submitting the updated injury and 
16illness prevention plans imposed pursuant to subparagraph (A) is 
17inoperative four years after the date the first report is due, pursuant 
18to Section 10231.5 of the Government Code.
19(ii) Updated injury and illness prevention plans submitted 
20pursuant to subparagraph (A) shall be submitted in compliance 
21with Section
				  9795 of the Government Code.
22(b) Each state hospital shall establish an injury and illness 
23prevention committee comprised of hospital management and 
24employees designated by the hospital’s director in consultation 
25with the employee bargaining units. The committee shall be 
26responsible for providing recommendations to the hospital director 
27for updates to the injury and illness prevention plan. The committee 
28shall meet at least four times per year.
29(c) Each state hospital shall develop an incident reporting 
30procedure that can be used, at a minimum, to develop reports of 
31patient assaults on employees and assist the hospital in identifying 
32risks of patient assaults on employees. Data obtained from the 
33incident reporting procedures shall be accessible to staff. The 
34incident reporting procedure shall be designed to provide hospital 
35management with immediate notification of reported
				  incidents. 
36The hospital shall provide for timely and efficient responses and 
37investigations to incident reports made under the incident reporting 
38procedure. Incident reports shall also be forwarded to the injury 
39and illness prevention committee established pursuant to 
40subdivision (b).
Section 4427.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
2 is amended to read:
(a) (1) A developmental center shall immediately 
4report the following incidents involving a resident to the local law 
5enforcement agency having jurisdiction over the city or county in 
6which the developmental center is located, regardless of whether 
7the Office of Protective Services has investigated the facts and 
8circumstances relating to the incident:
9(A) A death.
10(B) A sexual assault, as defined in Section 15610.63.
11(C) An assault with a deadly weapon, as described in Section 
12245 of the Penal Code, by a nonresident of the developmental 
13center.
14(D) An
				  assault with force likely to produce great bodily injury, 
15as described in Section 245 of the Penal Code.
16(E) An injury to the genitals when the cause of the injury is 
17undetermined.
18(F) A broken bone when the cause of the break is undetermined.
19(2) If the incident is reported to the law enforcement agency by 
20telephone, a written report of the incident shall also be submitted 
21to the agency, within two working days.
22(3) The reporting requirements of this subdivision are in addition 
23to, and do not substitute for, the reporting requirements of 
24mandated reporters, and any other reporting and investigative 
25duties of the developmental center and the department as required 
26by law.
27(4) This
				  subdivision does not prevent the developmental center 
28from reporting any other criminal act constituting a danger to the 
29health or safety of the residents of the developmental center to the 
30local law enforcement agency.
31(b) (1) The department shall report to the agency described in 
32subdivision (i) of Section 4900 any of the following incidents 
33involving a resident of a developmental center:
34(A) Any unexpected or suspicious death, regardless of whether 
35the cause is immediately known.
36(B) Any allegation of sexual assault, as defined in Section 
3715610.63, in which the alleged perpetrator is a developmental 
38center or department employee or contractor.
39(C) Any report made to the local law enforcement agency in 
40the jurisdiction in which
				  the facility is located that involves 
P466  1physical abuse, as defined in Section 15610.63, in which a staff 
2member is implicated.
3(2) A report pursuant to this subdivision shall be made no later 
4than the close of the first business day following the discovery of 
5the reportable incident.
6(c) The department shall do both of the following:
7(1) Annually provide written information to every developmental 
8center employee regarding all of the following:
9(A) The statutory and departmental requirements for mandatory 
10reporting of suspected or known abuse.
11(B) The rights and protections afforded to individuals’ reporting 
12of suspected or known abuse.
13(C) The penalties for failure to report suspected or known abuse.
14(D) The telephone numbers for reporting suspected or known 
15abuse or neglect to designated investigators of the department and 
16to local law enforcement agencies.
17(2) On or before August 1, 2001, in consultation with employee 
18organizations, advocates, consumers, and family members, develop 
19a poster that encourages staff, residents, and visitors to report 
20suspected or known abuse and provides information on how to 
21make these reports.
Section 4648 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
23 is amended to read:
In order to achieve the stated objectives of a consumer’s 
25individual program plan, the regional center shall conduct activities, 
26including, but not limited to, all of the following:
27(a) Securing needed services and supports.
28(1) It is the intent of the Legislature that services and supports 
29assist individuals with developmental disabilities in achieving the 
30greatest self-sufficiency possible and in exercising personal 
31choices. The regional center shall secure services and supports 
32that meet the needs of the consumer, as determined in the 
33consumer’s individual program plan, and within the context of the 
34individual program plan, the planning team shall give highest 
35preference to those services and supports which would allow
36
				  minors with developmental disabilities to live with their families, 
37adult persons with developmental disabilities to live as 
38independently as possible in the community, and that allow all 
39consumers to interact with persons without disabilities in positive, 
40meaningful ways.
P467  1(2) In implementing individual program plans, regional centers, 
2through the planning team, shall first consider services and supports 
3in natural community, home, work, and recreational settings. 
4Services and supports shall be flexible and individually tailored 
5to the consumer and, where appropriate, his or her family.
6(3) A regional center may, pursuant to vendorization or a 
7contract, purchase services or supports for a consumer from any 
8individual or agency which the regional center and consumer or, 
9where appropriate, his or her parents, legal guardian, or 
10conservator, or authorized representatives, determines
				  will best 
11accomplish all or any part of that consumer’s program plan.
12(A) Vendorization or contracting is the process for identification, 
13selection, and utilization of service vendors or contractors, based 
14on the qualifications and other requirements necessary in order to 
15provide the service.
16(B) A regional center may reimburse an individual or agency 
17for services or supports provided to a regional center consumer if 
18the individual or agency has a rate of payment for vendored or 
19contracted services established by the department, pursuant to this 
20division, and is providing services pursuant to an emergency 
21vendorization or has completed the vendorization procedures or 
22has entered into a contract with the regional center and continues 
23to comply with the vendorization or contracting requirements. The 
24director shall adopt regulations governing the vendorization process 
25to be utilized
				  by the department, regional centers, vendors, and 
26the individual or agency requesting vendorization.
27(C) Regulations shall include, but not be limited to: the vendor 
28application process, and the basis for accepting or denying an 
29application; the qualification and requirements for each category 
30of services that may be provided to a regional center consumer 
31through a vendor; requirements for emergency vendorization; 
32procedures for termination of vendorization; the procedure for an 
33individual or an agency to appeal any vendorization decision made 
34by the department or regional center.
35(D) A regional center may vendorize a licensed facility for 
36exclusive services to persons with developmental disabilities at a 
37capacity equal to or less than the facility’s licensed capacity. A 
38facility already licensed on January 1, 1999, shall continue to be 
39vendorized at their full licensed capacity
				  until the facility agrees 
40to vendorization at a reduced capacity.
P468  1(E) Effective July 1, 2009, notwithstanding any other provision 
2of law or regulation to the contrary, a regional center shall not 
3newly vendor a State Department of Social Services licensed 
424-hour residential care facility with a licensed capacity of 16 or 
5more beds, unless the facility qualifies for receipt of federal funds 
6under the Medicaid Program.
7(4) Notwithstanding subparagraph (B), a regional center may 
8contract or issue a voucher for services and supports provided to 
9a consumer or family at a cost not to exceed the maximum rate of 
10payment for that service or support established by the department. 
11If a rate has not been established by the department, the regional 
12center may, for an interim period, contract for a specified service 
13or support with, and establish a rate of payment for, any provider 
14of the
				  service or support necessary to implement a consumer’s 
15individual program plan. Contracts may be negotiated for a period 
16of up to three years, with annual review and subject to the 
17availability of funds.
18(5) In order to ensure the maximum flexibility and availability 
19of appropriate services and supports for persons with 
20developmental disabilities, the department shall establish and 
21maintain an equitable system of payment to providers of services 
22and supports identified as necessary to the implementation of a 
23consumer’s individual program plan. The system of payment shall 
24include provision for a rate to ensure that the provider can meet 
25the special needs of consumers and provide quality services and 
26supports in the least restrictive setting as required by law.
27(6) The regional center and the consumer, or where appropriate, 
28his or her parents, legal guardian, conservator, or
				  authorized 
29representative, including those appointed pursuant to subdivision 
30(d) of Section 4548, subdivision (b) of Section 4701.6, or 
31subdivision (e) of Section 4705, shall, pursuant to the individual 
32program plan, consider all of the following when selecting a 
33provider of consumer services and supports:
34(A) A provider’s ability to deliver quality services or supports 
35which can accomplish all or part of the consumer’s individual 
36program plan.
37(B) A provider’s success in achieving the objectives set forth 
38in the individual program plan.
39(C) Where appropriate, the existence of licensing, accreditation, 
40or professional certification.
P469  1(D) The cost of providing services or supports of comparable 
2quality by different providers, if available, shall be
				  reviewed, and 
3the least costly available provider of comparable service, including 
4the cost of transportation, who is able to accomplish all or part of 
5the consumer’s individual program plan, consistent with the 
6particular needs of the consumer and family as identified in the 
7individual program plan, shall be selected. In determining the least 
8costly provider, the availability of federal financial participation 
9shall be considered. The consumer shall not be required to use the 
10least costly provider if it will result in the consumer moving from 
11an existing provider of services or supports to more restrictive or 
12less integrated services or supports.
13(E) The consumer’s choice of providers, or, where appropriate, 
14the consumer’s parents’, legal guardian’s, authorized 
15representative’s, or conservator’s choice of providers.
16(7) No service or support provided by any agency or individual
17
				  shall be continued unless the consumer or, where appropriate, his 
18or her parents, legal guardian, or conservator, or authorized 
19representative, including those appointed pursuant to subdivision 
20(d) of Section 4548, subdivision (b) of Section 4701.6, or 
21subdivision (e) of Section 4705, is satisfied and the regional center 
22and the consumer or, when appropriate, the person’s parents or 
23legal guardian or conservator agree that planned services and 
24supports have been provided, and reasonable progress toward 
25objectives have been made.
26(8) Regional center funds shall not be used to supplant the 
27budget of any agency which has a legal responsibility to serve all 
28members of the general public and is receiving public funds for 
29providing those services.
30(9) (A) A regional center may, directly or through an agency 
31acting on behalf of the center, provide placement in,
				  purchase of, 
32or follow-along services to persons with developmental disabilities 
33in, appropriate community living arrangements, including, but not 
34limited to, support service for consumers in homes they own or 
35lease, foster family placements, health care facilities, and licensed 
36community care facilities. In considering appropriate placement 
37alternatives for children with developmental disabilities, approval 
38by the child’s parent or guardian shall be obtained before placement 
39is made.
P470  1(B) Effective July 1, 2012, notwithstanding any other provision 
2of law or regulation to the contrary, a regional center shall not 
3purchase residential services from a State Department of Social 
4Services licensed 24-hour residential care facility with a licensed 
5capacity of 16 or more beds. This prohibition on regional center 
6purchase of residential services shall not apply to any of the 
7following:
8(i) A residential facility with a licensed capacity of 16 or more 
9beds that has been approved to participate in the department’s 
10Home and Community Based Services Waiver or another existing 
11waiver program or certified to participate in the Medi-Cal program.
12(ii) A residential facility service provider that has a written 
13agreement and specific plan prior to July 1, 2012, with the 
14vendoring regional center to downsize the existing facility by 
15transitioning its residential services to living arrangements of 15 
16beds or less or restructure the large facility to meet federal 
17Medicaid eligibility requirements on or before June 30, 2013.
18(iii) A residential facility licensed as a mental health 
19rehabilitation center by the State Department of Mental Health or 
20successor agency under any of the following circumstances:
21(I) The facility is eligible for Medicaid reimbursement.
22(II) The facility has a department-approved plan in place by 
23June 30, 2013, to transition to a program structure eligible for 
24federal Medicaid funding, and this transition will be completed by 
25June 30, 2014. The department may grant an extension for the date 
26by which the transition will be completed if the facility 
27demonstrates that it has made significant progress toward transition, 
28and states with specificity the timeframe by which the transition 
29will be completed and the specified steps that will be taken to 
30accomplish the transition. A regional center may pay for the costs 
31of care and treatment of a consumer residing in the facility on June 
3230, 2012, until June 30, 2013, inclusive, and, if the facility has a 
33department-approved plan in place by June 30, 2013, may continue 
34to pay the costs under this subparagraph until June 30, 2014, or 
35until the end of any period during
				  which the department has granted 
36an extension.
37(III) There is an emergency circumstance in which the regional 
38center determines that it cannot locate alternate federally eligible 
39services to meet the consumer’s needs. Under such an emergency 
40circumstance, an assessment shall be completed by the regional 
P471  1center as soon as possible and within 30 days of admission. An 
2individual program plan meeting shall be convened immediately 
3following the assessment to determine the services and supports 
4needed for stabilization and to develop a plan to transition the 
5consumer from the facility into the community. If transition is not 
6expected within 90 days of admission, an individual program plan 
7meeting shall be held to discuss the status of transition and to 
8determine if the consumer is still in need of placement in the 
9facility. Commencing October 1, 2012, this determination shall 
10be made after also considering resource options identified by the 
11statewide
				  specialized resource service. If it is determined that 
12emergency services continue to be necessary, the regional center 
13shall submit an updated transition plan that can cover a period of 
14up to 90 days. In no event shall placements under these emergency 
15circumstances exceed 180 days.
16(C) (i) Effective July 1, 2012, notwithstanding any other 
17provision of law or regulation to the contrary, a regional center 
18shall not purchase new residential services from institutions for 
19mental disease, as described in Part 5 (commencing with Section 
205900) of Division 5, for which federal Medicaid funding is not 
21available.
22(ii) The prohibition described in clause (i) shall not apply to 
23emergencies, as determined by the regional center, when a regional 
24center cannot locate alternate federally eligible services to meet 
25the consumer’s needs. As soon as possible within 30 days of
26
				  admission due to an emergency, an assessment shall be completed 
27by the regional center. An individual program plan meeting shall 
28be convened immediately following the assessment, to determine 
29the services and supports needed for stabilization and to develop 
30a plan to transition the consumer from the facility to the 
31community. If transition is not expected within 90 days of 
32admission, an emergency individual program plan meeting shall 
33be held to discuss the status of transition and to determine if the 
34consumer is still in need of placement in the facility. If emergency 
35services continue to be necessary, the regional center shall submit 
36an updated transition plan to the department for an extension of 
37up to 90 days. Placement shall not exceed 180 days.
38(iii) Regional centers shall complete a comprehensive 
39assessment of any consumer residing in an institution for mental 
40disease as of July 1, 2012, for which federal Medicaid funding is 
P472  1not
				  available. The comprehensive assessment shall be completed 
2prior to the consumer’s next scheduled individual program plan 
3meeting and shall include identification of the services and supports 
4needed and the timeline for identifying or developing those services 
5needed to transition the consumer back to the community. Effective 
6October 1, 2012, the regional center shall also consider resource 
7options identified by the statewide specialized resource service. 
8For each individual program plan meeting convened pursuant to 
9this subparagraph, the clients’ rights advocate for the regional 
10center shall be notified of the meeting and may participate in the 
11meeting unless the consumer objects on his or her own behalf.
12(D) Each person with developmental disabilities placed by the 
13regional center in a community living arrangement shall have the 
14rights specified in this division. These rights shall be brought to 
15the person’s attention by any means necessary
				  to reasonably 
16communicate these rights to each resident, provided that, at a 
17minimum, the Director of Developmental Services prepares, 
18provides, and requires to be clearly posted in all residential 
19facilities and day programs a poster using simplified language and 
20pictures that is designed to be more understandable by persons 
21with cognitive disabilities and that the rights information shall also 
22be available through the regional center to each residential facility 
23and day program in alternative formats, including, but not limited 
24to, other languages, braille, and audio tapes, when necessary to 
25meet the communication needs of consumers.
26(E) Consumers are eligible to receive supplemental services, 
27including, but not limited to, additional staffing, pursuant to the 
28process described in subdivision (d) of Section 4646. Necessary 
29additional staffing that is not specifically included in the rates paid 
30to the service provider may be purchased by the
				  regional center if 
31the additional staff are in excess of the amount required by 
32regulation and the individual’s planning team determines the 
33additional services are consistent with the provisions of the 
34individual program plan. Additional staff should be periodically 
35reviewed by the planning team for consistency with the individual 
36program plan objectives in order to determine if continued use of 
37the additional staff is necessary and appropriate and if the service 
38is producing outcomes consistent with the individual program plan. 
39Regional centers shall monitor programs to ensure that the 
40additional staff is being provided and utilized appropriately.
P473  1(10) Emergency and crisis intervention services, including, but 
2not limited to, mental health services and behavior modification 
3services, may be provided, as needed, to maintain persons with 
4developmental disabilities in the living arrangement of their own 
5choice. Crisis services shall first be
				  provided without disrupting a 
6person’s living arrangement. If crisis intervention services are 
7unsuccessful, emergency housing shall be available in the person’s 
8home community. If dislocation cannot be avoided, every effort 
9shall be made to return the person to his or her living arrangement 
10of choice, with all necessary supports, as soon as possible.
11(11) Among other service and support options, planning teams 
12shall consider the use of paid roommates or neighbors, personal 
13assistance, technical and financial assistance, and all other service 
14and support options which would result in greater self-sufficiency 
15for the consumer and cost-effectiveness to the state.
16(12) When facilitation as specified in an individual program 
17plan requires the services of an individual, the facilitator shall be 
18of the consumer’s choosing.
19(13) The community support may be provided to assist 
20individuals with developmental disabilities to fully participate in 
21community and civic life, including, but not limited to, programs, 
22services, work opportunities, business, and activities available to 
23persons without disabilities. This facilitation shall include, but not 
24be limited to, any of the following:
25(A) Outreach and education to programs and services within 
26the community.
27(B) Direct support to individuals which would enable them to 
28more fully participate in their community.
29(C) Developing unpaid natural supports when possible.
30(14) When feasible and recommended by the individual program 
31planning team, for purposes of facilitating better and cost-effective 
32services for consumers
				  or family members, technology, including 
33telecommunication technology, may be used in conjunction with 
34other services and supports. Technology in lieu of a consumer’s 
35in-person appearances at judicial proceedings or administrative 
36due process hearings may be used only if the consumer or, when 
37appropriate, the consumer’s parent, legal guardian, conservator, 
38or authorized representative, gives informed consent. Technology 
39may be used in lieu of, or in conjunction with, in-person training 
40for providers, as appropriate.
P474  1(15) Other services and supports may be provided as set forth 
2in Sections 4685, 4686, 4687, 4688, and 4689, when necessary.
3(16) Notwithstanding any other provision of law or regulation 
4to the contrary, effective July 1, 2009, regional centers shall not 
5purchase experimental treatments, therapeutic services, or devices 
6that have not been clinically determined or
				  scientifically proven 
7to be effective or safe or for which risks and complications are 
8unknown. Experimental treatments or therapeutic services include 
9experimental medical or nutritional therapy when the use of the 
10product for that purpose is not a general physician practice. For 
11regional center consumers receiving these services as part of their 
12individual program plan (IPP) or individualized family service 
13plan (IFSP) on July 1, 2009, this prohibition shall apply on August 
141, 2009.
15(b) (1) Advocacy for, and protection of, the civil, legal, and 
16service rights of persons with developmental disabilities as 
17established in this division.
18(2) Whenever the advocacy efforts of a regional center to secure 
19or protect the civil, legal, or service rights of any of its consumers 
20prove ineffective, the regional center or the person with 
21developmental disabilities or his
				  or her parents, legal guardian, or 
22other representative may request the area board to initiate action 
23under the provisions defining area board advocacy functions 
24established in this division.
25(c) The regional center may assist consumers and families 
26directly, or through a provider, in identifying and building circles 
27of support within the community.
28(d) In order to increase the quality of community services and 
29protect consumers, the regional center shall, when appropriate, 
30take either of the following actions:
31(1) Identify services and supports that are ineffective or of poor 
32quality and provide or secure consultation, training, or technical 
33assistance services for any agency or individual provider to assist 
34that agency or individual provider in upgrading the quality of 
35services or supports.
36(2) Identify providers of services or supports that may not be 
37in compliance with local, state, and federal statutes and regulations 
38and notify the appropriate licensing or regulatory authority, or 
39request the area board to investigate the possible noncompliance.
P475  1(e) When necessary to expand the availability of needed services 
2of good quality, a regional center may take actions that include, 
3but are not limited to, the following:
4(1) Soliciting an individual or agency by requests for proposals 
5or other means, to provide needed services or supports not presently 
6available.
7(2) Requesting funds from the Program Development Fund, 
8pursuant to Section 4677, or community placement plan funds 
9designated from that fund, to reimburse the startup costs needed 
10to
				  initiate a new program of services and supports.
11(3) Using creative and innovative service delivery models, 
12including, but not limited to, natural supports.
13(f) Except in emergency situations, a regional center shall not 
14provide direct treatment and therapeutic services, but shall utilize 
15appropriate public and private community agencies and service 
16providers to obtain those services for its consumers.
17(g) Where there are identified gaps in the system of services 
18and supports or where there are identified consumers for whom 
19no provider will provide services and supports contained in his or 
20her individual program plan, the department may provide the 
21services and supports directly.
22(h) At least annually, regional centers shall provide the 
23consumer, his or
				  her parents, legal guardian, conservator, or 
24authorized representative a statement of services and supports the 
25regional center purchased for the purpose of ensuring that they are 
26delivered. The statement shall include the type, unit, month, and 
27cost of services and supports purchased.
Section 4684.53 of the Welfare and Institutions 
29Code is amended to read:
(a) The State Department of Developmental Services 
31and the State Department of Social Services shall jointly implement 
32a licensing program to provide special health care and intensive 
33support services to adults in homelike community settings.
34(b) The program shall be implemented through approved 
35community placement plans, as follows:
36(1) For closure of Agnews Developmental Center, through the 
37following regional centers:
38(A) The San Andreas Regional Center.
39(B) The Regional Center of the East Bay.
40(C) The Golden Gate Regional Center.
P476  1(2) All regional centers involved in the closure of the Lanterman 
2Developmental Center, as determined by the State Department of 
3Developmental Services.
4(3) All regional centers transitioning developmental center 
5residents to placements in the community.
6(c) Each ARFPSHN shall possess a community care facility 
7license issued pursuant to Article 9 (commencing with Section 
81567.50) of Chapter 3 of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, 
9and shall be subject to the requirements of Chapter 1 (commencing 
10with Section 80000) of Division 6 of Title 22 of the California 
11Code of Regulations, except for Article 8 (commencing with 
12Section 80090).
13(d) For purposes of this article, a health facility licensed pursuant 
14to subdivision (e)
				  or (h) of Section 1250 of the Health and Safety 
15Code may place its licensed bed capacity in voluntary suspension 
16for the purpose of licensing the facility to operate an ARFPSHN 
17if the facility is selected to participate pursuant to Section 4684.58. 
18Consistent with subdivision (a) of Section 4684.50, any facility 
19licensed pursuant to this section shall serve up to five adults. A 
20facility’s bed capacity shall not be placed in voluntary suspension 
21until all consumers residing in the facility under the license to be 
22suspended have been relocated. A consumer shall not be relocated 
23unless it is reflected in the consumer’s individual program plan 
24developed pursuant to Sections 4646 and 4646.5.
25(e) Each ARFPSHN is subject to the requirements of 
26Subchapters 5 to 9, inclusive, of Chapter 1 of, and Subchapters 2 
27and 4 of Chapter 3 of, Division 2 of Title 17 of the California Code 
28of Regulations.
29(f) Each ARFPSHN shall ensure that an operable automatic fire 
30sprinkler system is installed and maintained.
31(g) Each ARFPSHN shall have an operable automatic fire 
32sprinkler system that is approved by the State Fire Marshal and 
33that meets the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 13D 
34standard for the installation of sprinkler systems in single- and 
35two-family dwellings and manufactured homes. A local jurisdiction 
36shall not require a sprinkler system exceeding this standard by 
37amending the standard or by applying standards other than NFPA 
3813D. A public water agency shall not interpret this section as 
39changing the status of a facility from a residence entitled to 
P477  1residential water rates, nor shall a new meter or larger connection 
2pipe be required of the facility.
3(h) Each ARFPSHN shall provide an alternative power source 
4to operate all functions of the facility for
				  a minimum of six hours 
5in the event the primary power source is interrupted. The alternative 
6power source shall comply with the manufacturer’s 
7recommendations for installation and operation. The alternative 
8power source shall be maintained in safe operating condition, and 
9shall be tested every 14 days under the full load condition for a 
10minimum of 10 minutes. Written records of inspection, 
11performance, exercising period, and repair of the alternative power 
12source shall be regularly maintained on the premises and available 
13for inspection by the State Department of Developmental Services.
Section 4792.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
15 is repealed.
Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
17 is amended to read:
Unless the context otherwise requires, the following 
19definitions shall govern the construction of this part:
20(a) “Evaluation” consists of multidisciplinary professional 
21analyses of a person’s medical, psychological, educational, social, 
22financial, and legal conditions as may appear to constitute a 
23problem. Persons providing evaluation services shall be properly 
24qualified professionals and may be full-time employees of an 
25agency providing evaluation services or may be part-time 
26employees or may be employed on a contractual basis.
27(b) “Court-ordered evaluation” means an evaluation ordered by 
28a superior court pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 
295200) or by a court pursuant to Article 3 (commencing with Section 
305225)
				  of Chapter 2.
31(c) “Intensive treatment” consists of such hospital and other 
32services as may be indicated. Intensive treatment shall be provided 
33by properly qualified professionals and carried out in facilities 
34qualifying for reimbursement under the California Medical 
35Assistance Program (Medi-Cal) set forth in Chapter 7 (commencing 
36with Section 14000) of Part 3 of Division 9, or under Title XVIII 
37of the federal Social Security Act and regulations thereunder. 
38Intensive treatment may be provided in hospitals of the United 
39States government by properly qualified professionals. Nothing 
P478  1in this part shall be construed to prohibit an intensive treatment 
2facility from also providing 72-hour treatment and evaluation.
3(d) “Referral” is referral of persons by each agency or facility 
4providing intensive treatment or evaluation services to other 
5agencies or individuals. The purpose of referral
				  shall be to provide 
6for continuity of care, and may include, but need not be limited 
7to, informing the person of available services, making appointments 
8on the person’s behalf, discussing the person’s problem with the 
9agency or individual to which the person has been referred, 
10appraising the outcome of referrals, and arranging for personal 
11escort and transportation when necessary. Referral shall be 
12considered complete when the agency or individual to whom the 
13person has been referred accepts responsibility for providing the 
14necessary services. All persons shall be advised of available precare 
15services which prevent initial recourse to hospital treatment or 
16aftercare services which support adjustment to community living 
17following hospital treatment. These services may be provided 
18through county welfare departments, the State Department of State 
19Hospitals, Short-Doyle programs, or other local agencies.
20Each agency or facility providing evaluation services shall
21
				  maintain a current and comprehensive file of all community 
22services, both public and private. These files shall contain current 
23agreements with agencies or individuals accepting referrals, as 
24well as appraisals of the results of past referrals.
25(e) “Crisis intervention” consists of an interview or series of 
26interviews within a brief period of time, conducted by qualified 
27professionals, and designed to alleviate personal or family 
28situations which present a serious and imminent threat to the health 
29or stability of the person or the family. The interview or interviews 
30may be conducted in the home of the person or family, or on an 
31inpatient or outpatient basis with such therapy, or other services, 
32as may be appropriate. Crisis intervention may, as appropriate, 
33include suicide prevention, psychiatric, welfare, psychological, 
34legal, or other social services.
35(f) “Prepetition screening”
				  is a screening of all petitions for 
36court-ordered evaluation as provided in Article 2 (commencing 
37with Section 5200) of Chapter 2, consisting of a professional 
38review of all petitions; an interview with the petitioner and, 
39whenever possible, the person alleged, as a result of mental 
40disorder, to be a danger to others, or to himself or herself, or to be 
P479  1gravely disabled, to assess the problem and explain the petition; 
2when indicated, efforts to persuade the person to receive, on a 
3voluntary basis, comprehensive evaluation, crisis intervention, 
4referral, and other services specified in this part.
5(g) “Conservatorship investigation” means investigation by an 
6agency appointed or designated by the governing body of cases in 
7which conservatorship is recommended pursuant to Chapter 3 
8(commencing with Section 5350).
9(h) (1) For purposes of Article 1 (commencing with
				  Section 
105150), Article 2 (commencing with Section 5200), and Article 4 
11(commencing with Section 5250) of Chapter 2, and for the purposes 
12of Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 5350), “gravely disabled” 
13means either of the following:
14(A) A condition in which a person, as a result of a mental 
15disorder, is unable to provide for his or her basic personal needs 
16for food, clothing, or shelter.
17(B) A condition in which a person has been found mentally 
18incompetent under Section 1370 of the Penal Code and all of the 
19following facts exist:
20(i) The indictment or information pending against the defendant 
21at the time of commitment charges a felony involving death, great 
22bodily harm, or a serious threat to the physical well-being of 
23another person.
24(ii) The indictment or information has not been dismissed.
25(iii) As a result of a mental disorder, the person is unable to 
26understand the nature and purpose of the proceedings taken against 
27him or her and to assist counsel in the conduct of his or her defense 
28in a rational manner.
29(2) For purposes of Article 3 (commencing with Section 5225) 
30and Article 4 (commencing with Section 5250), of Chapter 2, and 
31for the purposes of Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 5350), 
32“gravely disabled” means a condition in which a person, as a result 
33of impairment by chronic alcoholism, is unable to provide for his 
34or her basic personal needs for food, clothing, or shelter.
35(3) The term “gravely disabled” does not include intellectually 
36disabled persons by reason of being intellectually disabled alone.
37(i) “Peace officer” means a duly sworn peace officer as that 
38term is defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of 
39Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code who has completed the basic 
40training course established by the Commission on Peace Officer 
P480  1Standards and Training, or any parole officer or probation officer 
2specified in Section 830.5 of the Penal Code when acting in relation 
3to cases for which he or she has a legally mandated responsibility.
4(j) “Postcertification treatment” means an additional period of 
5treatment pursuant to Article 6 (commencing with Section 5300) 
6of Chapter 2.
7(k) “Court,” unless otherwise specified, means a court of record.
8(l) “Antipsychotic medication” means any medication 
9customarily prescribed for the treatment of symptoms of psychoses 
10and other severe mental and
				  emotional disorders.
11(m) “Emergency” means a situation in which action to impose 
12treatment over the person’s objection is immediately necessary 
13for the preservation of life or the prevention of serious bodily harm 
14to the patient or others, and it is impracticable to first gain consent. 
15It is not necessary for harm to take place or become unavoidable 
16prior to treatment.
Section 5328.03 of the Welfare and Institutions 
18Code is amended to read:
(a) (1) Notwithstanding Section 5328 of this code, 
20Section 3025 of the Family Code, or paragraph (2) of subdivision 
21(c) of Section 56.11 of the Civil Code, a psychotherapist who 
22knows that a minor has been removed from the physical custody 
23of his or her parent or guardian pursuant to Article 6 (commencing 
24with Section 300) to Article 10 (commencing with Section 360), 
25inclusive, of Chapter 2 of Part 1 of Division 2 shall not release 
26mental health records of the minor patient and shall not disclose 
27mental health information about that minor patient based upon an 
28authorization to release those records or the information signed 
29by the minor’s parent or guardian. This restriction shall not apply 
30if the juvenile court has issued an order authorizing the parent or 
31guardian to sign an authorization for the release
				  of the records or 
32information after finding that such an order would not be 
33detrimental to the minor patient.
34(2) Notwithstanding Section 5328 of this code or Section 3025 
35of the Family Code, a psychotherapist who knows that a minor 
36has been removed from the physical custody of his or her parent 
37or guardian pursuant to Article 6 (commencing with Section 300) 
38to Article 10 (commencing with Section 360), inclusive, of Chapter 
392 of Part 1 of Division 2 shall not allow the parent or guardian to 
40inspect or obtain copies of mental health records of the minor 
P481  1patient. This restriction shall not apply if the juvenile court has 
2issued an order authorizing the parent or guardian to inspect or 
3obtain copies of the mental health records of the minor patient 
4after finding that such an order would not be detrimental to the 
5minor patient.
6(b) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
7(1) “Mental health records” means mental health records as 
8defined by subdivision (b) of Section 123105 of the Health and 
9Safety Code.
10(2) “Psychotherapist” means a provider of health care as defined 
11in Section 1010 of the Evidence Code.
12(c) (1) When the juvenile court has issued an order described 
13in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), the parent or guardian seeking 
14the release of the minor’s mental health records or information 
15about the minor shall present a copy of the court order to the 
16psychotherapist before any records or information may be released 
17pursuant to the signed authorization.
18(2) When the juvenile court has issued an order described in 
19paragraph (2) of subdivision (a), the parent or guardian
				  seeking to 
20inspect or obtain copies of the mental health records of the minor 
21patient shall present a copy of the court order to the psychotherapist 
22and shall comply with subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 123110 
23of the Health and Safety Code before the parent or guardian is 
24allowed to inspect or obtain copies of the mental health records of 
25the minor patient.
26(d) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent or limit 
27a psychotherapist’s authority under subdivision (a) of Section 
28123115 of the Health and Safety Code to deny a parent’s or 
29guardian’s written request to inspect or obtain copies of the minor 
30patient’s mental health records, notwithstanding the fact that the 
31juvenile court has issued an order authorizing the parent or guardian
32 to sign an authorization for the release of the mental health records 
33or information about that minor patient, or to inspect or obtain 
34copies of the minor patient’s health records. Liability for a
35
				  psychotherapist’s decision not to release records, not to disclose 
36information about the minor patient, or not to allow the parent or 
37guardian to inspect or obtain copies of the mental health records 
38pursuant to the authority of subdivision (a) of Section 123115 of 
39the Health and Safety Code shall be governed by that section.
P482  1(e) Nothing in this section shall be construed to impose upon a 
2psychotherapist a duty to inquire or investigate whether a child 
3has been removed from the physical custody of his or her parent 
4or guardian pursuant to Article 6 (commencing with Section 300) 
5to Article 10 (commencing with Section 360), inclusive, of Chapter 
62 of Part 1 of Division 2 when a parent or guardian presents the 
7minor’s psychotherapist with an order authorizing the parent or 
8guardian to sign an authorization for the release of information or 
9the mental health records regarding the minor patient or authorizing 
10the parent or guardian to inspect or
				  obtain copies of the mental 
11health records of the minor patient.
Section 6254 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
13 is amended to read:
Wherever provision is made in this code for an order of 
15commitment by a superior court, the order of commitment shall 
16be in substantially the following form: 
| 
 In the Superior Court of the State of California  | 
||||
| 
 
  | ||||
| 
 The People For the Best Interest and Protection of 
  | 
 ⎫  | 
 
  | 
||
| 
 as a ,  | 
 ⎪  | 
|||
| 
 ⎪  | 
||||
| 
 and Concerning and  | 
 ⎬  | 
|||
| 
 , Respondents  | 
 ⎪  | 
|||
| 
 
  | 
 ⎠ | 
|||
| 
 The petition dated ________, alleging that ________, having been presented to this court on the ________ day of ________, 20__, and an order of detention issued thereon by a judge of the superior court of this county, and a return of the said order: And it further appearing that the provisions of Sections 6250 to 6254, inclusive, of the Welfare and Institutions Code have been complied with; And it further appearing that Dr. ________ and Dr. ________, two regularly appointed and qualified medical examiners of this county, have made a personal examination of the alleged ________, and have made and signed the certificate of the medical examiners, which certificate is attached hereto and made a part hereof; Now therefore, after examination and certificate made as aforesaid, the court is satisfied and believes that ________ is a ________ and is so ________. It is ordered, adjudged, and decreed: That ________ is a ________ and that _he * (a) Be cared for and detained in ________, a county psychiatric hospital, a community mental health service, or a licensed sanitarium or hospital for the care of the mentally disordered until the further order of the court, or * (b) Be cared for at ________, until the further order of the court, or * (c) Be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals for placement in a state hospital, or * (d) Be committed to a facility of the Department of Veterans Affairs or other agency of the United States, to wit: ________ at ________. It is further ordered and directed that ________ of this county, take, convey, and deliver ________ to the proper authorities of the hospital or establishment designated herein to be cared for as provided by law.  | 
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| 
 Dated this ________ day of ________, 20__.  | 
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 * Strike out when not applicable.  | 
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Section 7295 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
24 is amended to read:
(a) To ensure its safety and security, a state hospital that 
26is under the jurisdiction of the State Department of State Hospitals, 
27as listed in Section 4100, may develop a list of items that are 
28deemed contraband and prohibited on hospital grounds and control 
29and eliminate contraband on hospital grounds.
30(b) The State Department of State Hospitals shall develop a list 
31of items that shall be deemed contraband at every state hospital.
32(c) A state hospital shall form a contraband committee, 
33comprised of hospital management and employees designated by 
34the hospital’s director, to develop the list of contraband items. The 
35committee shall develop the list with the participation of patient 
36representatives, or
				  the patient government of the hospital, if one 
37is available, and the Office of Patients’ Rights.
38(d) Each hospital’s list of contraband items developed pursuant 
39to subdivision (a), and the statewide list of contraband items 
P484  1developed pursuant to subdivision (b), are subject to review and 
2approval by the Director of State Hospitals or his or her designee.
3(e) A list of contraband items developed pursuant to subdivision 
4(a) shall be updated and subject to review and approval by the 
5director of the department, or his or her designee, no less often 
6than every six months.
7(f) If an item presents an emergent danger to the safety and 
8security of a facility, the item may be placed immediately on a 
9contraband list by the Director of State Hospitals or the executive 
10director of the state hospital, but this placement shall be
				  reviewed 
11by the contraband committee, if applicable, and approved by the 
12Director of State Hospitals or his or her designee within six weeks.
13(g) The lists of contraband items developed pursuant to this 
14section shall be posted prominently in every unit of the hospital 
15and throughout the hospital, and provided to a patient upon request.
16(h) The lists of contraband items developed pursuant to this 
17section shall be posted on the hospital’s Internet Web site.
18(i) For the purposes of this section, “contraband” means 
19materials, articles, or goods that a patient is prohibited from having 
20in his or her possession because the materials, articles, or goods 
21present a risk to the safety and security of the facility.
22(j) Notwithstanding Chapter 3.5 (commencing with
				  Section 
2311340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, 
24the hospital and the department may implement, interpret, or make 
25specific this section without taking regulatory action.
Section 12306 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, 
27as amended by Section 36 of Chapter 439 of the Statutes of 2012, 
28is amended to read:
(a) The state and counties shall share the annual cost 
30of providing services under this article as specified in this section.
31(b) Except as provided in subdivisions (c) and (d), the state shall 
32pay to each county, from the General Fund and any federal funds 
33received under Title XX of the federal Social Security Act available 
34for that purpose, 65 percent of the cost of providing services under 
35this article, and each county shall pay 35 percent of the cost of 
36providing those services.
37(c) For services eligible for federal funding pursuant to Title 
38XIX of the federal Social Security Act under the Medi-Cal program 
39and, except as provided in subdivisions (b) and (d), the state shall 
40pay to each county, from
				  the General Fund and any funds available 
P485  1for that purpose, 65 percent of the nonfederal cost of providing 
2services under this article, and each county shall pay 35 percent 
3of the nonfederal cost of providing those services.
4(d) (1) For the period of July 1, 1992, to June 30, 1994, 
5inclusive, the state’s share of the cost of providing services under 
6this article shall be limited to the amount appropriated for that 
7purpose in the annual Budget Act.
8(2) The department shall restore the funding reductions required 
9by subdivision (c) of Section 12301, fully or in part, as soon as 
10administratively practicable, if the amount appropriated from the 
11General Fund for the 1992-93 fiscal year under this article is 
12projected to exceed the sum of the General Fund expenditures 
13under Section 14132.95 and the actual General Fund expenditures 
14under this article for the 1992-93
				  fiscal year. The entire amount 
15of the excess shall be applied to the restoration. Services shall not 
16be restored under this paragraph until the Department of Finance 
17has determined that the restoration of services would result in no 
18additional costs to the state or to the counties relative to the 
19combined state appropriation and county matching funds for 
20in-home supportive services under this article in the 1992-93 fiscal 
21year.
22(e)  This section shall become operative only if Chapter 45 of 
23the Statutes of 2012 is deemed inoperative pursuant to Section 15 
24of that chapter.
Section 12306 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, 
26as amended by Section 37 of Chapter 439 of the Statutes of 2012, 
27is amended to read:
(a) The state and counties shall share the annual cost 
29of providing services under this article as specified in this section.
30(b) Except as provided in subdivisions (c) and (d), the state shall 
31pay to each county, from the General Fund and any federal funds 
32received under Title XX of the federal Social Security Act available 
33for that purpose, 65 percent of the cost of providing services under 
34this article, and each county shall pay 35 percent of the cost of 
35providing those services.
36(c) For services eligible for federal funding pursuant to Title 
37XIX of the federal Social Security Act under the Medi-Cal program 
38and, except as provided in subdivisions (b) and (d), the state shall 
39pay to each county, from
				  the General Fund and any funds available 
40for that purpose, 65 percent of the nonfederal cost of providing 
P486  1services under this article, and each county shall pay 35 percent 
2of the nonfederal cost of providing those services.
3(d) (1) For the period of July 1, 1992, to June 30, 1994, 
4inclusive, the state’s share of the cost of providing services under 
5this article shall be limited to the amount appropriated for that 
6purpose in the annual Budget Act.
7(2) The department shall restore the funding reductions required 
8by subdivision (c) of Section 12301, fully or in part, as soon as 
9administratively practicable, if the amount appropriated from the 
10General Fund for the 1992-93 fiscal year under this article is 
11projected to exceed the sum of the General Fund expenditures 
12under Section 14132.95 and the actual General Fund expenditures 
13under this article for the 1992-93
				  fiscal year. The entire amount 
14of the excess shall be applied to the restoration. Services shall not 
15be restored under this paragraph until the Department of Finance 
16has determined that the restoration of services would result in no 
17additional costs to the state or to the counties relative to the 
18combined state appropriation and county matching funds for 
19in-home supportive services under this article in the 1992-93 fiscal 
20year.
21(e) For the period during which Section 12306.15 is operative, 
22each county’s share of the costs of providing services pursuant to 
23this article specified in subdivisions (b) and (c) shall remain, but 
24the County IHSS Maintenance of Effort pursuant to Section 
2512306.15 shall be in lieu of that share.
26(f) This section shall become inoperative only if Chapter 45 of 
27the Statutes of 2012 is deemed inoperative pursuant to Section 15 
28of that
				  chapter.
Section 14005.27 of the Welfare and Institutions 
30Code is amended to read:
(a) Individuals enrolled in the Healthy Families 
32Program pursuant to Part 6.2 (commencing with Section 12693) 
33of Division 2 of the Insurance Code on June 27, 2012, and who 
34are determined eligible to receive benefits pursuant to subdivisions 
35(a) and (b) of Section 14005.26, shall be transitioned into Medi-Cal, 
36pursuant to this section.
37(b) To the extent necessary and for the purposes of carrying out 
38the provisions of this section, in performing initial eligibility 
39determinations for children enrolled in the Healthy Families 
40Program pursuant to Part 6.2 (commencing with Section 12693) 
P487  1of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, the department shall adopt 
2the option pursuant to Section 1902(e)(13) of the federal Social 
3Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396a(e)(13)) to allow
				  the department 
4or county human services departments to rely upon findings made 
5by the Managed Risk Medical Insurance Board (MRMIB) 
6regarding one or more components of eligibility. The department 
7shall seek federal approval of a state plan amendment to implement 
8this subdivision.
9(c) To the extent necessary, the department shall seek federal 
10approval of a state plan amendment or a waiver to provide 
11presumptive eligibility for the optional targeted low-income 
12category of eligibility pursuant to Section 14005.26 for individuals 
13presumptively eligible for or enrolled in the Healthy Families 
14Program pursuant to Part 6.2 (commencing with Section 12693) 
15of Division 2 of the Insurance Code. The presumptive eligibility 
16shall be based upon the most recent information contained in the 
17individual’s Healthy Families Program file. The timeframe for the 
18presumptive eligibility shall begin no sooner than January 1, 2013, 
19and shall continue until a
				  determination of Medi-Cal eligibility is 
20made, which determination shall be performed within one year of 
21the individual’s Healthy Families Program annual review date.
22(d) (1) The California Health and Human Services Agency, in 
23consultation with the Managed Risk Medical Insurance Board, the 
24State Department of Health Care Services, the Department of 
25Managed Health Care, and diverse stakeholders groups, shall 
26provide the fiscal and policy committees of the Legislature with 
27a strategic plan for the transition of the Healthy Families Program 
28pursuant to this section by no later than October 1, 2012. This 
29strategic plan shall, at a minimum, address all of the following:
30(A) State, county, and local administrative components which 
31facilitate a successful subscriber transition such as communication 
32and outreach to subscribers and applicants, eligibility processing,
33
				  enrollment, communication, and linkage with health plan providers, 
34payments of applicable premiums, and overall systems operation 
35functions.
36(B) Methods and processes for diverse stakeholder engagement 
37throughout the entire transition, including all phases of the 
38transition.
P488  1(C) State monitoring of managed care health plans’ performance 
2and accountability for provision of services, and initial quality 
3indicators for children and adolescents transitioning to Medi-Cal.
4(D) Health care and dental delivery system components such 
5as standards for informing and enrollment materials, network 
6adequacy, performance measures and metrics, fiscal solvency, and 
7related factors that ensure timely access to quality health and dental 
8care for children and adolescents transitioning to Medi-Cal.
9(E) Inclusion of applicable operational steps, timelines, and key 
10milestones.
11(F) A time certain for the transfer of the Healthy Families 
12Advisory Board, as described in Part 6.2 (commencing with Section 
1312693) of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, to the State 
14Department of Health Care Services.
15(2) The intent of this strategic plan is to serve as an overall guide 
16for the development of each plan for each phase of this transition, 
17pursuant to paragraphs (1) to (8), inclusive, of subdivision (e), to 
18ensure clarity and consistency in approach and subscriber 
19continuity of care. This strategic plan may also be updated by the 
20California Health and Human Services Agency as applicable and 
21provided to the Legislature upon completion.
22(e) (1) The department shall transition individuals from the 
23Healthy Families Program to the Medi-Cal program in four phases, 
24as follows:
25(A) Phase 1. Individuals enrolled in a Healthy Families Program 
26health plan that is a Medi-Cal managed care health plan shall be 
27enrolled in the same plan no earlier than January 1, 2013, pursuant 
28to the requirements of this section and Section 14011.6, and to the 
29extent the individual is otherwise eligible under this chapter and 
30Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 14200).
31(B) Phase 2. Individuals enrolled in a Healthy Families Program 
32managed care health plan that is a subcontractor of a Medi-Cal 
33managed health care plan, to the extent possible, shall be enrolled 
34into a Medi-Cal managed health care plan that includes the 
35individuals’ current plan pursuant to the requirements of this 
36section and Section 14011.6, and to the extent the
				  individuals are 
37otherwise eligible under this chapter and Chapter 8 (commencing 
38with Section 14200). The transition of individuals described in 
39this subparagraph shall begin no earlier than April 1, 2013.
P489  1(C) Phase 3. Individuals enrolled in a Healthy Families Program 
2plan that is not a Medi-Cal managed care plan and does not contract 
3or subcontract with a Medi-Cal managed care plan shall be enrolled 
4in a Medi-Cal managed care plan in that county. Enrollment shall 
5include consideration of the individuals’ primary care providers 
6pursuant to the requirements of this section and Section 14011.6, 
7and to the extent the individuals are otherwise eligible under this 
8chapter and Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 14200). The 
9transition of individuals described in this subparagraph shall begin 
10no earlier than August 1, 2013.
11(D) Phase 4.
12(i) Individuals residing in a county that is not a Medi-Cal 
13managed care county shall be provided services under the Medi-Cal 
14fee-for-service delivery system, subject to clause (ii). The transition 
15of individuals described in this subparagraph shall begin no earlier 
16than September 1, 2013.
17(ii) In the event the department creates a managed health care 
18system in the counties described in clause (i), individuals residing 
19in those counties shall be enrolled in managed health care plans 
20pursuant to this chapter and Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 
2114200).
22(2) For the transition of individuals pursuant to subparagraphs 
23(A), (B), (C), and (D) of paragraph (1), implementation plans shall 
24be developed to ensure state and county systems readiness, health 
25plan network adequacy, and continuity of care with the goal of 
26ensuring there is no disruption of service and there is
				  continued 
27access to coverage for all transitioning individuals. If an individual 
28is not retained with his or her current primary care provider, the 
29implementation plan shall require the managed care plan to report 
30to the department as to how continuity of care is being provided. 
31Transition of individuals described in subparagraphs (A), (B), (C), 
32and (D) of paragraph (1) shall not occur until 90 days after the 
33department has submitted an implementation plan to the fiscal and 
34policy committees of the Legislature. The implementation plans 
35shall include, but not be limited to, information on health and 
36dental plan network adequacy, continuity of care, eligibility and 
37enrollment requirements, consumer protections, and family 
38notifications.
P490  1(3) The following requirements shall be in place prior to 
2implementation of Phase 1, and shall be required for all phases of 
3the transition:
4(A) Managed care plan performance measures shall be integrated 
5and coordinated with the Healthy Families Program performance 
6standards including, but not limited to, child-only Healthcare 
7Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS) measures, and 
8measures indicative of performance in serving children and 
9adolescents. These performance measures shall also be in 
10compliance with all performance requirements under the 
11Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act of 1975 (Chapter 2.2 
12(commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of the Health and 
13Safety Code) and existing Medi-Cal managed care performance 
14measurements and standards as set forth in this chapter and Chapter 
158 (commencing with Section 14200) of Title 22 of the California 
16Code of Regulations, and all-plan letters, including, but not limited 
17to, network adequacy and linguistic services, and shall be met prior 
18to the transition of individuals pursuant to Phase 1.
19(B) Medi-Cal
				  managed care health plans shall allow enrollees 
20to remain with their current primary care provider. If an individual 
21does not remain with the current primary care provider, the plan 
22shall report to the department as to how continuity of care is being 
23provided.
24(4) (A) As individuals are transitioned pursuant to 
25subparagraphs (A), (B), (C), and (D) of paragraph (1), for 
26individuals residing in all counties except the Counties of 
27Sacramento and Los Angeles, their dental coverage shall transition 
28to fee-for-service dental coverage and may be provided by their 
29current provider if the provider is a Medi-Cal fee-for-service dental 
30provider.
31(B) For individuals residing in the County of Sacramento, their 
32dental coverage shall continue to be provided by their current 
33dental managed care plan if their plan is a Medi-Cal dental 
34managed care plan. If their plan is not a
				  Medi-Cal dental managed 
35care plan, they shall select a Medi-Cal dental managed care plan. 
36If they do not choose a Medi-Cal dental managed care plan, they 
37shall be assigned to a plan with preference to a plan with which 
38their current provider is a contracted provider. Any children in the 
39Healthy Families Program transitioned into Medi-Cal dental 
40managed care plans shall also have access to the beneficiary dental 
P491  1exception process, pursuant to Section 14089.09. Further, the 
2Sacramento advisory committee, established pursuant to Section 
314089.08, shall be consulted regarding the transition of children 
4in the Healthy Families Program into Medi-Cal dental managed 
5care plans.
6(C) (i) For individuals residing in the County of Los Angeles, 
7for purposes of continuity of care, their dental coverage shall 
8continue to be provided by their current dental managed care plan 
9if that plan is a Medi-Cal dental managed care plan. If their
				  plan 
10is not a Medi-Cal dental managed care plan, they may select a 
11Medi-Cal dental managed care plan or choose to move into 
12Medi-Cal fee-for-service dental coverage.
13(ii) It is the intent of the Legislature that children transitioning 
14to Medi-Cal under this section have a choice in dental coverage, 
15as provided under existing law.
16(5) Dental health plan performance measures and benchmarks 
17shall be in accordance with Section 14459.6.
18(6) Medi-Cal managed care health and dental plans shall report 
19to the department, as frequently as specified by the department, 
20specified information pertaining to transition implementation, 
21enrollees, and providers, including, but not limited to, grievances 
22related to access to care, continuity of care requests and outcomes, 
23and changes to provider networks, including provider enrollment
24
				  and disenrollment changes. The plans shall report this information 
25by county, and in the format requested by the department.
26(7) The department may develop supplemental implementation 
27plans to separately account for the transition of individuals from 
28the Healthy Families Program to specific Medi-Cal delivery 
29systems.
30(8) The department shall consult with the Legislature and 
31stakeholders, including, but not limited to, consumers, families, 
32consumer advocates, counties, providers, and health and dental 
33plans, in the development of implementation plans described in 
34paragraph (3) for individuals who are transitioned to Medi-Cal in 
35Phase 2, Phase 3, and Phase 4, as described in subparagraphs (B), 
36(C), and (D) of paragraph (1).
37(9) (A) The department shall consult and collaborate with the 
38Department
				  of Managed Health Care in assessing Medi-Cal 
39managed care health plan network adequacy in accordance with 
40the Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act of 1975 (Chapter 
P492  12.2 (commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of the Health 
2and Safety Code) for purposes of the developed transition plans 
3pursuant to paragraph (2) for each of the phases.
4(B) For purposes of individuals transitioning in Phase 1, as 
5described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1), network adequacy 
6shall be assessed as described in this paragraph and findings from 
7this assessment shall be provided to the fiscal and appropriate 
8policy committees of the Legislature 60 days prior to the effective 
9date of implementing this transition.
10(10) The department shall provide monthly status reports to the 
11fiscal and policy committees of the Legislature on the transition 
12commencing no later than February 15, 2013. This monthly
				  status 
13transition report shall include, but not be limited to, information 
14on health plan grievances related to access to care, continuity of 
15care requests and outcomes, changes to provider networks, 
16including provider enrollment and disenrollment changes, and 
17eligibility performance standards pursuant to subdivision (n). A 
18final comprehensive report shall be provided within 90 days after 
19completion of the last phase of transition.
20(f) (1) The department and MRMIB shall work collaboratively 
21in the development of notices for individuals transitioned pursuant 
22to paragraph (1) of subdivision (e).
23(2) The state shall provide written notice to individuals enrolled 
24in the Healthy Families Program of their transition to the Medi-Cal 
25program at least 60 days prior to the transition of individuals in 
26Phase 1, as described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of
27
				  subdivision (e), and at least 90 days prior to transition of 
28individuals in Phases 2, 3, and 4, as described in subparagraphs 
29(B), (C), and (D) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (e).
30(3) Notices developed pursuant to this subdivision shall ensure 
31individuals are informed regarding the transition, including, but 
32not limited to, how individuals’ systems of care may change, when 
33the changes will occur, and whom they can contact for assistance 
34when choosing a Medi-Cal managed care plan, if applicable, 
35including a toll-free telephone number, and with problems they 
36may encounter. The department shall consult with stakeholders 
37regarding notices developed pursuant to this subdivision. These 
38notices shall be developed using plain language, and written 
39translation of the notices shall be available for those who are 
P493  1limited English proficient or non-English speaking in all Medi-Cal 
2threshold languages.
3(4) The department shall designate department liaisons 
4responsible for the coordination of the Healthy Families Program 
5and may establish a children’s-focused section for this purpose 
6and to facilitate the provision of health care services for children 
7enrolled in Medi-Cal.
8(5) The department shall provide a process for ongoing 
9stakeholder consultation and make information publicly available, 
10including the achievement of benchmarks, enrollment data, 
11utilization data, and quality measures.
12(g) (1) In order to aid the transition of Healthy Families Program 
13enrollees, MRMIB, on the effective date of the act that added this 
14section and continuing through the completion of the transition of 
15Healthy Families Program enrollees to the Medi-Cal program, 
16shall begin requesting and collecting from health plans contracting 
17with MRMIB pursuant to Part 6.2
				  (commencing with Section 
1812693) of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, information about 
19each health plan’s provider network, including, but not limited to, 
20the primary care and all specialty care providers assigned to 
21individuals enrolled in the health plan. MRMIB shall obtain this 
22information in a manner that coincides with the transition activities 
23described in subdivision (d), and shall provide all of the collected 
24information to the department within 60 days of the department’s 
25request for this information to ensure timely transitions of Healthy 
26Family Program enrollees.
27(2) The department shall analyze the existing Healthy Families 
28Program delivery system network and the Medi-Cal fee-for-service 
29provider networks, including, but not limited to, Medi-Cal dental 
30providers, to determine overlaps of the provider networks in each 
31county for which there are no Medi-Cal managed care plans or 
32dental managed care plans. To the extent there is a lack
				  of existing 
33Medi-Cal fee-for-service providers available to serve the Healthy 
34Families Program enrollees, the department shall work with the 
35Healthy Families Program provider community to encourage 
36participation of those providers in the Medi-Cal program, and 
37develop a streamlined process to enroll them as Medi-Cal 
38providers.
39(3) (A) MRMIB, within 60 days of a request by the department, 
40shall provide the department any data, information, or record 
P494  1concerning the Healthy Families Program as is necessary to 
2implement the transition of enrollment required pursuant to this 
3section.
4(B) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, all of the 
5following shall apply:
6(i) The term “data, information, or record” shall include, but is 
7not limited to, personal information as defined in Section 1798.3 
8of the
				  Civil Code.
9(ii) Any data, information, or record shall be exempt from 
10disclosure under the California Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5 
11(commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the 
12Government Code) and any other law, to the same extent that it 
13was exempt from disclosure or privileged prior to the provision 
14of the data, information, or record to the department.
15(iii) The provision of any such data, information, or record to 
16the department shall not constitute a waiver of any evidentiary 
17privilege or exemption from disclosure.
18(iv) The department shall keep all data, information, or records 
19provided by MRMIB confidential to the full extent permitted by 
20law, including, but not limited to, the California Public Records 
21Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 
22of Title 1 of the
				  Government Code), and consistent with MRMIB’s 
23contractual obligations to keep the data, information, or records 
24confidential.
25(h) This section shall be implemented only to the extent that all 
26necessary federal approvals and waivers have been obtained and 
27the enhanced rate of federal financial participation under Title XXI 
28of the federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1397aa et seq.) 
29is available for targeted low-income children pursuant to that act.
30(i) (1) The department shall exercise the option pursuant to 
31Section 1916A of the federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 
321396o-1) to impose premiums for individuals described in 
33subdivision (a) of Section 14005.26 whose family income has been 
34determined to be above 150 percent and up to and including 200 
35percent of the federal poverty level, after application of the income 
36disregard pursuant to
				  subdivision (b) of Section 14005.26. The 
37department shall not impose premiums under this subdivision for 
38individuals described in subdivision (a) of Section 14005.26 whose 
39family income has been determined to be at or below 150 percent 
40of the federal poverty level, after application of the income 
P495  1disregard pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 14005.26. The 
2department shall obtain federal approval for the implementation 
3of this subdivision.
4(2) All premiums imposed under this section shall equal the 
5family contributions described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) 
6of Section 12693.43 of the Insurance Code and shall be reduced 
7in conformity with subdivisions (e) and (f) of Section 12693.43 
8of the Insurance Code.
9(j) The department shall not enroll targeted low-income children 
10described in this section in the Medi-Cal program until all 
11necessary federal approvals and waivers have
				  been obtained, or 
12no sooner than January 1, 2013.
13(k) (1) To the extent the new budget methodology pursuant to 
14paragraph (6) of subdivision (a) of Section 14154 is not fully 
15operational, for the purposes of implementing this section, for 
16individuals described in subdivision (a) whose family income has 
17been determined to be at or below 150 percent of the federal 
18poverty level, as determined pursuant to subdivision (b), the 
19department shall utilize the budgeting methodology for this 
20population as contained in the November 2011 Medi-Cal Local 
21Assistance Estimate for Medi-Cal county administration costs for 
22eligibility operations.
23(2) For purposes of implementing this section, the department 
24shall include in the Medi-Cal Local Assistance Estimate an amount 
25for Medi-Cal eligibility operations associated with the transfer of 
26Healthy Families Program enrollees
				  eligible pursuant to subdivision 
27(a) of Section 14005.26 and whose family income is determined 
28to be above 150 percent and up to and including 200 percent of 
29the federal poverty level, after application of the income disregard 
30pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 14005.26. In developing an 
31estimate for this activity, the department shall consider the 
32projected number of final eligibility determinations each county 
33will process and projected county costs. Within 60 days of the 
34passage of the annual Budget Act, the department shall notify each 
35county of their allocation for this activity based upon the amount 
36allotted in the annual Budget Act for this purpose.
37(l) When the new budget methodology pursuant to paragraph 
38(6) of subdivision (a) of Section 14154 is fully operational, the 
39new budget methodology shall be utilized to reimburse counties 
P496  1for eligibility determinations made for individuals pursuant to this 
2section.
3(m) Except as provided in subdivision (b), eligibility 
4determinations and annual redeterminations made pursuant to this 
5section shall be performed by county eligibility workers.
6(n) In conducting the eligibility determinations for individuals 
7pursuant to this section and Section 14005.26, the following 
8reporting and performance standards shall apply to all counties:
9(1) Counties shall report to the department, in a manner and for 
10a time period determined by the department, in consultation with 
11the County Welfare Directors Association, the number of 
12applications processed on a monthly basis, a breakout of the 
13applications based on income using the federal percentage of 
14poverty levels, the final disposition of each application, including 
15information on the approved Medi-Cal program, if applicable, and 
16the average number
				  of days it took to make the final eligibility 
17determination for applications submitted directly to the county and 
18from the single point of entry (SPE).
19(2) Notwithstanding any other law, the following performance 
20standards shall be applied to counties for eligibility determinations 
21for individuals eligible pursuant to this section:
22(A) For children whose applications are received by the county 
23human services department from the SPE, the following standards 
24shall apply:
25(i) Applications for children who are granted accelerated 
26enrollment by the SPE shall be processed according to the 
27timeframes specified in subdivision (d) of Section 14154.
28(ii) Applications for children who are not granted accelerated 
29enrollment by the SPE due to the existence of an
				  already active 
30Medi-Cal case shall be processed according to the timeframes 
31specified in subdivision (d) of Section 14154.
32(iii) For applications for children who are not described in clause 
33(i) or (ii), 90 percent shall be processed within 10 working days 
34of being received, complete and without client errors.
35(iv) If an application described in this section also contains 
36adults, and the adult applicants are required to submit additional 
37information beyond the information provided for the children, the 
38county shall process the eligibility for the child or children without 
39delay, consistent with this section while gathering the necessary 
40information to process eligibility for the adults.
P497  1(B) The department, in consultation with the County Welfare 
2Directors Association, shall develop reporting requirements for 
3the
				  counties to provide regular data to the state regarding the 
4timeliness and outcomes of applications processed by the counties 
5that are received from the SPE.
6(C) Performance thresholds and corrective action standards as 
7set forth in Section 14154 shall apply.
8(D) For applications received directly by the county, these 
9applications shall be processed by the counties in accordance with 
10the performance standards established under subdivision (d) of 
11Section 14154.
12(3) This subdivision shall be implemented no sooner than 
13January 1, 2013.
14(4) Twelve months after implementation of this section pursuant 
15to subdivision (e), the department shall provide enrollment 
16information regarding individuals determined eligible pursuant to 
17subdivision (a) to the fiscal and
				  appropriate policy committees of 
18the Legislature.
19(o) (1) Notwithstanding Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 
2011340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, 
21for purposes of this transition, the department, without taking any 
22further regulatory action, shall implement, interpret, or make 
23specific this section by means of all-county letters, plan letters, 
24plan or provider bulletins, or similar instructions until the time 
25regulations are adopted. It is the intent of the Legislature that the 
26department be allowed temporary authority as necessary to 
27implement program changes until completion of the regulatory 
28process.
29(2) To the extent otherwise required by Chapter 3.5 
30(commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 
312 of the Government Code, the department shall adopt emergency 
32regulations implementing this section no later
				  than July 1, 2014. 
33The department may thereafter readopt the emergency regulations 
34pursuant to that chapter. The adoption and readoption, by the 
35department, of regulations implementing this section shall be 
36deemed to be an emergency and necessary to avoid serious harm 
37to the public peace, health, safety, or general welfare for purposes 
38of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and 
39the department is hereby exempted from the requirement that it 
P498  1describe facts showing the need for immediate action and from 
2review by the Office of Administrative Law.
3(p) To implement this section, the department may enter into 
4and continue contracts with the Healthy Families Program 
5administrative vendor, for the purposes of implementing and 
6maintaining the necessary systems and activities for providing 
7health care coverage to optional targeted low-income children in 
8the Medi-Cal program for purposes of accelerated enrollment 
9application processing by
				  single point of entry, 
10noneligibility-related case maintenance and premium collection, 
11maintenance of the Health-E-App Web portal, call center staffing 
12and operations, certified application assistant services, and 
13reporting capabilities. To further implement this section, the 
14department may also enter into a contract with the Health Care 
15Options Broker of the department for purposes of managed care 
16enrollment activities. The contracts entered into or amended under 
17this section may initially be completed on a noncompetitive bid 
18basis and are exempt from the Public Contract Code. Contracts 
19thereafter shall be entered into or amended on a competitive bid 
20basis and shall be subject to the Public Contract Code.
21(q) (1) If at any time the director determines that this section 
22or any part of this section may jeopardize the state’s ability to 
23receive federal financial participation under the federal Patient 
24Protection and
				  Affordable Care Act (Public Law 111-148), or any 
25amendment or extension of that act, or any additional federal funds 
26that the director, in consultation with the Department of Finance, 
27determines would be advantageous to the state, the director shall 
28give notice to the fiscal and policy committees of the Legislature 
29and to the Department of Finance. After giving notice, this section 
30or any part of this section shall become inoperative on the date 
31that the director executes a declaration stating that the department 
32has determined, in consultation with the Department of Finance, 
33that it is necessary to cease to implement this section or a part or 
34parts thereof in order to receive federal financial participation, any 
35increase in the federal medical assistance percentage available on 
36or after October 1, 2008, or any additional federal funds that the 
37director, in consultation with the Department of Finance, has 
38determined would be advantageous to the state.
39(2) The director shall retain the declaration described in 
40paragraph (1), shall provide a copy of the declaration to the 
P499  1Secretary of the State, the Secretary of the Senate, the Chief Clerk 
2of the Assembly, and the Legislative Counsel, and shall post the 
3declaration on the department’s Internet Web site.
4(3) In the event that the director makes a determination under 
5paragraph (1) and this section ceases to be implemented, the 
6children shall be enrolled back into the Healthy Families Program.
Section 14043.25 of the Welfare and Institutions 
8Code, as added by Section 8 of Chapter 797 of the Statutes of 
92012, is amended to read:
(a) The application form for enrollment, the provider 
11agreement, and all attachments or changes to either, shall be signed 
12under penalty of perjury.
13(b) The department may require that the application form for 
14enrollment, the provider agreement, and all attachments or changes 
15to either, submitted by an applicant or provider licensed pursuant 
16to Division 2 (commencing with Section 500) of the Business and 
17Professions Code, the Osteopathic Initiative Act, or the 
18Chiropractic Initiative Act, be notarized.
19(c) Application forms for enrollment, provider agreements, and 
20all attachments or changes to either, submitted by an applicant or 
21provider not subject to subdivision (b) shall be notarized. This
22
				  subdivision shall not apply with respect to providers under the 
23In-Home Supportive Services program.
24(d) The department shall collect an application fee for 
25enrollment, including enrollment at a new location or a change in 
26location. The application fee shall not be collected from individual 
27physicians or nonphysician practitioners, from providers that are 
28enrolled in Medicare or another state’s Medicaid program or 
29Children’s Health Insurance Program, from providers that submit 
30proof that they have paid the applicable fee to a Medicare 
31contractor or to another state’s Medicaid program, or pursuant to 
32an exemption or waiver pursuant to federal law. The application 
33fee collected shall be in the amount calculated by the federal 
34Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services in effect for the 
35calendar year during which the application for enrollment is 
36received by the department.
37(e) (1) This section shall become operative on the effective date 
38of the state plan amendment necessary to implement this section, 
39as stated in the declaration executed by the director pursuant to 
40paragraph (2).
P500  1(2) Upon approval of the state plan amendment necessary to 
2implement this section, the director shall execute a declaration, to 
3be retained by the director and posted on the department’s Internet 
4Web site, that states this approval has been obtained and the 
5effective date of the state plan amendment. The department shall 
6transmit a copy of the declaration to the Legislature.
Section 14043.7 of the Welfare and Institutions 
8Code, as amended by Section 21 of Chapter 797 of the Statutes of 
92012, is amended to read:
(a) The department may make unannounced visits 
11to an applicant or to a provider for the purpose of determining 
12whether enrollment, continued enrollment, or certification is 
13warranted, or as necessary for the administration of the Medi-Cal 
14program. At the time of the visit, the applicant or provider shall 
15be required to demonstrate an established place of business 
16appropriate and adequate for the services billed or claimed to the 
17Medi-Cal program, as relevant to his or her scope of practice, as 
18indicated by, but not limited to, the following:
19(1) Being open and available to the general public.
20(2) Having regularly established and posted business hours.
21(3) Having adequate supplies in stock on the premises.
22(4) Meeting all local laws and ordinances regarding business 
23licensing and operations.
24(5) Having the necessary equipment and facilities to carry out 
25day-to-day business for his or her practice.
26(b) An unannounced visit pursuant to subdivision (a) shall be 
27prohibited with respect to clinics licensed under Section 1204 of 
28the Health and Safety Code, clinics exempt from licensure under 
29Section 1206 of the Health and Safety Code, health facilities 
30licensed under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of 
31Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, and natural persons 
32licensed or certified under Division 2 (commencing with Section 
33500) of the Business and Professions Code, the Osteopathic 
34Initiative Act, or
				  the Chiropractic Initiative Act, unless the 
35department has reason to believe that the provider will defraud or 
36abuse the Medi-Cal program or lacks the organizational or 
37administrative capacity to provide services under the program.
38(c) Failure to remediate significant discrepancies in information 
39provided to the department by the provider or significant 
40discrepancies that are discovered as a result of an announced or 
P501  1unannounced visit to a provider, for purposes of enrollment, 
2continued enrollment, or certification pursuant to subdivision (a) 
3shall make the provider subject to temporary suspension from the 
4Medi-Cal program, which shall include temporary deactivation of 
5the provider’s number, including all business addresses used by 
6the provider to obtain reimbursement from the Medi-Cal program. 
7The director shall notify in writing the provider of the temporary 
8suspension and deactivation of provider numbers, which shall take 
9effect 15 days from
				  the date of the notification. Notwithstanding 
10Section 100171 of the Health and Safety Code, proceedings after 
11the imposition of sanctions in this subdivision shall be in 
12accordance with Section 14043.65.
13(d) This section shall become inoperative on the effective date 
14of the necessary state plan amendment, as stated in the declaration 
15executed by the director pursuant to Section 14043.7 as added by 
16Section 22 of the act that added this subdivision, and is repealed 
17on the January 1 of the following year. The department shall post 
18the declaration on its Internet Web site and transmit a copy of the 
19declaration to the Legislature.
Section 14043.7 of the Welfare and Institutions 
21Code, as added by Section 22 of Chapter 797 of the Statutes of 
222012, is amended to read:
(a) The department may make unannounced visits 
24to an applicant or to a provider for the purpose of determining 
25whether enrollment, continued enrollment, or certification is 
26warranted, or as necessary for the administration of the Medi-Cal 
27program. If an unannounced site visit is conducted by the 
28department for any enrolled provider, the provider shall permit 
29access to any and all of their provider locations. If a provider fails 
30to permit access for any site visit, the application shall be denied 
31and the provider shall be subject to deactivation. At the time of 
32the visit, the applicant or provider shall be required to demonstrate 
33an established place of business appropriate and adequate for the 
34services billed or claimed to the Medi-Cal program, as relevant to 
35his or her scope of practice, as indicated by, but not limited to,
				  the 
36following:
37(1) Being open and available to the general public.
38(2) Having regularly established and posted business hours.
39(3) Having adequate supplies in stock on the premises.
P502  1(4) Meeting all local laws and ordinances regarding business 
2licensing and operations.
3(5) Having the necessary equipment and facilities to carry out 
4day-to-day business for his or her practice.
5(b) An unannounced visit pursuant to subdivision (a) shall be 
6prohibited with respect to clinics licensed under Section 1204 of 
7the Health and Safety Code, clinics exempt from licensure under 
8Section 1206 of the Health and Safety Code, health facilities
9
				  licensed under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of 
10Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, and natural persons 
11licensed or certified under Division 2 (commencing with Section 
12500) of the Business and Professions Code, the Osteopathic 
13Initiative Act, or the Chiropractic Initiative Act, unless the 
14department has reason to believe that the provider will defraud or 
15abuse the Medi-Cal program or lacks the organizational or 
16administrative capacity to provide services under the program.
17(c) Failure to remediate significant discrepancies in information 
18provided to the department by the provider or significant 
19discrepancies that are discovered as a result of an announced or 
20unannounced visit to a provider, for purposes of enrollment, 
21continued enrollment, or certification pursuant to subdivision (a) 
22shall make the provider subject to temporary suspension from the 
23Medi-Cal program, which shall include temporary deactivation of 
24the provider’s
				  number, including all business addresses used by 
25the provider to obtain reimbursement from the Medi-Cal program. 
26The director shall notify in writing the provider of the temporary 
27suspension and deactivation of provider numbers, which shall take 
28effect 15 days from the date of the notification. Notwithstanding 
29Section 100171 of the Health and Safety Code, proceedings after 
30the imposition of sanctions in this subdivision shall be in 
31accordance with Section 14043.65.
32(d) (1) This section shall become operative on the effective 
33date of the state plan amendment necessary to implement this 
34section, as stated in the declaration executed by the director 
35pursuant to paragraph (2).
36(2) Upon approval of the state plan amendment necessary to 
37implement this section under Section 455.416 of Title 42 of the 
38Code of Federal Regulations, the director shall execute a
39
				  declaration, to be retained by the director and posted on the 
40department’s Internet Web site, that states that this approval has 
P503  1been obtained and the effective date of the state plan amendment. 
2The department shall transmit a copy of the declaration to the 
3Legislature.
Section 14132.275 of the Welfare and Institutions 
5Code is amended to read:
(a) The department shall seek federal approval to 
7establish the demonstration project described in this section 
8pursuant to a Medicare or a Medicaid demonstration project or 
9waiver, or a combination thereof. Under a Medicare demonstration, 
10the department may contract with the federal Centers for Medicare 
11and Medicaid Services (CMS) and demonstration sites to operate 
12the Medicare and Medicaid benefits in a demonstration project 
13that is overseen by the state as a delegated Medicare benefit 
14administrator, and may enter into financing arrangements with 
15CMS to share in any Medicare program savings generated by the 
16demonstration project.
17(b) After federal approval is obtained, the department shall 
18establish the demonstration project that enables dual eligible
19
				  beneficiaries to receive a continuum of services that maximizes 
20access to, and coordination of, benefits between the Medi-Cal and 
21Medicare programs and access to the continuum of long-term 
22services and supports and behavioral health services, including 
23mental health and substance use disorder treatment services. The 
24purpose of the demonstration project is to integrate services 
25authorized under the federal Medicaid Program (Title XIX of the 
26federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396 et seq.)) and the 
27federal Medicare Program (Title XVIII of the federal Social 
28Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395 et seq.)). The demonstration 
29project may also include additional services as approved through 
30a demonstration project or waiver, or a combination thereof.
31(c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall 
32apply:
33(1) “Behavioral health” means Medi-Cal services provided
34
				  pursuant to Section 51341 of Title 22 of the California Code of 
35Regulations and Drug Medi-Cal substance abuse services provided 
36pursuant to Section 51341.1 of Title 22 of the California Code of 
37Regulations, and any mental health benefits available under the 
38Medicare Program.
39(2) “Capitated payment model” means an agreement entered 
40into between CMS, the state, and a managed care health plan, in 
P504  1which the managed care health plan receives a capitation payment 
2for the comprehensive, coordinated provision of Medi-Cal services 
3and benefits under Medicare Part C (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395w-21 et 
4seq.) and Medicare Part D (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395w-101 et seq.), 
5and CMS shares the savings with the state from the improved 
6provision of Medi-Cal and Medicare services that reduces the cost 
7of those services. Medi-Cal services include long-term services 
8and supports as defined in Section 14186.1, behavioral health 
9services, and any additional services offered by the
				  demonstration 
10site.
11(3) “Demonstration site” means a managed care health plan that 
12is selected to participate in the demonstration project under the 
13capitated payment model.
14(4) “Dual eligible beneficiary” means an individual 21 years of 
15age or older who is enrolled for benefits under Medicare Part A 
16(42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395c et seq.) and Medicare Part B (42 U.S.C. 
17Sec. 1395j et seq.) and is eligible for medical assistance under the 
18Medi-Cal State Plan.
19(d) No sooner than March 1, 2011, the department shall identify 
20health care models that may be included in the demonstration 
21project, shall develop a timeline and process for selecting, 
22financing, monitoring, and evaluating the demonstration sites, and 
23shall provide this timeline and process to the appropriate fiscal 
24and policy committees of the Legislature. The
				  department may 
25implement these demonstration sites in phases.
26(e) The department shall provide the fiscal and appropriate 
27policy committees of the Legislature with a copy of any report 
28submitted to CMS to meet the requirements under the 
29demonstration project.
30(f) Goals for the demonstration project shall include all of the 
31following:
32(1) Coordinate Medi-Cal and Medicare benefits across health 
33care settings and improve the continuity of care across acute care, 
34long-term care, behavioral health, including mental health and 
35substance use disorder services, and home- and community-based 
36services settings using a person-centered approach.
37(2) Coordinate access to acute and long-term care services for 
38dual eligible beneficiaries.
P505  1(3) Maximize the ability of dual eligible beneficiaries to remain 
2in their homes and communities with appropriate services and 
3supports in lieu of institutional care.
4(4) Increase the availability of and access to home- and 
5community-based services.
6(5) Coordinate access to necessary and appropriate behavioral 
7health services, including mental health and substance use disorder 
8services.
9(6) Improve the quality of care for dual eligible beneficiaries.
10(7) Promote a system that is both sustainable and person and 
11family centered by providing dual eligible beneficiaries with timely 
12access to appropriate, coordinated health care services and 
13community resources that enable them to attain or
				  maintain 
14personal health goals.
15(g) No sooner than March 1, 2013, demonstration sites shall be 
16established in up to eight counties, and shall include at least one 
17county that provides Medi-Cal services via a two-plan model 
18pursuant to Article 2.7 (commencing with Section 14087.3) and 
19at least one county that provides Medi-Cal services under a 
20county-organized health system pursuant to Article 2.8 
21(commencing with Section 14087.5). The director shall consult 
22with the Legislature, CMS, and stakeholders when determining 
23the implementation date for this section. In determining the 
24counties in which to establish a demonstration site, the director 
25shall consider the following:
26(1) Local support for integrating medical care, long-term care, 
27and home- and community-based services networks.
28(2) A local stakeholder process
				  that includes health plans, 
29providers, mental health representatives, community programs, 
30consumers, designated representatives of in-home supportive 
31services personnel, and other interested stakeholders in the 
32development, implementation, and continued operation of the 
33demonstration site.
34(h) In developing the process for selecting, financing, 
35monitoring, and evaluating the health care models for the 
36demonstration project, the department shall enter into a 
37memorandum of understanding with CMS. Upon completion, the 
38memorandum of understanding shall be provided to the fiscal and 
39appropriate policy committees of the Legislature and posted on 
40the department’s Internet Web site.
P506  1(i) The department shall negotiate the terms and conditions of 
2the memorandum of understanding, which shall address, but are 
3not limited to, the following:
4(1) Reimbursement methods for a capitated payment model. 
5Under the capitated payment model, the demonstration sites shall 
6meet all of the following requirements:
7(A) Have Medi-Cal managed care health plan and Medicare 
8dual eligible-special needs plan contract experience, or evidence 
9of the ability to meet these contracting requirements.
10(B) Be in good financial standing and meet licensure 
11requirements under the Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act 
12of 1975 (Chapter 2.2 (commencing with Section 1340) of Division 
132 of the Health and Safety Code), except for county-organized 
14health system plans that are exempt from licensure pursuant to 
15Section 14087.95.
16(C) Meet quality measures, which may include Medi-Cal and 
17Medicare Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set 
18measures and other quality measures
				  determined or developed by 
19the department or CMS.
20(D) Demonstrate a local stakeholder process that includes dual 
21eligible beneficiaries, managed care health plans, providers, mental 
22health representatives, county health and human services agencies, 
23designated representatives of in-home supportive services 
24personnel, and other interested stakeholders that advise and consult 
25with the demonstration site in the development, implementation, 
26and continued operation of the demonstration project.
27(E) Pay providers reimbursement rates sufficient to maintain 
28an adequate provider network and ensure access to care for 
29beneficiaries.
30(F) Follow final policy guidance determined by CMS and the 
31department with regard to reimbursement rates for providers 
32pursuant to paragraphs (4) to (7), inclusive, of subdivision (o).
33(G) To the extent permitted under the demonstration, pay 
34noncontracted hospitals prevailing Medicare fee-for-service rates 
35for traditionally Medicare-covered benefits and prevailing 
36Medi-Cal fee-for-service rates for traditionally Medi-Cal-covered 
37benefits.
38(2) Encounter data reporting requirements for both Medi-Cal 
39and Medicare services provided to beneficiaries enrolling in the 
40demonstration project.
P507  1(3) Quality assurance withholding from the demonstration site 
2payment, to be paid only if quality measures developed as part of 
3the memorandum of understanding and plan contracts are met.
4(4) Provider network adequacy standards developed by the 
5department and CMS, in consultation with the Department of 
6Managed Health Care, the demonstration site, and
				  stakeholders.
7(5) Medicare and Medi-Cal appeals and hearing processes.
8(6) Unified marketing requirements and combined review 
9process by the department and CMS.
10(7) Combined quality management and consolidated reporting 
11process by the department and CMS.
12(8) Procedures related to combined federal and state contract 
13management to ensure access, quality, program integrity, and 
14financial solvency of the demonstration site.
15(9) To the extent permissible under federal requirements, 
16implementation of the provisions of Sections 14182.16 and 
1714182.17 that are applicable to beneficiaries simultaneously eligible 
18for full-scope benefits under Medi-Cal and the Medicare Program.
19(10) (A) In consultation with the hospital industry, CMS 
20approval to ensure that Medicare supplemental payments for direct 
21graduate medical education and Medicare add-on payments, 
22including indirect medical education and disproportionate share 
23hospital adjustments continue to be made available to hospitals 
24for services provided under the demonstration.
25(B) The department shall seek CMS approval for CMS to 
26continue these payments either outside the capitation rates or, if 
27contained within the capitation rates, and to the extent permitted 
28under the demonstration project, shall require demonstration sites 
29to provide this reimbursement to hospitals.
30(11) To the extent permitted under the demonstration project, 
31the default rate for noncontracting providers of physician services 
32shall be the prevailing
				  Medicare fee schedule for services covered 
33by the Medicare Program and the prevailing Medi-Cal fee schedule 
34for services covered by the Medi-Cal program.
35(j) (1) The department shall comply with and enforce the terms 
36and conditions of the memorandum of understanding with CMS, 
37as specified in subdivision (i). To the extent that the terms and 
38conditions do not address the specific selection, financing, 
39monitoring, and evaluation criteria listed in subdivision (i), the 
40department:
P508  1(A) Shall require the demonstration site to do all of the 
2following:
3(i) Comply with additional site readiness criteria specified by 
4the department.
5(ii) Comply with long-term services and support requirements 
6in accordance with Article 5.7 (commencing with
				  Section 14186).
7(iii) To the extent permissible under federal requirements, 
8comply with the provisions of Sections 14182.16 and 14182.17 
9that are applicable to beneficiaries simultaneously eligible for 
10full-scope benefits under both Medi-Cal and the Medicare Program.
11(iv) Comply with all transition of care requirements for Medicare 
12Part D benefits as described in Chapters 6 and 14 of the Medicare 
13Managed Care Manual, published by CMS, including transition 
14timeframes, notices, and emergency supplies.
15(B) May require the demonstration site to forgo charging 
16premiums, coinsurance, copayments, and deductibles for Medicare 
17Part C and Medicare Part D services.
18(2) The department shall notify the Legislature within 30 days 
19of the implementation of each
				  provision in paragraph (1).
20(k) The director may enter into exclusive or nonexclusive 
21contracts on a bid or negotiated basis and may amend existing 
22managed care contracts to provide or arrange for services provided 
23under this section. Contracts entered into or amended pursuant to 
24this section shall be exempt from the provisions of Chapter 2 
25(commencing with Section 10290) of Part 2 of Division 2 of the 
26Public Contract Code and Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 
2714825) of Part 5.5 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government 
28Code.
29(l) (1) (A) Except for the exemptions provided for in this 
30section, the department shall enroll dual eligible beneficiaries into 
31a demonstration site unless the beneficiary makes an affirmative 
32choice to opt out of enrollment or is already enrolled on or before 
33June 1, 2013, in a managed care organization licensed
				  under the 
34Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act of 1975 (Chapter 2.2 
35(commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of the Health and 
36Safety Code) that has previously contracted with the department 
37as a primary care case management plan pursuant to Article 2.9 
38(commencing with Section 14088) to provide services to 
39beneficiaries who are HIV positive or who have been diagnosed 
P509  1with AIDS or in any entity with a contract with the department 
2pursuant to Chapter 8.75 (commencing with Section 14591).
3(B) Dual eligible beneficiaries who opt out of enrollment into 
4a demonstration site may choose to remain enrolled in 
5fee-for-service Medicare or a Medicare Advantage plan for their 
6Medicare benefits, but shall be mandatorily enrolled into a 
7Medi-Cal managed care health plan pursuant to Section 14182.16, 
8except as exempted under subdivision (c) of Section 14182.16.
9(C) (i) Persons meeting requirements for the Program of 
10All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE) pursuant to Chapter 
118.75 (commencing with Section 14591) or a managed care 
12organization licensed under the Knox-Keene Health Care Service 
13Plan Act of 1975 (Chapter 2.2 (commencing with Section 1340) 
14of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code) that has previously 
15contracted with the department as a primary care case management 
16plan pursuant to Article 2.9 (commencing with Section 14088) to 
17provide services to beneficiaries who are HIV positive or who 
18have been diagnosed with AIDS, may select either of these 
19managed care health plans for their Medicare and Medi-Cal benefits 
20if one is available in that county.
21(ii) In areas where a PACE plan is available, the PACE plan 
22shall be presented as an enrollment option, included in all 
23enrollment materials, enrollment assistance programs, and outreach 
24programs related to the demonstration project,
				  and made available 
25to beneficiaries whenever enrollment choices and options are 
26presented. Persons meeting the age qualifications for PACE and 
27who choose PACE shall remain in the fee-for-service Medi-Cal 
28and Medicare programs, and shall not be assigned to a managed 
29care health plan for the lesser of 60 days or until they are assessed 
30for eligibility for PACE and determined not to be eligible for a 
31PACE plan. Persons enrolled in a PACE plan shall receive all 
32Medicare and Medi-Cal services from the PACE program pursuant 
33to the three-way agreement between the PACE program, the 
34department, and the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid 
35Services.
36(2) To the extent that federal approval is obtained, the 
37department may require that any beneficiary, upon enrollment in 
38a demonstration site, remain enrolled in the Medicare portion of 
39the demonstration project on a mandatory basis for six months 
40from the date of initial enrollment. After the sixth
				  month, a dual 
P510  1eligible beneficiary may elect to enroll in a different demonstration 
2site, a different Medicare Advantage plan, fee-for-service Medicare, 
3PACE, or a managed care organization licensed under the 
4Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act of 1975 (Chapter 2.2 
5(commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of the Health and
6 Safety Code) that has previously contracted with the department 
7as a primary care case management plan pursuant to Article 2.9 
8(commencing with Section 14088) to provide services to 
9beneficiaries who are HIV positive or who have been diagnosed 
10with AIDS, for his or her Medicare benefits.
11(A) During the six-month mandatory enrollment in a 
12demonstration site, a beneficiary may continue receiving services 
13from an out-of-network Medicare provider for primary and 
14specialty care services only if all of the following criteria are met:
15(i) The dual eligible
				  beneficiary demonstrates an existing 
16relationship with the provider prior to enrollment in a 
17demonstration site.
18(ii) The provider is willing to accept payment from the 
19demonstration site based on the current Medicare fee schedule.
20(iii) The demonstration site would not otherwise exclude the 
21provider from its provider network due to documented quality of 
22care concerns.
23(B) The department shall develop a process to inform providers 
24and beneficiaries of the availability of continuity of services from 
25an existing provider and ensure that the beneficiary continues to 
26receive services without interruption.
27(3) (A) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1), a 
28dual eligible beneficiary shall be excluded from enrollment in the
29
				  demonstration project if the beneficiary meets any of the following:
30(i) The beneficiary has a prior diagnosis of end-stage renal 
31disease. This clause shall not apply to beneficiaries diagnosed with 
32end-stage renal disease subsequent to enrollment in the 
33demonstration project. The director may, with stakeholder input 
34and federal approval, authorize beneficiaries with a prior diagnosis 
35of end-stage renal disease in specified counties to voluntarily enroll 
36in the demonstration project.
37(ii) The beneficiary has other health coverage, as defined in 
38paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section 14182.16.
39(iii) The beneficiary is enrolled in a home- and community-based 
40waiver that is a Medi-Cal benefit under Section 1915(c) of the 
P511  1federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396n(c)), except for 
2persons enrolled in
				  Multipurpose Senior Services Program services.
3(iv) The beneficiary is receiving services through a regional 
4center or state developmental center.
5(v) The beneficiary resides in a geographic area or ZIP Code 
6not included in managed care, as determined by the department 
7and CMS.
8(vi) The beneficiary resides in one of the Veterans’ Homes of 
9California, as described in Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 
101010) of Division 5 of the Military and Veterans Code.
11(B) (i) Beneficiaries who have been diagnosed with HIV/AIDS 
12may opt out of the demonstration project at the beginning of any 
13month. The State Department of Public Health may share relevant 
14data relating to a beneficiary’s enrollment in the AIDS Drug 
15Assistance Program with the
				  department, and the department may 
16share relevant data relating to HIV-positive beneficiaries with the 
17State Department of Public Health.
18(ii) The information provided by the State Department of Public 
19Health pursuant to this subparagraph shall not be further disclosed 
20by the State Department of Health Care Services, and shall be 
21subject to the confidentiality protections of subdivisions (d) and 
22(e) of Section 121025 of the Health and Safety Code, except this 
23information may be further disclosed as follows:
24(I) To the person to whom the information pertains or the 
25designated representative of that person.
26(II) To the Office of AIDS within the State Department of Public 
27Health.
28(C) Beneficiaries who are Indians receiving Medi-Cal services 
29in accordance
				  with Section 55110 of Title 22 of the California 
30Code of Regulations may opt out of the demonstration project at 
31the beginning of any month.
32(D) The department, with stakeholder input, may exempt specific 
33categories of dual eligible beneficiaries from enrollment 
34requirements in this section based on extraordinary medical needs 
35of specific patient groups or to meet federal requirements.
36(4) For the 2013 calendar year, the department shall offer federal 
37Medicare Improvements for Patients and Providers Act of 2008 
38(Public Law 110-275) compliant contracts to existing Medicare 
39Advantage Special Needs Plans (D-SNP plans) to continue to 
40provide Medicare benefits to their enrollees in their service areas 
P512  1as approved on January 1, 2012. In the 2013 calendar year, 
2beneficiaries in Medicare Advantage and D-SNP plans shall be 
3exempt from the enrollment provisions of subparagraph (A) of
4
				  paragraph (1), but may voluntarily choose to enroll in the 
5demonstration project. Enrollment into the demonstration project’s 
6managed care health plans shall be reassessed in 2014 depending 
7on federal reauthorization of the D-SNP model and the 
8department’s assessment of the demonstration plans.
9(5) For the 2013 calendar year, demonstration sites shall not 
10offer to enroll dual eligible beneficiaries eligible for the 
11demonstration project into the demonstration site’s D-SNP.
12(6) The department shall not terminate contracts in a 
13demonstration site with a managed care organization licensed 
14under the Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act of 1975 
15(Chapter 2.2 (commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of 
16the Health and Safety Code) that has previously contracted with 
17the department as a primary care case management plan pursuant 
18to Article 2.9 (commencing with Section 14088) to
				  provide services 
19to beneficiaries who are HIV positive beneficiaries or who have 
20been diagnosed with AIDS and with any entity with a contract 
21pursuant to Chapter 8.75 (commencing with Section 14591), except 
22as provided in the contract or pursuant to state or federal law.
23(m) Notwithstanding Section 10231.5 of the Government Code, 
24the department shall conduct an evaluation, in partnership with 
25CMS, to assess outcomes and the experience of dual eligibles in 
26these demonstration sites and shall provide a report to the 
27Legislature after the first full year of demonstration operation, and 
28annually thereafter. A report submitted to the Legislature pursuant 
29to this subdivision shall be submitted in compliance with Section 
309795 of the Government Code. The department shall consult with 
31stakeholders regarding the scope and structure of the evaluation.
32(n) This section shall be implemented
				  only if and to the extent 
33that federal financial participation or funding is available.
34(o) It is the intent of the Legislature that:
35(1) In order to maintain adequate provider networks, 
36demonstration sites shall reimburse providers at rates sufficient to 
37ensure access to care for beneficiaries.
38(2) Savings under the demonstration project are intended to be 
39achieved through shifts in utilization, and not through reduced 
40reimbursement rates to providers.
P513  1(3) Reimbursement policies shall not prevent demonstration 
2sites and providers from entering into payment arrangements that 
3allow for the alignment of financial incentives and provide 
4opportunities for shared risk and shared savings in order to promote 
5appropriate utilization shifts, which encourage the
				  use of home- 
6and community-based services and quality of care for dual eligible 
7beneficiaries enrolled in the demonstration sites.
8(4) To the extent permitted under the demonstration project, 
9and to the extent that a public entity voluntarily provides an 
10intergovernmental transfer for this purpose, both of the following 
11shall apply:
12(A) The department shall work with CMS in ensuring that the 
13capitation rates under the demonstration project are inclusive of 
14funding currently provided through certified public expenditures 
15supplemental payment programs that would otherwise be impacted 
16by the demonstration project.
17(B) Demonstration sites shall pay to a public entity voluntarily 
18providing intergovernmental transfers that previously received 
19reimbursement under a certified public expenditures supplemental 
20payment program,
				  rates that include the additional funding under 
21the capitation rates that are funded by the public entity’s 
22intergovernmental transfer.
23(5) The department shall work with CMS in developing other 
24reimbursement policies and shall inform demonstration sites, 
25providers, and the Legislature of the final policy guidance.
26(6) The department shall seek approval from CMS to permit 
27the provider payment requirements contained in subparagraph (G) 
28of paragraph (1) and paragraphs (10) and (11) of subdivision (i), 
29and Section 14132.276.
30(7) Demonstration sites that contract with hospitals for hospital 
31services on a fee-for-service basis that otherwise would have been 
32traditionally Medicare services will achieve savings through 
33utilization changes and not by paying hospitals at rates lower than 
34prevailing Medicare fee-for-service
				  rates.
35(p) The department shall enter into an interagency agreement 
36with the Department of Managed Health Care to perform some or 
37all of the department’s oversight and readiness review activities 
38specified in this section. These activities may include providing 
39consumer assistance to beneficiaries affected by this section and 
40conducting financial audits, medical surveys, and a review of the 
P514  1adequacy of provider networks of the managed care health plans 
2participating in this section. The interagency agreement shall be 
3updated, as necessary, on an annual basis in order to maintain 
4functional clarity regarding the roles and responsibilities of the 
5Department of Managed Health Care and the department. The 
6department shall not delegate its authority under this section as 
7the single state Medicaid agency to the Department of Managed 
8Health Care.
9(q) (1) Beginning
				  with the May Revision to the 2013-14 
10Governor’s Budget, and annually thereafter, the department shall 
11report to the Legislature on the enrollment status, quality measures, 
12and state costs of the actions taken pursuant to this section.
13(2) (A) By January 1, 2013, or as soon thereafter as practicable, 
14the department shall develop, in consultation with CMS and 
15stakeholders, quality and fiscal measures for health plans to reflect 
16the short- and long-term results of the implementation of this 
17section. The department shall also develop quality thresholds and 
18milestones for these measures. The department shall update these 
19measures periodically to reflect changes in this program due to 
20implementation factors and the structure and design of the benefits 
21and services being coordinated by managed care health plans.
22(B) The department shall require health plans to
				  submit 
23Medicare and Medi-Cal data to determine the results of these 
24measures. If the department finds that a health plan is not in 
25compliance with one or more of the measures set forth in this 
26section, the health plan shall, within 60 days, submit a corrective 
27action plan to the department for approval. The corrective action 
28plan shall, at a minimum, include steps that the health plan shall 
29take to improve its performance based on the standard or standards 
30with which the health plan is out of compliance. The plan shall 
31establish interim benchmarks for improvement that shall be 
32expected to be met by the health plan in order to avoid a sanction 
33pursuant to Section 14304. Nothing in this subparagraph is intended 
34to limit Section 14304.
35(C) The department shall publish the results of these measures, 
36including via posting on the department’s Internet Web site, on a 
37quarterly basis.
38(r) Notwithstanding Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 
3911340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, 
40the department may implement, interpret, or make specific this 
P515  1section and any applicable federal waivers and state plan 
2amendments by means of all-county letters, plan letters, plan or 
3provider bulletins, or similar instructions, without taking regulatory 
4action. Prior to issuing any letter or similar instrument authorized 
5pursuant to this section, the department shall notify and consult 
6with stakeholders, including advocates, providers, and 
7beneficiaries. The department shall notify the appropriate policy 
8and fiscal committees of the Legislature of its intent to issue 
9instructions under this section at least five days in advance of the 
10issuance.
Section 14132.276 of the Welfare and Institutions 
12Code is amended to read:
For nursing facility services provided under the 
14demonstration project as established in Section 14132.275, to the 
15extent these provisions are authorized under the memorandum of 
16understanding specified in subdivision (j) of Section 14132.275, 
17the following shall apply:
18(a) The demonstration site shall not combine the rates of 
19payment for post-acute skilled and rehabilitation care provided by 
20a nursing facility and long-term and chronic care provided by a 
21nursing facility in order to establish a single payment rate for dual 
22eligible beneficiaries requiring skilled nursing services.
23(b) The demonstration site shall pay nursing facilities providing 
24post-acute skilled and rehabilitation care or long-term and chronic 
25care
				  rates that reflect the different level of services and intensity 
26required to provide these services.
27(c) For the purposes of determining the appropriate rate for the 
28type of care identified in subdivision (b), the demonstration site 
29shall pay no less than the recognized rates under Medicare and 
30Medi-Cal for these service types.
31(d) With respect to services under this section, the demonstration 
32site shall not offer, and the nursing facility shall not accept, any 
33discounts, rebates, or refunds as compensation or inducements for 
34the referral of patients or residents.
35(e) It is the intent of the Legislature that savings under the 
36demonstration project be achieved through shifts in utilization, 
37and not through reduced reimbursement rates to providers.
38(f) In
				  order to encourage quality improvement and promote 
39appropriate utilization incentives, including reduced 
40rehospitalization and shorter lengths of stay, for nursing facilities 
P516  1providing the services under this section, the demonstration sites 
2may do any of the following:
3(1) Utilize incentive or bonus payment programs that are in 
4addition to the rates identified in subdivisions (b) and (c).
5(2) Opt to direct beneficiaries to facilities that demonstrate better 
6performance on quality or appropriate utilization factors.
Section 14169.32 of the Welfare and Institutions 
8Code is amended to read:
(a) There shall be imposed on each general acute 
10care hospital that is not an exempt facility a quality assurance fee, 
11provided that a quality assurance fee under this article shall not be 
12imposed on a converted hospital.
13(b) The quality assurance fee shall be computed starting on July 
141, 2011, and continue through and including December 31, 2013.
15(c) Subject to Section 14169.34, upon receipt of federal 
16approval, the following shall become operative:
17(1) Within 10 business days following receipt of the notice of 
18federal approval from the federal government, the department shall 
19send notice to each hospital subject to the quality
				  assurance fee, 
20and publish on its Internet Web site, the following information:
21(A) The date that the state received notice of federal approval.
22(B) The fee percentage for each subject fiscal year.
23(2) The notice to each hospital subject to the quality assurance 
24fee shall also state the following:
25(A) The aggregate quality assurance fee after the application of 
26the fee percentage for each subject fiscal year.
27(B) The aggregate quality assurance fee.
28(C) The amount of each payment due from the hospital with 
29respect to the aggregate quality assurance fee.
30(D) The date on which each payment is due.
31(3) The hospitals shall pay the aggregate quality assurance fee 
32after application of the fee percentage for all subject fiscal years 
33in 10 installments. The department shall establish the date that 
34each installment is due, provided that the first installment shall be 
35due no earlier than 20 days following the department sending the 
36notice pursuant to paragraph (1), and the installments shall be paid 
37at least one month apart, but if possible, the installments shall be 
38paid on a quarterly basis.
39(4) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the 
40amount of each hospital’s aggregate quality assurance fee after 
P517  1the application of the fee percentage for each subject fiscal year 
2that has not been paid by the hospital before December 15, 2013, 
3pursuant to paragraphs (3) and (8), shall be paid by the hospital 
4no later than December 15, 2013.
5(5) (A) Notwithstanding subdivision (l) of Section 14169.31, 
6for the purpose of determining the installments under paragraph 
7(3), the department shall use an interim fee percentage as follows:
8(i) One hundred percent for subject fiscal year 2011-12 until 
9the federal government has approved or disapproved additional 
10capitation payments described in Section 14169.5 for that subject 
11fiscal year.
12(ii) One hundred percent for subject fiscal year 2012-13 until 
13the federal government has approved or disapproved additional 
14capitation payments described in Section 14169.5 for that subject 
15fiscal year.
16(iii) Fifty percent for subject fiscal year 2013-14 until the federal 
17government has approved or disapproved additional capitation 
18payments
				  described in Section 14169.5 for that subject fiscal year.
19(B) The director may use a lower interim fee percentage for 
20each subject fiscal year under this paragraph as the director, in his 
21or her discretion, determines is reasonable in order to generate 
22sufficient but not excessive installment payments to make the 
23payments described in subdivision (b) of Section 14169.33.
24(6) The director shall determine the final fee percentage for each 
25subject fiscal year within 15 days of the approval or disapproval, 
26in whole or in part, by the federal government of all changes to 
27the capitation rates of managed health care plans requested by the 
28department to implement Section 14169.5 for that subject fiscal 
29year, but in no event later than December 1, 2013. At the time the 
30director determines the final fee percentage for a subject fiscal 
31year, the director shall also determine the amount of
				  future 
32installment payments of the quality assurance fee for each hospital 
33subject to the fee, if any are due. The amount of each future 
34installment payment shall be established by the director with the 
35objective that the total of the installment payments of the quality 
36assurance fee due from a hospital shall equal the director’s estimate 
37for each subject fiscal year for the hospital of the aggregate quality 
38assurance fee after the application of the fee percentage.
39(7) The director, within 15 days of determining the final fee 
40percentage for a subject fiscal year pursuant to paragraph (6), shall 
P518  1send notice to each hospital subject to the quality assurance fee of 
2the following information:
3(A) The final fee percentage for each subject fiscal year for 
4which the final fee percentage has been determined.
5(B) The fee
				  percentage determined under paragraph (5) for each 
6subject fiscal year for which the final fee percentage has not been 
7determined.
8(C) The aggregate quality assurance fee after application of the 
9fee percentage for each subject fiscal year.
10(D) The director’s estimate of total quality assurance fee 
11payments due from the hospital under this article whether or not 
12paid. This amount shall be the sum of the aggregate quality 
13assurance fee after application of the fee percentage for each 
14subject fiscal year using the fee percentages contained in the notice.
15(E) The total quality assurance fee payments that the hospital 
16has made under this article.
17(F) The amount, if any, by which the total quality assurance fee 
18payments due from the hospital under this
				  article as described in 
19subparagraph (C) exceed the total quality assurance fee payments 
20that the hospital has made under this article.
21(G) The amount of each remaining installment of the quality 
22assurance fee, if any, due from the hospital and the date each 
23installment is due. This amount shall be the amount described in 
24subparagraph (F) divided by the number of installment payments 
25remaining.
26(8) Each hospital that is sent a notice under paragraph (7) shall 
27pay the additional installments of the quality assurance fee that 
28are due, if any, in the amounts and at the times set forth in the 
29notice unless superseded by a subsequent notice from the 
30department.
31(9) The department shall refund to a hospital paying the quality 
32assurance fee the amount, if any, by which the total quality 
33assurance fee payments that the
				  hospital has made under this article 
34for all subject fiscal years exceed the total quality assurance fee 
35payments due from the hospital under this article within 30 days 
36of the date on which the notice is sent to the hospital under 
37paragraph (7).
38(d) The quality assurance fee, as paid pursuant to this section, 
39shall be paid by each hospital subject to the fee to the department 
40for deposit in the Hospital Quality Assurance Revenue Fund. 
P519  1Deposits may be accepted at any time and will be credited toward 
2the program period.
3(e) This section shall become inoperative if the federal Centers 
4for Medicare and Medicaid Services denies approval for, or does 
5not approve before July 1, 2014, the implementation of the quality 
6assurance fee pursuant to this article or the supplemental payments 
7to private hospitals described in Sections 14169.2 and 14169.3, 
8and either or both provisions cannot be
				  modified by the department 
9pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 14169.33 in order to meet 
10the requirements of federal law or to obtain federal approval.
11(f) In no case shall the aggregate fees collected in a federal fiscal 
12year pursuant to this section and Sections 14167.32 and 14168.32 
13exceed the maximum percentage of the annual aggregate net patient 
14revenue for hospitals subject to the fee that is prescribed pursuant 
15to federal law and regulations as necessary to preclude a finding 
16that an indirect guarantee has been created.
17(g) (1) Interest shall be assessed on quality assurance fees not 
18paid on the date due at the greater of 10 percent per annum or the 
19rate at which the department assesses interest on Medi-Cal program 
20overpayments to hospitals that are not repaid when due. Interest 
21shall begin to accrue the day after the date the payment was due 
22and
				  shall be deposited in the Hospital Quality Assurance Revenue 
23Fund.
24(2) In the event that any fee payment is more than 60 days 
25overdue, a penalty equal to the interest charge described in 
26paragraph (1) shall be assessed and due for each month for which 
27the payment is not received after 60 days.
28(h) When a hospital fails to pay all or part of the quality 
29assurance fee on or before the date that payment is due, the 
30department may immediately begin to deduct the unpaid assessment 
31and interest from any Medi-Cal payments owed to the hospital, 
32or, in accordance with Section 12419.5 of the Government Code, 
33from any other state payments owed to the hospital until the full 
34amount is recovered. All amounts, except penalties, deducted by 
35the department under this subdivision shall be deposited in the 
36Hospital Quality Assurance Revenue Fund. The remedy provided 
37to the department by this
				  section is in addition to other remedies 
38available under law.
P520  1(i) The payment of the quality assurance fee shall not be 
2considered as an allowable cost for Medi-Cal cost reporting and 
3reimbursement purposes.
4(j) The department shall work in consultation with the hospital 
5community to implement this article and Article 5.228 
6(commencing with Section 14169.1).
7(k) This subdivision creates a contractually enforceable promise 
8on behalf of the state to use the proceeds of the quality assurance 
9fee, including any federal matching funds, solely and exclusively 
10for the purposes set forth in this article as they existed on 
11September 16, 2011, to limit the amount of the proceeds of the 
12quality assurance fee to be used to pay for the health care coverage 
13of children to the amounts specified in this article, to limit any
14
				  payments for the department’s costs of administration to the 
15amounts set forth in this article on September 16, 2011, to maintain 
16and continue prior reimbursement levels as set forth in Section 
1714169.12 on September 16, 2011, and to otherwise comply with 
18all its obligations set forth in Article 5.228 (commencing with 
19Section 14169.1) and this article provided that amendments that 
20arise from, or have as a basis, a decision, advice, or determination 
21by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services relating 
22to federal approval of the quality assurance fee or the payments 
23set forth in this article or Article 5.228 (commencing with Section 
2414169.1) shall control for the purposes of this subdivision.
25(l) (1) Effective January 1, 2014, the rates payable to hospitals 
26and managed health care plans under Medi-Cal shall be the rates 
27then payable without the supplemental and increased capitation 
28payments set forth in Article
				  5.228 (commencing with Section 
2914169.1).
30(2) The supplemental payments and other payments under 
31Article 5.228 (commencing with Section 14169.1) shall be regarded 
32as quality assurance payments, the implementation or suspension 
33of which does not affect a determination of the adequacy of any 
34rates under federal law.
35(m) (1) Subject to paragraph (2), the director may waive any 
36or all interest and penalties assessed under this article in the event 
37that the director determines, in his or her sole discretion, that the 
38hospital has demonstrated that imposition of the full quality 
39assurance fee on the timelines applicable under this article has a 
40high likelihood of creating a financial hardship for the hospital or 
P521  1a significant danger of reducing the provision of needed health 
2care services.
3(2) Waiver
				  of some or all of the interest or penalties under this 
4subdivision shall be conditioned on the hospital’s agreement to 
5make fee payments, or to have the payments withheld from 
6payments otherwise due from the Medi-Cal program to the hospital, 
7on a schedule developed by the department that takes into account 
8the financial situation of the hospital and the potential impact on 
9services.
10(3) A decision by the director under this subdivision is not 
11subject to judicial review.
12(4) If fee payments are remitted to the department after the date 
13determined by the department to be the final date for calculating 
14the final supplemental payments under this article and Article 
155.228 (commencing with Section 14169.1), the fee payments shall 
16be retained in the fund for purposes of funding supplemental 
17payments supported by a hospital quality assurance fee program 
18implemented under subsequent
				  legislation, provided, however, 
19that if supplemental payments are not implemented under 
20subsequent legislation, then those fee payments shall be deposited 
21in the Distressed Hospital Fund.
22(5) If during the implementation of this article, fee payments 
23that were due under Article 5.21 (commencing with Section 
2414167.1) and Article 5.22 (commencing with Section 14167.31), 
25or Article 5.227 (commencing with Section 14168.31), are remitted 
26to the department under a payment plan or for any other reason, 
27and the final date for calculating the final supplemental payments 
28under those articles has passed, those fee payments shall be 
29deposited in the fund to support the uses established by this article.
Section 14182 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
31 is amended to read:
(a) (1) In furtherance of the waiver or demonstration 
33project developed pursuant to Section 14180, the department may 
34require seniors and persons with disabilities who do not have other 
35health coverage to be assigned as mandatory enrollees into new 
36or existing managed care health plans. To the extent that enrollment 
37is required by the department, an enrollee’s access to 
38fee-for-service Medi-Cal shall not be terminated until the enrollee 
39has been assigned to a managed care health plan.
40(2) For purposes of this section:
P522  1(A) “Other health coverage” means health coverage providing 
2the same full or partial benefits as the Medi-Cal program, health 
3coverage under another state or federal
				  medical care program, or 
4health coverage under contractual or legal entitlement, including, 
5but not limited to, a private group or indemnification insurance 
6program.
7(B) “Managed care health plan” means an individual, 
8organization, or entity that enters into a contract with the 
9department pursuant to Article 2.7 (commencing with Section 
1014087.3), Article 2.81 (commencing with Section 14087.96), 
11Article 2.91 (commencing with Section 14089), or Chapter 8 
12(commencing with Section 14200).
13(b) In exercising its authority pursuant to subdivision (a), the 
14department shall do all of the following:
15(1) Assess and ensure the readiness of the managed care health 
16plans to address the unique needs of seniors or persons with 
17disabilities pursuant to the applicable readiness evaluation criteria 
18and requirements set forth in
				  paragraphs (1) to (8), inclusive, of 
19subdivision (b) of Section 14087.48.
20(2) Ensure the managed care health plans provide access to 
21providers that comply with applicable state and federal laws, 
22including, but not limited to, physical accessibility and the 
23provision of health plan information in alternative formats.
24(3) Develop and implement an outreach and education program 
25for seniors and persons with disabilities, not currently enrolled in 
26Medi-Cal managed care, to inform them of their enrollment options 
27and rights under the demonstration project. Contingent upon 
28available private or public dollars other than moneys from the 
29General Fund, the department or its designated agent for enrollment 
30and outreach may partner or contract with community-based, 
31nonprofit consumer or health insurance assistance organizations 
32with expertise and experience in assisting seniors and persons
				  with 
33disabilities in understanding their health care coverage options. 
34Contracts entered into or amended pursuant to this paragraph shall 
35be exempt from Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 10290) of 
36Part 2 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code and any 
37implementing regulations or policy directives.
38(4) At least three months prior to enrollment, inform 
39beneficiaries who are seniors or persons with disabilities, through 
40a notice written at no more than a sixth grade reading level, about 
P523  1the forthcoming changes to their delivery of care, including, at a 
2minimum, how their system of care will change, when the changes 
3will occur, and who they can contact for assistance with choosing 
4a delivery system or with problems they encounter. In developing 
5this notice, the department shall consult with consumer 
6representatives and other stakeholders.
7(5) Implement an appropriate cultural
				  awareness and sensitivity 
8training program regarding serving seniors and persons with 
9disabilities for managed care health plans and plan providers and 
10staff in the Medi-Cal Managed Care Division of the department.
11(6) Establish a process for assigning enrollees into an organized 
12delivery system for beneficiaries who do not make an affirmative 
13selection of a managed care health plan. The department shall 
14develop this process in consultation with stakeholders and in a 
15manner consistent with the waiver or demonstration project 
16developed pursuant to Section 14180. The department shall base 
17plan assignment on an enrollee’s existing or recent utilization of 
18providers, to the extent possible. If the department is unable to 
19make an assignment based on the enrollee’s affirmative selection 
20or utilization history, the department shall base plan assignment 
21on factors, including, but not limited to, plan quality and the 
22inclusion of local health care
				  safety net system providers in the 
23plan’s provider network.
24(7) Review and approve the mechanism or algorithm that has 
25been developed by the managed care health plan, in consultation 
26with their stakeholders and consumers, to identify, within the 
27earliest possible timeframe, persons with higher risk and more 
28complex health care needs pursuant to paragraph (11) of 
29subdivision (c).
30(8) Provide managed care health plans with historical utilization 
31data for beneficiaries upon enrollment in a managed care health 
32plan so that the plans participating in the demonstration project 
33are better able to assist beneficiaries and prioritize assessment and 
34care planning.
35(9) Develop and provide managed care health plans participating 
36in the demonstration project with a facility site review tool for use 
37in assessing the physical
				  accessibility of providers, including 
38specialists and ancillary service providers that provide care to a 
39high volume of seniors and persons with disabilities, at a clinic or 
40provider site, to ensure that there are sufficient physically 
P524  1accessible providers. Every managed care health plan participating 
2in the demonstration project shall make the results of the facility 
3site review tool publicly available on their Internet Web site and 
4shall regularly update the results to the department’s satisfaction.
5(10) Develop a process to enforce legal sanctions, including, 
6but not limited to, financial penalties, withholding of Medi-Cal 
7payments, enrollment termination, and contract termination, in 
8order to sanction any managed care health plan in the 
9demonstration project that consistently or repeatedly fails to meet 
10performance standards provided in statute or contract.
11(11) Ensure that
				  managed care health plans provide a mechanism 
12for enrollees to request a specialist or clinic as a primary care 
13provider. A specialist or clinic may serve as a primary care provider 
14if the specialist or clinic agrees to serve in a primary care provider 
15role and is qualified to treat the required range of conditions of the 
16enrollee.
17(12) Ensure that managed care health plans participating in the 
18demonstration project are able to provide communication access 
19to seniors and persons with disabilities in alternative formats or 
20through other methods that ensure communication, including 
21assistive listening systems, sign language interpreters, captioning, 
22written communication, plain language, or written translations and 
23oral interpreters, including for those who are limited 
24English-proficient, or non-English speaking, and that all managed 
25care health plans are in compliance with applicable cultural and 
26linguistic requirements.
27(13) Ensure that managed care health plans participating in the 
28demonstration project provide access to out-of-network providers 
29for new individual members enrolled under this section who have 
30an ongoing relationship with a provider if the provider will accept 
31the health plan’s rate for the service offered, or the applicable 
32Medi-Cal fee-for-service rate, whichever is higher, and the health 
33plan determines that the provider meets applicable professional 
34standards and has no disqualifying quality of care issues.
35(14) Ensure that managed care health plans participating in the 
36demonstration project comply with continuity of care requirements 
37in Section 1373.96 of the Health and Safety Code.
38(15) Ensure that the medical exemption criteria applied in 
39counties operating under Chapter 4.1 (commencing with Section 
4053800) or
				  Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 53900) of 
P525  1Subdivision 1 of Division 3 of Title 22 of the California Code of 
2Regulations are applied to seniors and persons with disabilities 
3served under this section.
4(16) Ensure that managed care health plans participating in the 
5demonstration project take into account the behavioral health needs 
6of enrollees and include behavioral health services as part of the 
7enrollee’s care management plan when appropriate.
8(17) Develop performance measures that are required as part 
9of the contract to provide quality indicators for the Medi-Cal 
10population enrolled in a managed care health plan and for the 
11subset of enrollees who are seniors and persons with disabilities. 
12These performance measures may include measures from the 
13Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS) or 
14measures indicative of performance in serving special needs
15
				  populations, such as the National Committee for Quality Assurance 
16(NCQA) Structure and Process measures, or both.
17(18) Conduct medical audit reviews of participating managed 
18care health plans that include elements specifically related to the 
19care of seniors and persons with disabilities. These medical audits 
20shall include, but not be limited to, evaluation of the delivery 
21model’s policies and procedures, performance in utilization 
22management, continuity of care, availability and accessibility, 
23member rights, and quality management.
24(19) Conduct financial audit reviews to ensure that a financial 
25statement audit is performed on managed care health plans annually 
26pursuant to the Generally Accepted Auditing Standards, and 
27conduct other risk-based audits for the purpose of detecting fraud 
28and irregular transactions.
29(20) Ensure that managed care health plans maintain a dedicated 
30liaison to coordinate with the department, affected providers, and 
31new individual members for all of the following purposes:
32(A) To ensure a mechanism for new members to obtain 
33continuity of care as described in paragraph (13).
34(B) To receive notice, including that a new member has been 
35denied a medical exemption as described in paragraph (15), which 
36is required to include the name or names of the requesting provider, 
37and ensure that the provider’s ability to treat the member is 
38continued as described in paragraphs (11) and (13), if applicable, 
39or, if not applicable, ensure the member is immediately referred 
40to a qualified provider or specialty care center.
P526  1(C) To assist new members in maintaining an ongoing 
2relationship with a specialist or
				  specialty care center when the 
3specialist is contracting with the plan and the assigned primary 
4care provider has approved a standing referral pursuant to Section 
51374.16 of the Health and Safety Code.
6(21) Ensure that written notice is provided to the beneficiary 
7and the requesting provider if a request for exemption from plan 
8enrollment is denied. The notice shall set out with specificity the 
9reasons for the denial or failure to unconditionally approve the 
10request for exemption from plan enrollment. The notice shall 
11inform the beneficiary and the provider of the right to appeal the 
12decision, how to appeal the decision, and if the decision is not 
13appealed, that the beneficiary shall enroll in a Medi-Cal plan and 
14how that enrollment shall occur. The notice shall also include 
15information of the possibility of continued access to an 
16out-of-network provider pursuant to paragraph (13). A beneficiary 
17who has not been enrolled in a plan shall remain
				  in fee-for-service 
18Medi-Cal if a request for an exemption from plan enrollment or 
19appeal is submitted, until the final resolution. The department shall 
20also require the plans to ensure that these beneficiaries receive 
21continuity of care.
22(22) Develop a process to track a beneficiary who has been 
23denied a request for exemption from plan enrollment and to notify 
24the plan, if applicable, of the denial, including information 
25identifying the provider. Notwithstanding paragraph (12) of 
26subdivision (c), the plan shall immediately refer the beneficiary 
27for a risk assessment survey and an individual care plan shall be 
28developed within 10 days, including authorization for 30 days of 
29continuity of prescription drugs.
30(c) Prior to exercising its authority under this section and Section 
3114180, the department shall ensure that each managed care health 
32plan participating in the demonstration
				  project is able to do all of 
33the following:
34(1) Comply with the applicable readiness evaluation criteria 
35and requirements set forth in paragraphs (1) to (8), inclusive, of 
36subdivision (b) of Section 14087.48.
37(2) Ensure and monitor an appropriate provider network, 
38including primary care physicians, specialists, professional, allied, 
39and medical supportive personnel, and an adequate number of 
40accessible facilities within each service area. Managed care health 
P527  1plans shall maintain an updated, accurate, and accessible listing 
2of a provider’s ability to accept new patients and shall make it 
3available to enrollees, at a minimum, by phone, written material, 
4and Internet Web site.
5(3) Assess the health care needs of beneficiaries who are seniors 
6or persons with disabilities and coordinate their care across all 
7settings,
				  including coordination of necessary services within and, 
8where necessary, outside of the plan’s provider network.
9(4) Ensure that the provider network and informational materials 
10meet the linguistic and other special needs of seniors and persons 
11with disabilities, including providing information in an 
12understandable manner in plain language, maintaining toll-free 
13telephone lines, and offering member or ombudsperson services.
14(5) Provide clear, timely, and fair processes for accepting and 
15acting upon complaints, grievances, and disenrollment requests, 
16including procedures for appealing decisions regarding coverage 
17or benefits. Each managed care health plan participating in the 
18demonstration project shall have a grievance process that complies 
19with Section 14450, and Sections 1368 and 1368.01 of the Health 
20and Safety Code.
21(6) Solicit stakeholder and member participation in advisory 
22groups for the planning and development activities related to the 
23provision of services for seniors and persons with disabilities.
24(7) Contract with safety net and traditional providers as defined 
25in subdivisions (hh) and (jj) of Section 53810, of Title 22 of the 
26California Code of Regulations, to ensure access to care and 
27services. The managed care health plan shall establish participation 
28standards to ensure participation and broad representation of 
29traditional and safety net providers within a service area.
30(8) Inform seniors and persons with disabilities of procedures 
31for obtaining transportation services to service sites that are offered 
32by the plan or are available through the Medi-Cal program.
33(9) Monitor the quality and appropriateness
				  of care for children 
34with special health care needs, including children eligible for, or 
35enrolled in, the California Children’s Services Program, and seniors 
36and persons with disabilities.
37(10) Maintain a dedicated liaison to coordinate with each 
38regional center operating within the plan’s service area to assist 
39members with developmental disabilities in understanding and 
P528  1accessing services and act as a central point of contact for 
2questions, access and care concerns, and problem resolution.
3(11) At the time of enrollment apply the risk stratification 
4mechanism or algorithm described in paragraph (7) of subdivision 
5(b) approved by the department to determine the health risk level 
6of beneficiaries.
7(12) (A) Managed care health plans shall assess an enrollee’s 
8current health risk by administering
				  a risk assessment survey tool 
9approved by the department. This risk assessment survey shall be 
10performed within the following timeframes:
11(i) Within 45 days of plan enrollment for individuals determined 
12to be at higher risk pursuant to paragraph (11).
13(ii) Within 105 days of plan enrollment for individuals 
14determined to be at lower risk pursuant to paragraph (11).
15(B) Based on the results of the current health risk assessment, 
16managed care health plans shall develop individual care plans for 
17higher risk beneficiaries that shall include the following minimum 
18components:
19(i) Identification of medical care needs, including primary care, 
20specialty care, durable medical equipment, medications, and other 
21needs with a plan for care coordination as needed.
22(ii) Identification of needs and referral to appropriate community 
23resources and other agencies as needed for services outside the 
24scope of responsibility of the managed care health plan.
25(iii) Appropriate involvement of caregivers.
26(iv) Determination of timeframes for reassessment and, if 
27necessary, circumstances or conditions that require redetermination 
28of risk level.
29(13) (A) Establish medical homes to which enrollees are 
30assigned that include, at a minimum, all of the following elements, 
31which shall be considered in the provider contracting process:
32(i) A primary care physician who is the primary clinician for 
33the beneficiary and who provides core clinical
				  management 
34functions.
35(ii) Care management and care coordination for the beneficiary 
36across the health care system including transitions among levels 
37of care.
38(iii) Provision of referrals to qualified professionals, community 
39resources, or other agencies for services or items outside the scope 
40of responsibility of the managed care health plan.
P529  1(iv) Use of clinical data to identify beneficiaries at the care site 
2with chronic illness or other significant health issues.
3(v) Timely preventive, acute, and chronic illness treatment in 
4the appropriate setting.
5(vi) Use of clinical guidelines or other evidence-based medicine 
6when applicable for treatment of beneficiaries’ health care issues 
7or
				  timing of clinical preventive services.
8(B) In implementing this section, and the Special Terms and 
9Conditions of the demonstration project, the department may alter 
10the medical home elements described in this paragraph as necessary 
11to secure the increased federal financial participation associated 
12with the provision of medical assistance in conjunction with a 
13health home, as made available under the federal Patient Protection 
14and Affordable Care Act (Public Law 111-148), as amended by 
15the federal Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010 
16(Public Law 111-152), and codified in Section 1945 of Title XIX 
17of the federal Social Security Act. The department shall notify the 
18appropriate policy and fiscal committees of the Legislature of its 
19intent to alter medical home elements under this section at least 
20five days in advance of taking this action.
21(14) Perform, at a minimum,
				  the following care management 
22and care coordination functions and activities for enrollees who 
23are seniors or persons with disabilities:
24(A) Assessment of each new enrollee’s risk level and health 
25needs shall be conducted through a standardized risk assessment 
26survey by means such as telephonic, Web-based, or in-person 
27communication or by other means as determined by the department.
28(B) Facilitation of timely access to primary care, specialty care, 
29durable medical equipment, medications, and other health services 
30needed by the enrollee, including referrals to address any physical 
31or cognitive barriers to access.
32(C) Active referral to community resources or other agencies 
33for needed services or items outside the managed care health plans 
34responsibilities.
35(D) Facilitating communication among the beneficiaries’ health 
36care providers, including mental health and substance abuse 
37providers when appropriate.
38(E) Other activities or services needed to assist beneficiaries in 
39optimizing their health status, including assisting with 
P530  1self-management skills or techniques, health education, and other 
2modalities to improve health status.
3(d) Except in a county where Medi-Cal services are provided 
4by a county-organized health system, and notwithstanding any 
5other provision of law, in any county in which fewer than two 
6existing managed care health plans contract with the department 
7to provide Medi-Cal services under this chapter, the department 
8may contract with additional managed care health plans to provide 
9Medi-Cal services for seniors and persons with disabilities and 
10other Medi-Cal beneficiaries.
11(e) Beneficiaries enrolled in managed care health plans pursuant 
12to this section shall have the choice to continue an established 
13patient-provider relationship in a managed care health plan 
14participating in the demonstration project if his or her treating 
15provider is a primary care provider or clinic contracting with the 
16managed care health plan and agrees to continue to treat that 
17beneficiary.
18(f) The department may contract with existing managed care 
19health plans to operate under the demonstration project to provide 
20or arrange for services under this section. Notwithstanding any 
21other provision of law, the department may enter into the contract 
22without the need for a competitive bid process or other contract 
23proposal process, provided the managed care health plan provides 
24written documentation that it meets all qualifications and 
25requirements of this section.
26(g) This section shall be implemented only to the extent that 
27federal financial participation is available.
28(h) (1) The development of capitation rates for managed care 
29health plan contracts shall include the analysis of data specific to 
30the seniors and persons with disabilities population. For the 
31purposes of developing capitation rates for payments to managed 
32care health plans, the director may require managed care health 
33plans, including existing managed care health plans, to submit 
34financial and utilization data in a form, time, and substance as 
35deemed necessary by the department.
36(2) (A) Notwithstanding Section 14301, the department may 
37incorporate, on a one-time basis for a three-year period, a 
38risk-sharing mechanism in a contract with the local initiative health 
39plan in
				  the county with the highest normalized fee-for-service risk 
40score over the normalized managed care risk score listed in Table 
P531  11.0 of the Medi-Cal Acuity Study Seniors and Persons with 
2Disabilities (SPD) report written by Mercer Government Human 
3Services Consulting and dated September 28, 2010, if the local 
4initiative health plan meets the requirements of subparagraph (B). 
5The Legislature finds and declares that this risk-sharing mechanism 
6will limit the risk of beneficial or adverse effects associated with 
7a contract to furnish services pursuant to this section on an at-risk 
8basis.
9(B) The local initiative health plan shall pay the nonfederal 
10share of all costs associated with the development, implementation, 
11and monitoring of the risk-sharing mechanism established pursuant 
12to subparagraph (A) by means of intergovernmental transfers. The 
13nonfederal share includes the state costs of staffing, state 
14contractors, or administrative costs directly
				  attributable to 
15implementing subparagraph (A).
16(C) This subdivision shall be implemented only to the extent 
17federal financial participation is not jeopardized.
18(i) Persons meeting participation requirements for the Program 
19of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE) pursuant to Chapter 
208.75 (commencing with Section 14591), may select a PACE plan 
21if one is available in that county.
22(j) Persons meeting the participation requirements in effect on 
23January 1, 2010, for a Medi-Cal primary care case management 
24(PCCM) plan in operation on that date, may select that PCCM 
25plan or a successor health care plan that is licensed pursuant to the 
26Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act of 1975 (Chapter 2.2 
27(commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of the Health and 
28Safety Code) to provide services within the same geographic area
29
				  that the PCCM plan served on January 1, 2010.
30(k) Notwithstanding Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 
3111340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, 
32the department may implement, interpret, or make specific this 
33section and any applicable federal waivers and state plan 
34amendments by means of all-county letters, plan letters, plan or 
35provider bulletins, or similar instructions, without taking regulatory 
36action. Prior to issuing any letter or similar instrument authorized 
37pursuant to this section, the department shall notify and consult 
38with stakeholders, including advocates, providers, and 
39beneficiaries. The department shall notify the appropriate policy 
40and fiscal committees of the Legislature of its intent to issue 
P532  1instructions under this section at least five days in advance of the 
2issuance.
3(l) Consistent with state law that exempts Medi-Cal managed 
4care
				  contracts from Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 10290) 
5of Part 2 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code, and in order 
6to achieve maximum cost savings, the Legislature hereby 
7determines that an expedited contract process is necessary for 
8contracts entered into or amended pursuant to this section. The 
9contracts and amendments entered into or amended pursuant to 
10this section shall be exempt from Chapter 2 (commencing with 
11Section 10290) of Part 2 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code 
12and the requirements of State Administrative Management Manual 
13Memo 03-10. The department shall make the terms of a contract 
14available to the public within 30 days of the contract’s effective 
15date.
16(m) In the event of a conflict between the Special Terms and 
17Conditions of the approved demonstration project, including any 
18attachment thereto, and any provision of this part, the Special 
19Terms and Conditions shall control. If the department identifies a 
20specific
				  provision of this article that conflicts with a term or 
21condition of the approved waiver or demonstration project, or an 
22attachment thereto, the term or condition shall control, and the 
23department shall so notify the appropriate fiscal and policy 
24committees of the Legislature within 15 business days.
25(n) In the event of a conflict between the provisions of this 
26article and any other provision of this part, the provisions of this 
27article shall control.
28(o) Any otherwise applicable provisions of this chapter, Chapter 
298 (commencing with Section 14200), or Chapter 8.75 (commencing 
30with Section 14591) not in conflict with this article or with the 
31terms and conditions of the demonstration project shall apply to 
32this section.
33(p) To the extent that the director utilizes state plan amendments 
34or waivers to accomplish the
				  purposes of this article in addition 
35to waivers granted under the demonstration project, the terms of 
36the state plan amendments or waivers shall control in the event of 
37a conflict with any provision of this part.
38(q) (1) Enrollment of seniors and persons with disabilities into 
39a managed care health plan under this section shall be accomplished 
40using a phased-in process to be determined by the department and 
P533  1shall not commence until necessary federal approvals have been 
2acquired or until June 1, 2011, whichever is later.
3(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), and at the director’s 
4discretion, enrollment in Los Angeles County of seniors and 
5persons with disabilities may be phased-in over a 12-month period 
6using a geographic region method that is proposed by Los Angeles 
7County subject to approval by the department.
8(r) A managed care health plan established pursuant to this 
9section, or under the Special Terms and Conditions of the 
10demonstration project pursuant to Section 14180, shall be subject 
11to, and comply with, the requirement for submission of encounter 
12data specified in Section 14182.1.
13(s) (1) Commencing January 1, 2011, and until January 1, 2014, 
14the department shall provide the fiscal and policy committees of 
15the Legislature with semiannual updates regarding core activities 
16for the enrollment of seniors and persons with disabilities into 
17managed care health plans pursuant to the pilot program. The 
18semiannual updates shall include key milestones, progress toward 
19the objectives of the pilot program, relevant or necessary changes 
20to the program, submittal of state plan amendments to the federal 
21Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, submittal of any 
22federal waiver documents, and other key activities related
				  to the 
23mandatory enrollment of seniors and persons with disabilities into 
24managed care health plans. The department shall also include 
25updates on the transition of individuals into managed care health 
26plans, the health outcomes of enrollees, the care management and 
27coordination process, and other information concerning the success 
28or overall status of the pilot program.
29(2) (A) The requirement for submitting a report imposed under 
30paragraph (1) is inoperative on January 1, 2015, pursuant to Section 
3110231.5 of the Government Code.
32(B) A report to be submitted pursuant to paragraph (1) shall be 
33submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government 
34Code.
35(t) The department, in collaboration with the State Department 
36of Social Services and county welfare departments, shall monitor 
37the
				  utilization and caseload of the In-Home Supportive Services 
38(IHSS) program before and during the implementation of the pilot 
39program. This information shall be monitored in order to identify 
P534  1the impact of the pilot program on the IHSS program for the 
2affected population.
3(u) Services under Section 14132.95 or 14132.952, or Article 
47 (commencing with Section 12300) of Chapter 3 that are provided 
5to individuals assigned to managed care health plans under this 
6section shall be provided through direct hiring of personnel, 
7contract, or establishment of a public authority or nonprofit 
8consortium, in accordance with and subject to the requirements of 
9Section 12302 or 12301.6, as applicable.
10(v) The department shall, at a minimum, monitor on a quarterly 
11basis the adequacy of provider networks of the managed care health 
12plans.
13(w) The department shall suspend new enrollment of seniors 
14and persons with disabilities into a managed care health plan if it 
15determines that the managed care health plan does not have 
16sufficient primary or specialty providers to meet the needs of their 
17enrollees.
Section 14182.16 of the Welfare and Institutions 
19Code is amended to read:
(a) The department shall require Medi-Cal 
21beneficiaries who have dual eligibility in Medi-Cal and the 
22Medicare Program to be assigned as mandatory enrollees into new 
23or existing Medi-Cal managed care health plans for their Medi-Cal 
24benefits in counties participating in the demonstration project 
25pursuant to Section 14132.275.
26(b) For the purposes of this section and Section 14182.17, the 
27following definitions shall apply:
28(1) “Dual eligible beneficiary” means an individual 21 years of 
29age or older who is enrolled for benefits under Medicare Part A 
30(42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395c et seq.) or Medicare Part B (42 U.S.C. Sec. 
311395j et seq.), or both, and is eligible for medical assistance under 
32the Medi-Cal State
				  Plan.
33(2) “Full-benefit dual eligible beneficiary” means an individual 
3421 years of age or older who is eligible for benefits under Medicare 
35Part A (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395c et seq.), Medicare Part B (42 U.S.C. 
36Sec. 1395j et seq.), and Medicare Part D (42 U.S.C. Sec. 
371395w-101), and is eligible for medical assistance under the 
38Medi-Cal State Plan.
39(3) “Managed care health plan” means an individual, 
40organization, or entity that enters into a contract with the 
P535  1department pursuant to Article 2.7 (commencing with Section 
214087.3), Article 2.81 (commencing with Section 14087.96), or 
3Article 2.91 (commencing with Section 14089), of this chapter, 
4or Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 14200).
5(4) “Other health coverage” means health coverage providing 
6the same full or partial benefits as the Medi-Cal program, health 
7coverage
				  under another state or federal medical care program 
8except for the Medicare Program (Title XVIII of the federal Social 
9Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395 et seq.)), or health coverage 
10under a contractual or legal entitlement, including, but not limited 
11to, a private group or indemnification insurance program.
12(5) “Out-of-network Medi-Cal provider” means a health care 
13provider that does not have an existing contract with the 
14beneficiary’s managed care health plan or its subcontractors.
15(6) “Partial-benefit dual eligible beneficiary” means an 
16individual 21 years of age or older who is enrolled for benefits 
17under Medicare Part A (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395c et seq.), but not 
18Medicare Part B (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395j et seq.), or who is eligible 
19for Medicare Part B (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395j et seq.), but not 
20Medicare Part A (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395c et seq.), and is eligible for 
21medical assistance under
				  the Medi-Cal State Plan.
22(c) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), a dual eligible 
23beneficiary is exempt from mandatory enrollment in a managed 
24care health plan if the dual eligible beneficiary meets any of the 
25following:
26(A) Except in counties with county-organized health systems 
27operating pursuant to Article 2.8 (commencing with Section 
2814087.5), the beneficiary has other health coverage.
29(B) The beneficiary receives services through a foster care 
30program, including the program described in Article 5 
31(commencing with Section 11400) of Chapter 2.
32(C) The beneficiary is under 21 years of age.
33(D) The beneficiary is not eligible for enrollment in managed 
34care health
				  plans for medically necessary reasons determined by 
35the department.
36(E) The beneficiary resides in one of the Veterans’ Homes of 
37California, as described in Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 
381010) of Division 5 of the Military and Veterans Code.
P536  1(F) The beneficiary is enrolled in any entity with a contract with 
2the department pursuant to Chapter 8.75 (commencing with Section 
314591).
4(G) The beneficiary is enrolled in a managed care organization 
5licensed under the Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act of 
61975 (Chapter 2.2 (commencing with Section 1340) of Division 
72 of the Health and Safety Code) that has previously contracted 
8with the department as a primary care case management plan 
9pursuant to Article 2.9 (commencing with Section 14088).
10(2) A
				  beneficiary who has been diagnosed with HIV/AIDS is 
11not exempt from mandatory enrollment, but may opt out of 
12managed care enrollment at the beginning of any month.
13(d) Implementation of this section shall incorporate the 
14provisions of Section 14182.17 that are applicable to beneficiaries 
15eligible for benefits under Medi-Cal and the Medicare Program.
16(e) At the director’s sole discretion, in consultation with 
17stakeholders, the department may determine and implement a 
18phased-in enrollment approach that may include Medi-Cal 
19beneficiary enrollment into managed care health plans immediately 
20upon implementation of this section in a specific county, over a 
2112-month period, or other phased approach. The phased-in 
22enrollment shall commence no sooner than March 1, 2013, and 
23not until all necessary federal approvals have been obtained.
24(f) To the extent that mandatory enrollment is required by the 
25department, an enrollee’s access to fee-for-service Medi-Cal shall 
26not be terminated until the enrollee has selected or been assigned 
27to a managed care health plan.
28(g) Except in a county where Medi-Cal services are provided 
29by a county organized health system, and notwithstanding any 
30other law, in any county in which fewer than two existing managed 
31health care plans contract with the department to provide Medi-Cal 
32services under this chapter that are available to dual eligible 
33beneficiaries, including long-term services and supports, the 
34department may contract with additional managed care health plans 
35to provide Medi-Cal services.
36(h) For partial-benefit dual eligible beneficiaries, the department 
37shall inform these beneficiaries of their rights to continuity of care 
38from out-of-network Medi-Cal
				  providers pursuant to subparagraph 
39(G) of paragraph (5) of subdivision (d) of Section 14182.17, and 
40that the need for medical exemption criteria applied to counties 
P537  1operating under Chapter 4.1 (commencing with Section 53800) of 
2Subdivision 1 of Division 3 of Title 22 of the California Code of 
3Regulations may not be necessary to continue receiving Medi-Cal 
4services from an out-of-network provider.
5(i) The department may contract with existing managed care 
6health plans to provide or arrange for services under this section. 
7Notwithstanding any other law, the department may enter into the 
8contract without the need for a competitive bid process or other 
9contract proposal process, provided that the managed care health 
10plan provides written documentation that it meets all of the 
11qualifications and requirements of this section and Section 
1214182.17.
13(j) The development of capitation rates
				  for managed care health 
14plan contracts shall include the analysis of data specific to the dual 
15eligible population. For the purposes of developing capitation rates 
16for payments to managed care health plans, the department shall 
17require all managed care health plans, including existing managed 
18care health plans, to submit financial, encounter, and utilization 
19data in a form, at a time, and including substance as deemed 
20necessary by the department. Failure to submit the required data 
21shall result in the imposition of penalties pursuant to Section 
2214182.1.
23(k) Persons meeting participation requirements for the Program 
24of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE) pursuant to Chapter 
258.75 (commencing with Section 14591) may select a PACE plan 
26if one is available in that county.
27(l) Except for dual eligible beneficiaries participating in the 
28demonstration project pursuant to Section
				  14132.275, persons 
29meeting the participation requirements in effect on January 1, 
302010, for a Medi-Cal primary case management plan in operation 
31on that date, may select that primary care case management plan 
32or a successor health care plan that is licensed pursuant to the 
33Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act of 1975 (Chapter 2.2 
34(commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of the Health and 
35Safety Code) to provide services within the same geographic area 
36that the primary care case management plan served on January 1, 
372010.
38(m) The department may implement an intergovernmental 
39transfer arrangement with a public entity that elects to transfer 
40public funds to the state to be used solely as the nonfederal share 
P538  1of Medi-Cal payments to managed care health plans for the 
2provision of services to dual eligible beneficiaries pursuant to 
3Section 14182.15.
4(n) To implement this section,
				  the department may contract with 
5public or private entities. Contracts or amendments entered into 
6under this section may be on an exclusive or nonexclusive basis 
7and on a noncompetitive bid basis and shall be exempt from all of 
8the following:
9(1) Part 2 (commencing with Section 10100) of Division 2 of 
10the Public Contract Code and any policies, procedures, or 
11regulations authorized by that part.
12(2) Article 4 (commencing with Section 19130) of Chapter 5 
13of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
14(3) Review or approval of contracts by the Department of 
15General Services.
16(o) Any otherwise applicable provisions of this chapter, Chapter 
178 (commencing with Section 14200), or Chapter 8.75 (commencing 
18with Section 14591) not in conflict with
				  this section or with the 
19Special Terms and Conditions of the waiver shall apply to this 
20section.
21(p) The department shall, in coordination with and consistent 
22with an interagency agreement with the Department of Managed 
23Health Care, at a minimum, monitor on a quarterly basis the 
24adequacy of provider networks of the managed care health plans.
25(q) The department shall suspend new enrollment of dual eligible 
26beneficiaries into a managed care health plan if it determines that 
27the managed care health plan does not have sufficient primary or 
28specialty care providers and long-term services and supports to 
29meet the needs of its enrollees.
30(r) Managed care health plans shall pay providers in accordance 
31with Medicare and Medi-Cal coordination of benefits.
32(s) This section shall be implemented only to the extent that all 
33federal approvals and waivers are obtained and only if and to the 
34extent that federal financial participation is available.
35(t) Notwithstanding Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 
3611340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, 
37the department may implement, interpret, or make specific this 
38section and any applicable federal waivers and state plan 
39amendments by means of all-county letters, plan letters, plan or 
40provider bulletins, or similar instructions, without taking regulatory 
P539  1action. Prior to issuing any letter or similar instrument authorized 
2pursuant to this section, the department shall notify and consult 
3with stakeholders, including advocates, providers, and 
4beneficiaries. The department shall notify the appropriate policy 
5and fiscal committees of the Legislature of its intent to issue 
6instructions under this section at least five days in
				  advance of the 
7issuance.
8(u) A managed care health plan that contracts with the 
9department for the provision of services under this section shall 
10ensure that beneficiaries have access to the same categories of 
11licensed providers that are available under fee-for-service 
12Medicare. Nothing in this section shall prevent a managed care 
13health plan from contracting with selected providers within a 
14category of licensure.
Section 15630 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
16 is amended to read:
(a) Any person who has assumed full or intermittent 
18responsibility for the care or custody of an elder or dependent 
19adult, whether or not he or she receives compensation, including 
20administrators, supervisors, and any licensed staff of a public or 
21private facility that provides care or services for elder or dependent 
22adults, or any elder or dependent adult care custodian, health 
23practitioner, clergy member, or employee of a county adult 
24protective services agency or a local law enforcement agency, is 
25a mandated reporter.
26(b) (1) Any mandated reporter who, in his or her professional 
27capacity, or within the scope of his or her employment, has 
28observed or has knowledge of an incident that reasonably appears 
29to be physical abuse, as defined in
				  Section 15610.63, abandonment, 
30abduction, isolation, financial abuse, or neglect, or is told by an 
31elder or dependent adult that he or she has experienced behavior, 
32including an act or omission, constituting physical abuse, as defined 
33in Section 15610.63, abandonment, abduction, isolation, financial 
34abuse, or neglect, or reasonably suspects that abuse, shall report 
35the known or suspected instance of abuse by telephone or through 
36a confidential Internet reporting tool, as authorized by Section 
3715658, immediately or as soon as practicably possible. If reported 
38by telephone, a written report shall be sent, or an Internet report 
39shall be made through the confidential Internet reporting tool 
40established in Section 15658, within two working days:
P540  1(A) If the suspected or alleged abuse is physical abuse, as 
2defined in Section 15610.63, and the abuse occurred in a long-term 
3care facility, except a state mental health hospital or a state 
4developmental
				  center, the following shall occur:
5(i) If the suspected abuse results in serious bodily injury, a 
6telephone report shall be made to the local law enforcement agency 
7immediately, and no later than within two hours of the mandated 
8reporter observing, obtaining knowledge of, or suspecting the 
9physical abuse, and a written report shall be made to the local 
10ombudsman, the corresponding licensing agency, and the local 
11law enforcement agency within two hours of the mandated reporter 
12observing, obtaining knowledge of, or suspecting the physical 
13abuse.
14(ii) If the suspected abuse does not result in serious bodily injury, 
15a telephone report shall be made to the local law enforcement 
16agency within 24 hours of the mandated reporter observing, 
17obtaining knowledge of, or suspecting the physical abuse, and a 
18written report shall be made to the local ombudsman, the 
19corresponding licensing agency,
				  and the local law enforcement 
20agency within 24 hours of the mandated reporter observing, 
21obtaining knowledge of, or suspecting the physical abuse.
22(iii) When the suspected abuse is allegedly caused by a resident 
23with a physician’s diagnosis of dementia, and there is no serious 
24bodily injury, as reasonably determined by the mandated reporter, 
25drawing upon his or her training or experience, the reporter shall 
26report to the local ombudsman or law enforcement agency by 
27telephone, immediately or as soon as practicably possible, and by 
28written report, within 24 hours.
29(iv) When applicable, reports made pursuant to clauses (i) and 
30(ii) shall be deemed to satisfy the reporting requirements of the 
31federal Elder Justice Act of 2009, as set out in Subtitle H of Title 
32VI of the federal Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act 
33(Public Law 111-148), Section 1418.91 of the Health and Safety
34
				  Code, and Section 72541 of Title 22 of the California Code of 
35Regulations. When a local law enforcement agency receives an 
36initial report of suspected abuse in a long-term care facility 
37pursuant to this subparagraph, the local law enforcement agency 
38may coordinate efforts with the local ombudsman to provide the 
39most immediate and appropriate response warranted to investigate 
40the mandated report. The local ombudsman and local law 
P541  1enforcement agencies may collaborate to develop protocols to 
2implement this subparagraph.
3(B) Notwithstanding the rulemaking provisions of Chapter 3.5 
4(commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 
52 of the Government Code, or any other law, the department may 
6implement subparagraph (A), in whole or in part, by means of 
7all-county letters, provider bulletins, or other similar instructions 
8without taking regulatory action.
9(C) If the
				  suspected or alleged abuse is abuse other than physical 
10abuse, and the abuse occurred in a long-term care facility, except 
11a state mental health hospital or a state developmental center, a 
12telephone report and a written report shall be made to the local 
13ombudsman or the local law enforcement agency.
14(D) With regard to abuse reported pursuant to subparagraphs 
15(A) and (C), the local ombudsman and the local law enforcement 
16agency shall, as soon as practicable, except in the case of an 
17emergency or pursuant to a report required to be made pursuant 
18to clause (v), in which case these actions shall be taken 
19immediately, do all of the following:
20(i) Report to the State Department of Public Health any case of 
21known or suspected abuse occurring in a long-term health care 
22facility, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 1418 of the Health 
23and Safety Code.
24(ii) Report to the State Department of Social Services any case 
25of known or suspected abuse occurring in a residential care facility 
26for the elderly, as defined in Section 1569.2 of the Health and 
27Safety Code, or in an adult day program, as defined in paragraph 
28(2) of subdivision (a) of Section 1502 of the Health and Safety 
29Code.
30(iii) Report to the State Department of Public Health and the 
31California Department of Aging any case of known or suspected 
32abuse occurring in an adult day health care center, as defined in 
33subdivision (b) of Section 1570.7 of the Health and Safety Code.
34(iv) Report to the Bureau of Medi-Cal Fraud any case of known 
35or suspected criminal activity.
36(v) Report all cases of known or suspected physical abuse and 
37financial abuse to the
				  local district attorney’s office in the county 
38where the abuse occurred.
39(E) If the suspected or alleged abuse occurred in a state mental 
40hospital or a state developmental center, the report shall be made 
P542  1to designated investigators of the State Department of State 
2Hospitals or the State Department of Developmental Services, or 
3to the local law enforcement agency.
4(i) Except in an emergency, the local law enforcement agency 
5shall, as soon as practicable, report any case of known or suspected 
6criminal activity to the Bureau of Medi-Cal Fraud.
7(ii) Mandated reporters of the State Department of 
8Developmental Services shall immediately report suspected abuse 
9to the Office of Protective Services or to the local law enforcement 
10agency.
11(F) If the abuse has
				  occurred any place other than one described 
12in subparagraph (A), the report shall be made to the adult protective 
13services agency or the local law enforcement agency.
14(2) (A) A mandated reporter who is a clergy member who 
15acquires knowledge or reasonable suspicion of elder or dependent 
16adult abuse during a penitential communication is not subject to 
17paragraph (1). For purposes of this subdivision, “penitential 
18communication” means a communication that is intended to be in 
19confidence, including, but not limited to, a sacramental confession 
20made to a clergy member who, in the course of the discipline or 
21practice of his or her church, denomination, or organization is 
22authorized or accustomed to hear those communications and under 
23the discipline tenets, customs, or practices of his or her church, 
24denomination, or organization, has a duty to keep those 
25communications secret.
26(B) This subdivision shall not be construed to modify or limit 
27a clergy member’s duty to report known or suspected elder and 
28dependent adult abuse if he or she is acting in the capacity of a 
29care custodian, health practitioner, or employee of an adult 
30protective services agency.
31(C) Notwithstanding any other provision in this section, a clergy 
32member who is not regularly employed on either a full-time or 
33part-time basis in a long-term care facility or does not have care 
34or custody of an elder or dependent adult shall not be responsible 
35for reporting abuse or neglect that is not reasonably observable or 
36discernible to a reasonably prudent person having no specialized 
37training or experience in elder or dependent care.
38(3) (A) A mandated reporter who is a physician and surgeon, 
39a registered nurse, or a psychotherapist, as defined in Section 1010 
P543  1of
				  the Evidence Code, shall not be required to report, pursuant to 
2paragraph (1), an incident if all of the following conditions exist:
3(i) The mandated reporter has been told by an elder or dependent 
4adult that he or she has experienced behavior constituting physical 
5abuse, as defined in Section 15610.63, abandonment, abduction, 
6isolation, financial abuse, or neglect.
7(ii) The mandated reporter is not aware of any independent 
8evidence that corroborates the statement that the abuse has 
9occurred.
10(iii) The elder or dependent adult has been diagnosed with a 
11mental illness or dementia, or is the subject of a court-ordered 
12conservatorship because of a mental illness or dementia.
13(iv) In the exercise of clinical judgment, the physician and 
14surgeon, the
				  registered nurse, or the psychotherapist, as defined 
15in Section 1010 of the Evidence Code, reasonably believes that 
16the abuse did not occur.
17(B) This paragraph shall not be construed to impose upon 
18mandated reporters a duty to investigate a known or suspected 
19incident of abuse and shall not be construed to lessen or restrict 
20any existing duty of mandated reporters.
21(4) (A) In a long-term care facility, a mandated reporter shall 
22not be required to report as a suspected incident of abuse, as defined 
23in Section 15610.07, an incident if all of the following conditions 
24exist:
25(i) The mandated reporter is aware that there is a proper plan 
26of care.
27(ii) The mandated reporter is aware that the plan of care was 
28properly provided or
				  executed.
29(iii) A physical, mental, or medical injury occurred as a result 
30of care provided pursuant to clause (i) or (ii).
31(iv) The mandated reporter reasonably believes that the injury 
32was not the result of abuse.
33(B) This paragraph shall not be construed to require a mandated 
34reporter to seek, nor to preclude a mandated reporter from seeking, 
35information regarding a known or suspected incident of abuse prior 
36to reporting. This paragraph shall apply only to those categories 
37of mandated reporters that the State Department of Public Health 
38determines, upon approval by the Bureau of Medi-Cal Fraud and 
39the state long-term care ombudsman, have access to plans of care 
P544  1and have the training and experience necessary to determine 
2whether the conditions specified in this section have been met.
3(c) (1) Any mandated reporter who has knowledge, or 
4reasonably suspects, that types of elder or dependent adult abuse 
5for which reports are not mandated have been inflicted upon an 
6elder or dependent adult, or that his or her emotional well-being 
7is endangered in any other way, may report the known or suspected 
8instance of abuse.
9(2) If the suspected or alleged abuse occurred in a long-term 
10care facility other than a state mental health hospital or a state 
11developmental center, the report may be made to the long-term 
12care ombudsman program. Except in an emergency, the local 
13ombudsman shall report any case of known or suspected abuse to 
14the State Department of Public Health and any case of known or 
15suspected criminal activity to the Bureau of Medi-Cal Fraud, as 
16soon as is practicable.
17(3) If the
				  suspected or alleged abuse occurred in a state mental 
18health hospital or a state developmental center, the report may be 
19made to the designated investigator of the State Department of 
20State Hospitals or the State Department of Developmental Services 
21or to a local law enforcement agency. Except in an emergency, 
22the local law enforcement agency shall report any case of known 
23or suspected criminal activity to the Bureau of Medi-Cal Fraud, 
24as soon as is practicable.
25(4) If the suspected or alleged abuse occurred in a place other 
26than a place described in paragraph (2) or (3), the report may be 
27made to the county adult protective services agency.
28(5) If the conduct involves criminal activity not covered in 
29subdivision (b), it may be immediately reported to the appropriate 
30law enforcement agency.
31(d) If two or more
				  mandated reporters are present and jointly 
32have knowledge or reasonably suspect that types of abuse of an 
33elder or a dependent adult for which a report is or is not mandated 
34have occurred, and there is agreement among them, the telephone 
35report or Internet report, as authorized by Section 15658, may be 
36made by a member of the team selected by mutual agreement, and 
37a single report may be made and signed by the selected member 
38of the reporting team. Any member who has knowledge that the 
39member designated to report has failed to do so shall thereafter 
40make the report.
P545  1(e) A telephone report or Internet report, as authorized by 
2Section 15658, of a known or suspected instance of elder or 
3dependent adult abuse shall include, if known, the name of the 
4person making the report, the name and age of the elder or 
5dependent adult, the present location of the elder or dependent 
6adult, the names and addresses of family members or any other 
7adult responsible
				  for the elder’s or dependent adult’s care, the 
8nature and extent of the elder’s or dependent adult’s condition, the 
9date of the incident, and any other information, including 
10information that led that person to suspect elder or dependent adult 
11abuse, as requested by the agency receiving the report.
12(f) The reporting duties under this section are individual, and 
13no supervisor or administrator shall impede or inhibit the reporting 
14duties, and no person making the report shall be subject to any 
15sanction for making the report. However, internal procedures to 
16facilitate reporting, ensure confidentiality, and apprise supervisors 
17and administrators of reports may be established, provided they 
18are not inconsistent with this chapter.
19(g) (1) Whenever this section requires a county adult protective 
20services agency to report to a law enforcement agency, the law
21
				  enforcement agency shall, immediately upon request, provide a 
22copy of its investigative report concerning the reported matter to 
23that county adult protective services agency.
24(2) Whenever this section requires a law enforcement agency 
25to report to a county adult protective services agency, the county 
26adult protective services agency shall, immediately upon request, 
27provide to that law enforcement agency a copy of its investigative 
28report concerning the reported matter.
29(3) The requirement to disclose investigative reports pursuant 
30to this subdivision shall not include the disclosure of social services 
31records or case files that are confidential, nor shall this subdivision 
32be construed to allow disclosure of any reports or records if the 
33disclosure would be prohibited by any other provision of state or 
34federal law.
35(h) Failure to report, or impeding or inhibiting a report of, 
36physical abuse, as defined in Section 15610.63, abandonment, 
37abduction, isolation, financial abuse, or neglect of an elder or 
38dependent adult, in violation of this section, is a misdemeanor, 
39punishable by not more than six months in a county jail, by a fine 
40of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that 
P546  1fine and imprisonment. Any mandated reporter who willfully fails 
2to report, or impedes or inhibits a report of, physical abuse, as 
3defined in Section 15610.63, abandonment, abduction, isolation, 
4financial abuse, or neglect of an elder or dependent adult, in 
5violation of this section, if that abuse results in death or great bodily 
6injury, shall be punished by not more than one year in a county 
7jail, by a fine of not more than five thousand dollars ($5,000), or 
8by both that fine and imprisonment. If a mandated reporter 
9intentionally conceals his or her failure to report an incident known 
10by the mandated reporter to be
				  abuse or severe neglect under this 
11section, the failure to report is a continuing offense until a law 
12enforcement agency specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) 
13discovers the offense.
14(i) For purposes of this section, “dependent adult” shall have 
15the same meaning as in Section 15610.23.
Section 15650 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
17 is amended to read:
(a) Investigation of reports of known or suspected 
19instances of abuse in long-term care facilities shall be the 
20responsibility of the bureau, the local law enforcement agency, 
21and the long-term care ombudsman program.
22(b) Investigations of known or suspected instances of abuse 
23outside of long-term care facilities shall be the responsibility of 
24the county adult protective services agency, unless another public 
25agency is given responsibility for investigation in that jurisdiction, 
26and the local law enforcement agency.
27(c) The investigative responsibilities set forth in this section are 
28in addition to, and not in derogation of or substitution for, the 
29investigative and regulatory responsibilities of
				  licensing agencies, 
30such as the State Department of Social Services Community Care 
31Licensing Division and the State Department of Public Health 
32Licensing and Certification Division and their authorized 
33representatives.
34(d) Other public agencies involved in the investigation of abuse 
35or advocacy of respective client populations, or both, include, but 
36shall not be limited to, the State Department of State Hospitals and 
37the State Department of Developmental Services. Other public 
38agencies shall conduct or assist in, or both, the investigation of 
39reports of abuse of elder and dependent adults within their 
P547  1jurisdiction in conjunction with county adult protective services, 
2local ombudsman programs, and local law enforcement agencies.
3(e) Each county adult protective services agency shall maintain 
4an inventory of all public and private service agencies available 
5to assist victims of
				  abuse, as defined by Section 15610.07. This 
6inventory shall be used to refer victims in the event that the county 
7adult protective services agency cannot resolve the immediate 
8needs of the victim, and to serve the victim on a long-term, 
9followup basis. The intent of this section is to acknowledge that 
10limited funds are available to resolve all suspected cases of abuse 
11reported to a county adult protective services agency.
12(f) Each local ombudsman program shall maintain an inventory 
13of all public and private agencies available to assist long-term care 
14residents who are victims of abuse, as defined by Section 15610.07. 
15This inventory shall be used to refer cases of abuse in the event 
16that another agency has jurisdiction over the resident, the abuse is 
17verified and further investigation is needed by a law enforcement 
18or licensing agency, or the program does not have sufficient 
19resources to provide immediate assistance. The intent of this section
20
				  is to acknowledge that ombudsman responsibility in abuse cases 
21is to receive reports, determine the validity of reports, refer verified 
22abuse cases to appropriate agencies for further action as necessary, 
23and follow up to complete the required report information. Other 
24ombudsman services shall be provided to the resident, as 
25appropriate.
Section 18969 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
27 is amended to read:
(a) There is hereby created in the State Treasury a fund 
29which shall be known as the State Children’s Trust Fund. The fund 
30shall consist of funds received from a county pursuant to Section 
3118968, funds collected by the state and transferred to the fund 
32pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 103625 of the Health and 
33Safety Code and Article 2 (commencing with Section 18711) of 
34Chapter 3 of Part 10.2 of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation 
35Code, grants, gifts, or bequests made to the state from private 
36sources to be used for innovative and distinctive child abuse and 
37neglect prevention and intervention projects, and money 
38appropriated to the fund for this purpose by the Legislature. The 
39State Registrar may retain a percentage of the fees collected 
P548  1pursuant to Section 103625 of the Health
				  and Safety Code, not to 
2exceed 10 percent, in order to defray the costs of collection.
3(b) Money in the State Children’s Trust Fund, upon 
4appropriation by the Legislature, shall be allocated to the State 
5Department of Social Services for the purpose of funding child 
6abuse and neglect prevention and intervention programs. The 
7department may not supplant any federal, state, or county funds 
8with any funds made available through the State Children’s Trust 
9Fund.
10(c) The department may establish positions as needed for the 
11purpose of implementing and administering child abuse and neglect 
12prevention and intervention programs that are funded by the State 
13Children’s Trust Fund. However, the department shall use no more 
14than 5 percent of the funds appropriated pursuant to this section 
15for administrative costs.
16(d) No State
				  Children’s Trust Fund money shall be used to 
17supplant state General Fund money for any purpose.
18(e) It is the intent of the Legislature that the State Children’s 
19Trust Fund provide for all of the following:
20(1) The development of a public-private partnership by 
21encouraging consistent outreach to the private foundation and 
22corporate community.
23(2) Funds for large-scale dissemination of information that will 
24promote public awareness regarding the nature and incidence of 
25child abuse and the availability of services for intervention. These 
26public awareness activities shall include, but not be limited to, the 
27production of public service announcements, well-designed posters, 
28pamphlets, booklets, videos, and other media tools.
29(3) Research and demonstration
				  projects that explore the nature 
30and incidence and the development of long-term solutions to the 
31problem of child abuse.
32(4) The development of a mechanism to provide ongoing public 
33awareness through activities that will promote the charitable tax 
34deduction for the trust fund and seek continued contributions. 
35These activities may include convening a philanthropic roundtable, 
36developing literature for use by the State Bar for dissemination, 
37and whatever other activities are deemed necessary and appropriate 
38to promote the trust fund.
Section 1 of Chapter 357 of the Statutes of 2012 is 
40amended to read:
(a) The sum of six hundred twenty-four thousand 
2six hundred seventy-one dollars and eighty-six cents ($624,671.86) 
3is hereby appropriated from the fund specified in subdivision (b) 
4to the Executive Officer of the California Victim Compensation 
5and Government Claims Board for the payment of claims accepted 
6by the board pursuant to the schedule set forth in subdivision (b).
7(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), claims accepted by the California 
8Victim Compensation and Government Claims Board shall be paid 
9pursuant to the following schedule: 
| Total for Fund: General Fund (0001) | 
 
  | 
| $593,372.28 | |
| Total for Fund: Item 2660-001-0042 Budget Act of 2012, Program 20.10 | 
 $9,330.35  | 
| Total for Fund: Item 2740-001-0044 Budget Act of 2012, Program 11 | 
 $3,055.15  | 
| Total for Fund: Item 4260-001-0001 Budget Act of 2012, Program 20 | 
 $6,131.34  | 
| Total for Fund: Item 5180-111-0001 Budget Act of 2012, Program 25.15 | 
 $3,117.59  | 
| Total for Fund: Item 7100-001-0185 Budget Act of 2012, Program 21 | 
 $9,665.15  | 
Section 1 of Chapter 513 of the Statutes of 2012 is 
25amended to read:
This act shall be known and may be cited as 
27Kathy’s Law.
Section 1 of Chapter 541 of the Statutes of 2012 is 
29amended to read:
The Legislature finds and declares all of the 
31following:
32(a) The coho salmon (Oncorhynchus kisutch) is a fish native to 
33many northern California coastal streams and consists of two 
34distinct Evolutionary Significant Units (ESU), the Southern 
35Oregon/Northern California Coast (SONCC) and the Central 
36California Coast (CCC) ESUs. The historical range of the SONCC 
37ESU includes coastal rivers and tributaries in Del Norte, Siskiyou, 
38Humboldt, Trinity, Mendocino, and Lake Counties. The historical 
39range for the CCC ESU includes coastal rivers and tributaries in 
40parts of Humboldt, Mendocino, Sonoma, Napa, Marin, Solano, 
P550  1Contra Costa, San Francisco, Alameda, San Mateo, Santa Clara, 
2and Santa Cruz Counties.
3(b) All coho salmon runs in California have declined 
4dramatically over the past 40 to 50 years. Population numbers, 
5including hatchery stocks, were estimated at 6 to 15 percent of 
61940 levels in 2004. Since 2004, populations in all monitored 
7streams have continued to decline with an estimated 1 percent 
8remaining of the original population. While a few coastal rivers, 
9such as the Russian River, did show an increase in population for 
102011, it is not yet known whether the increase is sustainable, and 
11the species remains at critical risk of extinction.
12(c) Both the SONCC and the CCC ESUs are listed pursuant to 
13the federal Endangered Species Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C. Sec. 1531 
14et seq.) and the California Endangered Species Act (Chapter 1.5 
15(commencing with Section 2050) of Division 3 of the Fish and 
16Game Code). The populations south of the
				San Francisco Bay are 
17listed as endangered and considered to be virtually extinct. The 
18populations between San Francisco Bay and Punta Gorda to the 
19north are listed as endangered, and the populations from Punta 
20Gorda to the Oregon border are listed as threatened.
21(d) California’s salmon populations need freshwater habitat that 
22includes cold and clean water, appropriate water depth, quantity, 
23and flow velocities, upland and riparian vegetation to stabilize soil 
24and shade, clean gravel for spawning and egg rearing, large woody 
25debris to provide resting and hiding places, adequate food, and 
26varied channel forms.
27(e) An urgency exists due to the extraordinarily small numbers 
28of coho salmon remaining in California. In order to prevent their 
29extinction from northern California waters,
				it is imperative that 
30habitat restoration efforts be expedited and increased as soon as 
31possible.
32(f) Therefore, it is the intent of the Legislature in enacting this 
33policy that the Department of Fish and Wildlife seek agreements 
34and partnerships with state and federal agencies to efficiently and 
35effectively permit habitat enhancement projects necessary to 
36prevent the extinction of coho salmon populations in California 
37coastal watersheds and that the Department of Fish and Wildlife 
38expedite and streamline the permitting and approval of coho salmon 
39habitat enhancement projects, including, in particular, large woody 
40debris restoration projects, in northern California streams.
P551  1(g) By eliminating barriers to fish passage, stabilizing banks, 
2increasing stream channel complexity, and
				otherwise restoring and 
3enhancing habitat, these projects will result in a net benefit to coho 
4salmon and other species. 
Section 2 of Chapter 719 of the Statutes of 2012 is 
6amended to read:
This act is an urgency statute necessary for the 
8immediate preservation of the public peace, health, or safety within 
9the meaning of Article IV of the Constitution and shall go into 
10immediate effect. The facts constituting the necessity are:
11This authorization is required to begin construction on the 
12memorial as quickly as possible to coincide with Portuguese 
13Heritage Month, established by Resolution Chapter 24 of the 
14Statutes of 2010.
Any section of any act enacted by the Legislature 
16during the 2013 calendar year that takes effect on or before January 
171, 2014, and that amends, amends and renumbers, adds, repeals 
18and adds, or repeals a section that is amended, amended and 
19renumbered, added, repealed and added, or repealed by this act, 
20shall prevail over this act, whether that act is enacted prior to, or 
21subsequent to, the enactment of this act. The repeal, or repeal and 
22addition, of any article, chapter, part, title, or division of any code 
23by this act shall not become operative if any section of any other 
24act that is enacted by the Legislature during the 2013 calendar year 
25and takes effect on or before January 1, 2014, amends, amends 
26and renumbers, adds, repeals and adds, or repeals any section 
27contained in that article, chapter,
		  part, title, or division.
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